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IDPH > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is key with a superficial infection?

A

drainage

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2
Q

What are the three predispositions of Septic Arthritis?

A

RA

Diabetes

Steroids

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3
Q

Prosthetic joint raises the suspicion for what bug?

A

coagulase-negative staph. aureus

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4
Q

What bacteria for a human bite?

A

Eikenella

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5
Q

Is gonococcal arthritis more common in men or women?

A

women

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6
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

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7
Q

Which virus should be on the differential for aseptic meningitis?

A

HIV

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8
Q

Which is the first antigen to arise during an active HIV infection?

A

p24

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9
Q

What can be detected 1-3 weeks before HIV antibody?

A

HIV-1 RNA

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10
Q

How long is p24 antibody detected before HIV antibody?

A

one week

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11
Q

Which population all receives HIV testing?

A

pregnant women

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12
Q

Which is more pathogenic, HIV1 or HIV2?

A

HIV1

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13
Q

Where is HIV2 found?

A

Africa

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14
Q

Is CCR5 or CXCR4 associated with a more rapid HIV progression?

A

CXCR4

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15
Q

Which HIV receptor is responsible for chemokines?

A

CCR5

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16
Q

What does a delta-32 deletion mean?

A

no co-receptor

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17
Q

What type of drug testing is required for HIV patients?

A

drug resistance

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18
Q

Pneumocystis occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?

A

200

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19
Q

MAC occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?

A

50

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20
Q

Toxo occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?

A

100

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21
Q

HIV fusion inhibitors inhibit what protein?

A

gp41

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22
Q

What is IRIS?

A

Immune Reactivation Inflammatory Syndrome

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23
Q

Which drug requires HLA-B5701 screening?

A

Abacavir

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24
Q

Which HIV is teratogenic?

A

Efavirenz

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25
Q

Prior history of AIDS predisposes an individual for which three conditions?

A

Dyslipidemia

CV

squamous cell cancer of ANUS

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26
Q

What is HHV6?

A

Roseola

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27
Q

What are the two common properties of all herpes viruses?

A

replicate in host cell nucleus

latentcy

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28
Q

What is the gold standard for HSV diagnosis?

A

PCR

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29
Q

What is acyclovir an analogue of?

A

guanosine

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30
Q

Which virus causes Owl Eye inclusions?

A

CMV

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31
Q

What is the major toxicity of gangciclovir/valgangciclovir?

A

neutropenia

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32
Q

What does gangciclovir/valgangciclovir inhibit?

A

DNA polymerase

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33
Q

Clinical use of foscarnet?

A

gangciclovir resistant CMV

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34
Q

What is the first vaccination?

A

Hep B

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35
Q

Fever is greater than what degree fahrenheit? Celsius?

A
  1. 4

38. 0

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36
Q

What is the antibiotic for occult bacteremia?

A

Ceftriaxone

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37
Q

What is meningococcemia?

A

presence of M. meningitis in the blood

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38
Q

What is the antibiotic for meningococcemia?

A

penicillin G

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39
Q

Is toxo easier to transfer in 1st or 3rd trimester?

A

3rd

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40
Q

Does toxo cause a more severe infection in the first or the 3rd trimester?

A

1st

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41
Q

What is the triad of toxo?

A

Hydrocephalus

Chorioretinitis

Intracranial calcifications

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42
Q

Which organism produces periventricular calcification?

A

CMV

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43
Q

Which viral family does rubella belong to?

A

Toga

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44
Q

What is the triad of rubella?

A

cataracts

heart

deafness

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45
Q

The diagnosis of what perinatal infection can only be made during the first year of life?

A

Rubella

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46
Q

What is the triad of CMV?

A

Jaundice

hepatosplenomegaly

petechiae/purpura

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47
Q

Which perinatal infection can cause seizures?

A

HSV

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48
Q

What are the four symtpoms of disseminated HSV?

A

hepatosplenomegaly

fever

DIC

skin eruptions

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49
Q

What structure does erysipelas infect?

A

dermal lymphatics

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50
Q

What happens to hot tub folliculitis in most patients?

A

resolves spontaneously

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51
Q

What is the most common cause of Clostridial infection?

A

trauma

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52
Q

What type of infection has pain out of proportion to physical findings?

A

nec. fasc.

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53
Q

Which type of infection can follow the lymphatic system?

A

Fungi

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54
Q

What is the most common route for septic arthritis?

A

hematogenous

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55
Q

Bug for puncture wound?

A

Pseudomonas

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56
Q

Which three viral infections can produce pharyngitis?

A

HIV

EBV

Influenza

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57
Q

Is bronchitis more commonly viral or bacterial?

A

viral

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58
Q

What could cause pain upon defecation in AIDS patients?

A

HSV proctitis

59
Q

What causes Herpetic Whitlow?

A

sucking on fingers

60
Q

What is Mollaret Syndrome?

A

recurrent HSV meningitis

61
Q

Which virus can cause Sacral Dysfunction?

A

HSV

62
Q

What is a drawback to acyclovir?

A

poor oral absorption

63
Q

Which has vesicles of different stages, chicken pox or shingles?

A

chicken pox

64
Q

What is the biggest concern of VZV lesions?

A

superimposed bacteria

65
Q

What is the most severe complication of VZV? Mortality?

A

VZV pneumonia

near 50%

66
Q

Ampicillin induced rash can correspond to what two viruses?

A

EBV or CMV

67
Q

Which group is experiencing an increase in HIV incidence?

A

MSM

68
Q

When do HIV infected patients present with symptoms?

A

viremia

69
Q

What can be a clue for acute HIV infection?

