Test 2 Flashcards

(306 cards)

1
Q

caused by Treponema pallidum

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

primary infection with syphilis

A

painless chancre that heals spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

secondary infection with syphilis

A

nonpruritic rash on palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

condylomata lata

A

gray colored genital warts that occur in syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tertiary infection with syphilis

A

cardiac, neuro, ophthalmic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diagnostic for syphilis

A

screening with nontreponemal tests (VDRL and RPR); confirmed with treponemal test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

trx for syphilis

A

Benzathine PCN G 2.4 million units IM x1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

trx for syphilis if allergic to PCN

A

doxycycline 100 mg bid x 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do not give tetracyclines during

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

f/u for syphilis treatment

A

serology titers in 3, 6, 9, 12 months. avoid sex until titer has a 4-fold decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

risk factors for PID

A

age less than 25, multiple sex partners, IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

risk for PID is decreased if

A

taking oral contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common cause of PID

A

chlamydia and gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

s/s of PID

A

abnormal vaginal bleeding, low back/abd pain for less than 2 weeks, CMT and adnexal tenderness, fever greater than 101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

diagnostics for PID

A
  • pregnancy test to r/o ectopic pregnancy
  • WBC on vaginal secretion
  • elevated ESR or CRP
  • endometrial biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment for PID

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 14 days with or without metronidazole 500 mg PO bid x 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

important with PID to

A

treat sexual partners in last 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

f/u with PID

A

f/u in 48-72 hours, then test for cure in 7-10 days and then 4-6 week after trx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HPV genital warts caused by

A

HPV 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

condylomata acuminate

A

HPV genital warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

painless, smooth, flat, skin-colored warts to fleshy papules that may become cauliflower-like growths.

A

condylomata acuminate in HPV warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

all women with HPV genital warts should undergo

A

pap smear for cervical HPV, gonorrhea/chlamydia, and HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatment for HPV warts

A

Podofilox 0.5% gel; cryotherapy every 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mucopurulent cervicitis is caused by

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
risk factors for mucopurulent cervicitis
women less than 21 years old
26
Diagnostic for mucopurulent cervicitis
pap smear (make sure to remove discharge prior to specimen collection), NAAT
27
treatment for mucopurulent cervicitis
azithromycin 1 g PO x 1 or doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days
28
Characterized by clear/mucoid discharge and burning on urination.
nongonococcal urethritis
29
usually asymptomatic in women that can progress to PID
gonorrhea
30
Diagnostic for gonorrhea
NAAT
31
treatment for nongonoccoal urethritis
azithromycin 1 g PO x 1 or doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days
32
incidence of gonorrhea is highest in
women 15-19 years old
33
s/s of gonorrhea in men
purulent urethral discharge, dysuria
34
s/s of gonorrhea in female
often asymptomatic
35
treatment for gonorrhea
ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 plus azithromycin 1 g PO x1 or doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days
36
Characterized by visible, painful genital or anal lesions or grouped vesicles at the site of inoculation and regional lymphadenopathy.
HSV
37
difference between HSV 1 and HSV 2
HSV1- oral herpes | HSV2- genital herpes
38
spread of HSV
asymptomatic shedding for up to 3 months
39
latency of HSV
establishes latency within sensory fibers for life
40
s/s of HSV
painful vesicles that ulcerate and resolve within 21 days
41
recurrent infection of HSV
prodrome phase of pain and burning over area prior to vesicle formation
42
Diagnostic of HSV
culture
43
treatment for HSV
acyclovir 400 mg PO tid x 7 days
44
treatment for recurrent HSV
acyclovir 400 mg PO tid x 5 days, start during prodrome or within one day of onset of lesion
45
transmission of HIV
sexually, injected drug use, blood transfusion, mother-to-baby
46
when should HIV testing be done
should be offered at least once in all people 13-64 years regardless of risk; those with high risk should be screened annually
47
AIDS is diagnosed when CD4 is
below 200
48
is the best predictor of viral transmission in homosexuals. with HIV
viral load
49
s/s of early HIV
influenza-like symptoms that is self-limiting followed by an asymptomatic period.
50
s/s of late HIV/AIDS
anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, weight loss, TB
51
diagnostic of HIV
ELISA that is confirmed with Western blot
52
Management of HIV
- CD4, viral load, and CBC every 3 months | - TB test annually
53
immunizations for HIV
Pneumovax every 5 years; | inactivated influenza annually
54
The role of oral contraceptives
suppress the release of FSH and LH, preventing ovulation
55
progestin role in contraception
thickens cervical mucus, prevents ovulation
56
provide a a constant dose of estrogen and progestin in each of the 21 active tablets.
monophasic OCP
57
phasic OCPs have
altering doses of progestin
58
women who miss one or two OCP tablets should
take 2 tablets for each missed day
59
s/s of too much estrogen in OCP
bloating, edema, nausea, breast tenderness
60
s/s of too little estrogen in OCP
breakthrough bleeding, increased spotting
61
s/s of too little progestin in OCP
breakthrough bleeding, amenorrhea
62
s/s of too much progestin in OCP
increased appetite, weight gain
63
OCPs result in a reduced risk of
ovarian and endometrial cancer, PID, and rheumatoid arthritis
64
OCPs are contraindicated in women who have
- hx of thrombophlebitis, CVA, CAD, breast cancer; - active liver disease, - 20-year hx of DM, - gallbladder disease, - older than 25 who smoke
65
warning sign for OCP (ACHES)
- Abd pain - Chest pain, SOB - Headaches, dizziness - Eye problems - Severe leg pain
66
Ortho Evra patch
estradiol and progestin
67
ortho evra patch application
lower abd, buttocks, upper arm or torso once a week for 3 weeks. 4th week is for bleeding.
68
Nuvaring contains d
estradiol and progestin
69
Nuvaring application
inserted into the vagina for 3 weeks, removed on week 4 for bleeding
70
teaching for Nuvaring
if it's out for more than 3 hours, use backup contraception for 7 days
71
When to take emergency contraception
within 72 hours and then repeated 12 hours later
72
Side effects of emergency contraception
nausea/vomiting, bleeding and spotting
73
Nonhormonal IUD (Paraguard and Copper T) prevent fertilization by
creating a spermicidal enviornment
74
IUD can be changed every
5 years
75
advantage of hormonal vs nonhormonal IUD
hormonal can decrease bleeding whereas nonhormonal can increase bleeding
76
Mirena contraindications
hx of thromboembolism, acute liver disease, hx of breast cancer.
77
These women do not tolerate IUDs as well
nulliparous women
78
Mini pills are
progestin only
79
Mini pills administration
must be taken everyday
80