A

rash

70
Q

What rises first in an acute HIV infection?

A

viral load

71
Q

What are the two confirmatory tests for HIV?

A

western

multispot

72
Q

What is the advantage of HIV multispot test?

A

can differentiate between HIV1 and HIV2

73
Q

What are the two HIV co-receptors?

A

CCR5 and CXCR4

74
Q

Which HIV tropsim is transmitted from person to person?

A

CCR5

75
Q

What does a two allele deletion of CCR5 mean?

A

almost immune

76
Q

When would in-utero transmissions of HIV occur?

A

late stages

77
Q

C-section for a viral load over what?

A

1,000

78
Q

Syphilis is increasing in what population?

A

MSM

79
Q

What cancer is increasing in gay men?

A

Anal

80
Q

Is anal intercourse needed to have anal cancer?

A

no

81
Q

Is GEL early onset or late onset sepsis?

A

early

82
Q

Most significant infection in late onset sepsis?

A

meningitis

83
Q

What is the most common bug for occult bacteremia?

A

strep. pneumo

84
Q

Is HepB vaccine safe during pregnancy?

A

yes

85
Q

What is the most common blood borne infection?

A

HCV

86
Q

According to Bingaman, how many HIV antigens need to be present for a (+) HIV test?

A

two

87
Q

HIV is also often found with what bug co-infection?

A

H. ducreyi

88
Q

Which bug causes Granuloma Inguinale?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

89
Q

Is Granuloma Inguinale painful or painless?

A

painless

90
Q

What virus family is Molloscum Cantagiosum a part of?

A

poxvirus

91
Q

What are two major populations that should receive HCV testing?

A

HIV and IV drug users

92
Q

Drug for chancroid?

A

1g of Azithromycin

93
Q

Which has less recurrence, HSV1 or HSV2?

A

HSV1

94
Q

What is primary herpes?

A

no previous AB’s

95
Q

Tell patients what during their pregnancy if their partner is herpes positive?

A

avoid sex in 3rd trimester

96
Q

A patient that tests positive for syphillis should also be tested for what?

A

HIV

97
Q

Megaplacenta corresponds to what disease?

A

congenital syphillis

98
Q

Two drug for gonorrhea?

A

azithromycin or ceftriaxone

99
Q

Reevaluate PID after how long?

A

72 hours

100
Q

Does Granuloma Inguinale have palpable lymph nodes?

A

no

101
Q

Drug for chancroid?

A

doxycycline

102
Q

Drug for lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

doxy

103
Q

Drug for scabies?

A

Permethrin

104
Q

Molloscum occurs everywhere on the body except where?

A

palms and soles

105
Q

What drug can increase the risk of cyctitis?

A

spermacide

106
Q

What can give a positive nitrite?

A

beets

107
Q

What is the normal heart rate for a one month old?

A

120-160

108
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a one month old?

A

40-60

109
Q

When can one diagnose septic shock?

A

after fluids have failed

110
Q

Early sepsis occurs within how many days of life?

A

6 days

111
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

inflammation of fetal membranes

112
Q

What is important during Occult Bacteremia?

A

vaccination history

113
Q

Four drugs for toxo ?

A

pyrimethamine

sulfadiazine

leucovorin

prednisone

114
Q

What is used to diagnose CMV?

A

urine

115
Q

Which virus is the leading cause of congenital deafness?

A

CMV

116
Q

What is the most common presentation for congenital HSV?

A

disseminated

117
Q

How often does disseminated HSV after birth?

A

3 days

118
Q

What two things should infants born to a Hep B positive mother receive?

A

vaccination

HepB immunoglobulin

119
Q

Metaphyseal Dystrophy is indicative of what congenital disease?

A

syphillis

120
Q

Which congenital virus can produce DIC?

A

herpes

121
Q

Which two bacteria are known to mediate Necrotizing Fasciitis?

A

C. perfringens

GAS

122
Q

Two steps for treating septic arthritis?

A

drain and antibiotics

123
Q

What is often the cause of treatment failure in osteomyelitis?

A

inadequate tissue debridement

124
Q

Which virus should always be in the differential for thrombocytopenia?

A

HIV

125
Q

When is VZV no longer contagious?

A

crusted over

126
Q

When are steroids used for EBV?

A

airway obstruction

127
Q

Disseminated herpes usually occurs under what age in neonates?

A

4 weeks or under

128
Q

Two main bugs for necrotizing fasciitis?

A

C. perfringens

Group A Strep

129
Q

Where does clostridium septicum originate from?

A

colon

130
Q

What percent of HIV infected people dont know theyre infected in the US?

A

20%

131
Q

Which co-receptor is responsible for spread of HIV?

A

CCR5

132
Q

What is the most common AIDS defining illness?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

133
Q

Primary prophylaxis for what three bugs during HIV?

A

pneumocystis

toxo

MAC

134
Q

Is herpes labialis HSV1 or HSV2?

A

one

135
Q

Which reactivates more often, HSV1 or HSV2?

A

HSV2

136
Q

Which herpes virus is not cytopathic?

A

EBV

137
Q

What are neutrophil numbers for SIRS in peeds?

A

> 15

138
Q

What is the drug for early onset sepsis?

A

ampicillin

139
Q

What are the drugs for late onset sepsis?

A

cephalosporin or vanc.

140
Q

Which perinatal virus can a women get infected with before birth that effects the fetus?

A

Rubella

141
Q

How many positive tests in neonate to Dx HIV?

A

two positive

142
Q

How many negative tests in neonate to be clear of HIV?

A

three negative

143
Q

Which type of herpes infection has the highest rate of neonatal transmission?

A

primary

IDPH (2 decks)

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