minipills are good option for those women who are
breasfeeding
81
OCP not associated with thromboembolic events or gallbladder disease
minipills d/t no estrogen
82
Depo Provera injection is
progestin
83
Dep Provera administration
IM every 12 weeks
84
side effects of Depo Provera
irregular period, weight gain, headache
85
Average return of fertility after d/c Depo Provera
5-7 months
86
Implanon/Nexplannon is
progestin
87
Implanon/Nexplannon administration
changed every 3 years
88
both diaphragms and cervical caps must be used with
spermicidal jelly
89
teaching with diaphragms
must be in place for 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours
90
risk with diaphragms and cervical caps
TSS, UTI
91
teaching for cervical cap
can be in place for 24 hours
92
mucus that is produced during fertile periods is
clear, slippery, and stretches
93
mucus that is produced during periods of infertility is
cloudy, sticky, and breaks when stretched.
94
Low temps are recorded ___ ovulation and higher temps recorded ____ ovulation.
before; after
95
dysparenuria involves
vaginismus, vulvar vestibulitis, and vulvodyna.
96
involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding the outer third of the vagina brought on by real, imagined, or anticipated attempts at vaginal penetration.
vagismus
97
chronic vulvar discomfort that may involve complaints of rawness, burning, stinging, or irritation.
vulvodynia
98
Touching the vestibule and the hymen with a moistened cotton swab may elicit the pain of
vestibulitis
99
Bartholin glands are usually
not palpable
100
diagnostics for dysparenuina
Pap smear and pelvic exam, wet mount, KOH, culture of vaginal discharge, testing for gonorrhea/chlamydia, HCG to r/o ectopic pregnancy
101
treatment for vulvar vestibulitis and vulvodynia
TCA or gabapentin
102
causes of bartholin gland abscess
tight fitting panties, STDs, infection
103
s/s of bartholin abscess
unilateral, swollen, red mass that is tender and painful
104
nonpharm trx of bartholin abscess
moist heat, warm sitz bath, I&D
105
diagnostics for bartholin gland abscess
C&S, test for STDs
106
medical trx for bartholin abscess
metronidazole, erythromycin, doxycycline.
107
diagnostic for atrophic vaginitis
increased pH, FSH to confirm menopause, estradiol level.
108
pharm trx for atrophic vaginitis
low dose estrogen if hysterectomy; estrogen+progesterone if uterus present
109
estrogen therapy for atrophic vaginitis should be for no more than
3 months
110
risk factors for candida vulvovaginitis
recent atbx therapy, steroids, pregnancy, DM, hypothyroidism, iron deficiency anemia, oral contraceptives, obesity
111
s/s of candida vulvovaginitis
thick, white vaginal discharge, itching, no odor
112
diagnostic for candida vulvovaginitis
KOH- look for hyphae and budding yeast
113
in candida vulvovaginitis, the vaginal pH is
less than 4.5
114
prevention of candida vulvovaginitis
cotton underwear, avoid tight clothing, weight loss, unscented soap
115
treatment for candida vulvovaginitis
``` fluconzazole 150 mg x1; Miconazole nitrate (Monistat) cream ```
116
education for candida vulvovaginitis
avoid sex until symptoms resolve
117
caused by replacement of the normal, hydrogen-peroxide producing Lactobacillus in the vagina with high concentrations of anaerobic bacteria
bacterial vaginosis
118
risk factors for BV
multiple sex partners, black
119
s/s of bacterial vaginosis
odorous thin, white/gray vaginal discharge that is adherent to vaginal walls
120
Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis
pH is greater than 4.5; "clue cells" on wet mount; positive whiff test; milky-white discharge adherent to vaginal walls.
121
pH in bacterial vaginosis is
greater than 4.5
122
Treatment for bacterial vaginosis
Metronidazole 500 mg Po bid x 7 days (avoid alcohol); OR | clindamycin cream x 7 days
123
bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy
can cause low birth weight and preterm delivery
124
F/U with bacterial vaginosis
f/u in 2-3 weeks and test vaginal pH, whiff test, and wet mount.
125
normal vaginal pH is
3.8-4.2
126
avoid prescribing fluconazole for candida vulvovaginitis in
pregnancy and those with Dm who take oral hypoglycemics
127
s/s of trichomoniasis
yellow-green, frothy discharge; strawberry cervix
128
the pH in trichomoniasis is
greater than 4.5
129
trx for trichomoniasis
metronidazole 2 g orally x 1
130
trichomoniasis in pregnancy
can cause low birth weight and preterm
131
education in trichomoniasis
treat sexual partners
132
continuous, or episodic, non-menstrual pain of at least 6 months duration that occurs below the umbilicus, is severe enough to interrupt normal activities of daily life
chronic pelvic pain
133
risk factors for chronic pelvic pain
sexually abused, PID, ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome
134
Treatment for chronic pelvic pain
NSAIDs, TCA, anticonvulsants, gabapentin
135
median age of menopause
51
136
diagnostic for menopause
FSH greater than 40, LH greater than 30.
137
hormone therapy has been approved for
osteoporosis prevention but NOT treatment
138
Estrogen therapy increases risk of
endometrial cancer and heart disease
139
Hormone replacement therapy is approved for
vasomotor symptoms, vaginal atrophy, and prevention of osteoporosis
140
absolute contraindications of hormone therapy are
vaginal bleeding, liver disease, thromboembolic disorders
141
medications for menopause symptoms
clonidine, gabapentin, effexor, paxil
142
this doubles the risk of developing ovarian cysts
smoking
143
these decrease the risk of developing ovarian cysts
OCPs
144
function or physiologic ovarian cysts are often asymptomatic and resolve in
60-90 days
145
s/s of worsening ovarian cysts
unilateral pelvic pain
146
diagnostic for ovarian cysts
r/o ectopic pregnancy, CBC, trasvaginal US, cervical cultures
147
treatment for simple ovarian cysts
NSAIDs, rest
148
pathophys of PCOS
high insulin levels cause ovarian cells to produce more androgens/testosterone. The liver compensates by decreasing secretion of sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) that bind and excrete free testosterone.
149
s/s of PCOS
hirsutism (acne, alopecia); irregular menstrual cycles; infertility
150
diagnostics for PCOS
LH/FSH ratio greater than 2.5:1; high testosterone; high prolactin; high insuiln
151
treatment for PCOS
oral contraceptives- suppress LH to reduce testosterone secretion ; Metformin, Clomid Spironolactone
152
ovarian cancer is more common in women
greater than 60 years old
153
risk factors for ovarian cancer
hx of breast cancer or BRCA gene; nulliparity; pregnancy after 30, family hx; estrogen
154
s/s of ovarian cancer
bloating, dyspepsia, abd pressure/pain, irregular vaginal bleeding
155
Diagnostics for ovarian cancer
transvaginal US
156
Treatment for ovarian cancer
total hysterectomy, radiation/chemo
157
median age of endometrial cancer
61
158
Type I endometrial cancer is associated with
excess estrogen that is unopposed by progesterone
159
common presenting sign of endometrial cancer
perimenopausal woman has more frequent and heavier periods
160
diagnostic of endometrial cancer
endometrial thickening greater than 5 mm; endometrial biopsy
161
treatment for endometrial cancer
total hysterectomy, chemo
162
high correlation of endometrial cancer with
breast and colon cancer
163
Pap smear guidelines
21-29 every 3 years; | 30-65 Pap + HPV every 5 years or Pap alone every 3 years.
164
next step for ASC-US
HPV DNA testing or repeat pap in 1 year
165
next step for ASC-H
colposcopy and biopsy
166
next step for LSIL and HSIL
colposcopy and biopsy, with LEEP for abnormal findings
167
Paps may be stopped at age 65 if
prior 3 normal paps, no hx of genital tract cancer
168
cervical cancer is associated with
HPV 16 and 18
169
the normal endocervix is covered with
columnar epithelium
170
cervix in cervical cancer
enlarged (barrel cervix), friable tumor on cervix
171
risk factors for breast cancer
age greater than 50, first degree relative, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, obesity
172
s/s of breast cancer
painless, firm, fixed mass; clear nipple discharge; Peau d'orange appearance; nipple retraction
173
mammogram guidelines
every 1-2 years starting at 40, annual screening at 50
174
s/s of fibrocystic breasts
smooth, moveable rope-like masses; breast tenderness that goes away after menses
175
treatment for fibrocystic breasts
cold compresses, wear bra 24 hours a day, sodium and caffeine restriction.
176
fibroadenoma most common in
women 20-30
177
s/s of fibroadenoma
single, nontender, moveable mass
178
diagnostics for fibroadenoma
US for women less than 35, mammogram for women older than 35
179
intraductal papilloma mostly occurs at
age 40-50
180
s/s of intraductal papilloma
bloody or serous nipple discharge
181
treatment for intraductal papilloma
surgical excision
182
causes of mastitis
Staph aureus or strep
183
s/s of mastitis
breast tenderness, fever, erythema
184
treatment for mastitis
warm compress, frequent nursing
185
Meds for mastitis
Bactrim or clindamycin
186
important teaching with mastitis
don't stop breastfeeding
187
for those who don't respond to atbx for mastitis, consider
mammogram to r/o inflammatory breast cancer
188
causes of amenorrhea
lactation induced; hypothyroidism, eating disorders, hyperprolactinemia
189
management for amenorrhea
prevent bone loss, education that pregnancy can still occur
190
s/s of dysmenorrhea
crampy, pelvic pain, back/thigh pain, N/V
191
secondary dysmenorrhea occurs
women 30-40 years old
192
causes of secondary dysmenorrhea
endometriosis, uterine fibroids, PID, ovarian cysts
193
diagnostics for dysmenorrhea
pregnancy test, STD testing, pelvic US
194
treatment for dysmenorrhea
NSAIDS (Cox-2) and oral contraceptives
195
PMS and PMDD occurs mostly during the
luteal phase (5-11 days before menses)
196
Treatment for PMS and PMDD
Vitamin B6, vitamin E, calcium, and Mg; NSAIDs; OCP
197
Breast MRI is done to
localize staging of breast cancer
198
MRI is not a screening tool for breast cancer because
it is expensive and labor intensive
199
BRCA gene is
autosomal dominant, so only one defected gene is needed
200
if BRCA gene present, then this should be done
annual mammograms and transvaginal ultrasound; | semiannual breast MRI and CA-125 starting at age 25
201
Important teaching for endometrial biopsy
notify for any temp elevation as it may activate PID
202
endometrial biopsy can be used to diagnose for
uterine cancer
203
essential for a pelvic ultrasound
full bladder
204
This is state mandated, but patient can opt out
HIV testing for prenatal visit
205
Pregnancy should not be attempted for __ days after rubella vaccine.
28
206
vaccines not recommended during pregnancy
MMR, varicella, smallpox, herpes zoster, live attenuated influenza, HPV
207
Category C, D, and X
fluoroquinolones, lithium, tetracycline, warfarin, methotrexate
208
softening of the isthmus of the uterus
Hegar's sign
209
softening of the cervix
Goodell's sign
210
dark blue to purplish-red color of vaginal mucosa
Chadwick's sign
211
painless uterine contractions that occur every 10-20 min after the 3rd month of pregnancy and do not represent true labor.
braxton hicks
212
soft blowing systolic murmur heard down at the sides of the uterus.
uterine souffle
213
the number of pregnancies (including the current one)
gravida
214
Number of births (regardless if living) after 20 weeks gestation.
para
215
GTPAL
Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortion, Living
216
Born at term is after
37 weeks
217
Nagele's rule
LMP minus 3 months + 7 days = EDC
218
The BP is lowest in the
second trimester
219
GI effects from pregnancy
increased acidity of gastric contents, relaxation of LES, prolonged emptying of gallbladder
220
endocrine changes from pregnancy
TSH decreases, T4 increases, increased cortisol
221
testing for Rh blood type
If mother is Rh negative, then check father. If he is Rh+, then an indirect coomb's test is done to look for Rh antibodies
222
If indirect coomb's test is negative, then
recheck in 28-30 weeks and at 36 weeks
223
If indirect coomb's test is positive
then RHOGAM is given to mother at 28 weeks and then 72 hours after delivery or abortion.
224
HBsAg generally indicates active
active Hep B infection.
225
If a woman's rubella titer is _____, she has immunity to rubella
greater than 1:10 to 1:20
226
If a woman's rubella titer is ___ she has no immunity to rubella
less than 1:8
227
If woman's rubella titer is low, then
she should get immunization before pregnant or after delivery
228
Qualitative beta hCG testing is
rapid pregnancy test
229
Quantitative hCG testing is
more accurate pregnancy test
230
This pregnancy test is more accurate because hCG levels are higher
serum hCG
231
Cystic fibrosis screening should be done in
there is a family hx, caucasian or jewish descent
232
Tay Sachs and Cystic fibrosis is
autosomal recessive (baby would need to receive both genes)
233
Normal weight gain in pregnancy is
25-35 lbs
234
follow up visits for prenatal care
every 4 weeks until 28 weeks; every 2 weeks between 28 and 36 weeks every week after 36 weeks
235
folic acid requirements
0.8-1.0 mg
236
first ultrasound/sonogram at
20 weeks
237
should be done in 15-21 weeks
screen for neural tube defects and down syndrome
238
should be done in 24-28 weeks
1 hour glucose screen, repeat CBC and RPR; draw indirect Coombs or administer Rhogam
239
should be done at 36 weeks
repeat CBC, chlamydia, RPR
240
Group B beta strep should be done at
35-37 weeks
241
Leopold's maneuver to determine fetal position is usually done at
36 weeks
242
In true labor, discomfort begins in this area
back and radiates around abd
243
Breastfeeding should be done for the first
6 months to 1 year
244
Breastfeeding has been associated with a decreased risk of
SIDS
245
A newborn should have up to this many feedings in 24 hours
8-12
246
The stool in a newborn will start off ____, then become ____
dark and tarry; yellow and milky
247
For the first week of life, the number of stools and the number of voids should approximately match ____
the infants age in days.
248
Infants may lose up to ___ of the body weight in the first week of life.
8-10%
249
For irritated nipples, breastfeeding should be held for ____; and the mother should pump every ____.
24 hours; 3 hours
250
Breast engorgement can be minimized by
frequent feedings
251
nonpharm options for nausea during pregnancy
vitamin B6, increase intake of nuts and protein
252
pharm option for nausea during pregnancy
doxylamine or H1 blockers + vitamin B6; zofran
253
pharm options for constipation during pregnancy
psyllium, MOM, prune juice. | Avoid PEG
254
pharm options for GERD during pregnancy
antacids
255
Increased mucus formation by the cervix in response to elevated estrogen levels in the 1st trimester causes
leukorrhea
256
Nasal congestion and epistaxis during pregnancy results from
increased estrogen
257
trx for round ligament pain during pregnancy
heating pad to abd, knee-chest position
258
if mother c/o decreased fetal movement, then
order a non-stress test
259
When the patient presses a button that marks the tracing of fetal monitor every time she feels fetal movement.
non-stress test
260
Reassuring or reactive non-stress test shows at least ___ accelerations in fetal heart rate lasting at least ____ in a ____ period
15 beats per min; 15 seconds; 20 min
261
common indications for non-stress test
decreased fetal movement, PIH, DM, post-date after 40 weeks, IUGR
262
elements of biophysical profile
1. fetal tone 2. gross body movements 3. breathing 4. amniotic fluid volume
263
Scoring in biophysical profile
each is worth 2 points. | 8-10 is reassuring
264
anemia in pregnancy is Hgb less than
11
265
Premature separation fo the placenta form the uterine wall.
placenta abruptio
266
s/s of placenta abruptio
board like uterus, uterine tenderness
267
management of placenta aburptio
emergency
268
characterized as abnormal development of placenta that causes severe N/V at 12-16 weeks gestation with brown discharge
molar pregnancy (gestational trophoblastic disease)
269
mangaement for molar pregnancy
immediate evacuation of uterus
270
incompetent cervix management
refer to have cerclage placed by 12 weeks
271
management for prolapsed umbilical cord
emergency-- place pt in knee chest position or trendelenberg, apply oxygen
272
spontaneous abortion occurs
before 20 weeks gestation
273
Treatment for preeclampsia is
methyldopa with or without hydralazine or labetalol
274
PIH/preeclampia is BP
greater than 150-160/90-100
275
HELLP syndrome
hemolysis elevated liver enzymes low platelet count
276
neonates of gestational diabetes can have
hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, polycythemia, jaundice
277
diagnostics of gestation diabetes
done at 24-48 weeks; 50-g glucose tolerance test; 1 hour glucose > 130
278
treatment of gestational diabetes
insulin, glyburide
279
common sign in ruptured ectopic pregnancy
pain radiating to shoulder
280
trx for ectopic pregnancy
if not ruptured, methotrexate. | if ruptured, laparoscopy
281
caused by implantation of the placenta near or across the cervical os. It
placenta previa
282
s/s of placenta previa
painless bleeding at end of 2nd trimester
283
This should not be done if placenta previa suspected
vaginal exam
284
risk factors for placenta previa
age > 35, multiparity, previous c-section
285
Defined as uterine contractions that cause cervical change and dilation before 37 weeks gestation.
preterm labor
286
injectable steroids for preterm labor is given at
24-32 weeks
287
When does the mother feel "quickening"?
20 weeks
288
More common in primigravidas, with age extremes (teen or >35), and Blacks
PIH or preeclampsia
289
A variant of PIH with abnormal LFTs and poor clotting
HELLP
290
Caused by chronic uteroplacental insufficiency (UPI)
IUGR
291
Characterized by PAINLESS bright bleeding, associated with prior C/S and multipartiy
Previa
292
these can lead to preterm labor
BV, trich, and UTI
293
In OCT or contraction stress test, a positive result is ____ with ___ contractions.
more than 2 fetal heart rate decelerations; 3
294
the "rule of thumb" is that number of _____ = the number of ______ plus or minus 3 cm.
weeks gestation; centimeters of fundal height
295
the rule of thumb only applies during weeks
20-36
296
if the uterus is too large, then consider that the
EDC is wrong and get a sonogram
297
FHTs are best heard from
the fetus's back
298
it is normal for this lab value to be elevated during pregnancy
WBC
299
a non-stress test can be done after
28 weeks
300
After a progestin challenge, a woman with PCOS will
bleed since they have a lot of estrogen
301
potential effect in Yaz and Yasmin
hyperkalemia
302
IUD care with PID
do not have to remove IUD, atbx
303
most common sign of chlamydia
post-coital spotting
304
most common s/s in HSv
dysuria, pain/tenderness
305
when does woman need to have c-section with HSV?
active lesions
306
Involution of the uterus postpartum should be at
6 weeks