Test 2 Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
What is key with a superficial infection?
A
drainage
2
Q
What are the three predispositions of Septic Arthritis?
A
RA
Diabetes
Steroids
3
Q
Prosthetic joint raises the suspicion for what bug?
A
coagulase-negative staph. aureus
4
Q
What bacteria for a human bite?
A
Eikenella
5
Q
Is gonococcal arthritis more common in men or women?
A
women
6
Q
What is the preferred imaging modality for osteomyelitis?
A
MRI
7
Q
Which virus should be on the differential for aseptic meningitis?
A
HIV
8
Q
Which is the first antigen to arise during an active HIV infection?
A
p24
9
Q
What can be detected 1-3 weeks before HIV antibody?
A
HIV-1 RNA
10
Q
How long is p24 antibody detected before HIV antibody?
A
one week
11
Q
Which population all receives HIV testing?
A
pregnant women
12
Q
Which is more pathogenic, HIV1 or HIV2?
A
HIV1
13
Q
Where is HIV2 found?
A
Africa
14
Q
Is CCR5 or CXCR4 associated with a more rapid HIV progression?
A
CXCR4
15
Q
Which HIV receptor is responsible for chemokines?
A
CCR5
16
Q
What does a delta-32 deletion mean?
A
no co-receptor
17
Q
What type of drug testing is required for HIV patients?
A
drug resistance
18
Q
Pneumocystis occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?
A
200
19
Q
MAC occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?
A
50
20
Q
Toxo occurs when the CD4 count drops below what?
A
100
21
Q
HIV fusion inhibitors inhibit what protein?
A
gp41
22
Q
What is IRIS?
A
Immune Reactivation Inflammatory Syndrome
23
Q
Which drug requires HLA-B5701 screening?
A
Abacavir
24
Q
Which HIV is teratogenic?
A
Efavirenz
25
Prior history of AIDS predisposes an individual for which three conditions?
Dyslipidemia
CV
squamous cell cancer of ANUS
26
What is HHV6?
Roseola
27
What are the two common properties of all herpes viruses?
replicate in host cell nucleus
latentcy
28
What is the gold standard for HSV diagnosis?
PCR
29
What is acyclovir an analogue of?
guanosine
30
Which virus causes Owl Eye inclusions?
CMV
31
What is the major toxicity of gangciclovir/valgangciclovir?
neutropenia
32
What does gangciclovir/valgangciclovir inhibit?
DNA polymerase
33
Clinical use of foscarnet?
gangciclovir resistant CMV
34
What is the first vaccination?
Hep B
35
Fever is greater than what degree fahrenheit? Celsius?
100. 4
| 38. 0
36
What is the antibiotic for occult bacteremia?
Ceftriaxone
37
What is meningococcemia?
presence of M. meningitis in the blood
38
What is the antibiotic for meningococcemia?
penicillin G
39
Is toxo easier to transfer in 1st or 3rd trimester?
3rd
40
Does toxo cause a more severe infection in the first or the 3rd trimester?
1st
41
What is the triad of toxo?
Hydrocephalus
Chorioretinitis
Intracranial calcifications
42
Which organism produces periventricular calcification?
CMV
43
Which viral family does rubella belong to?
Toga
44
What is the triad of rubella?
cataracts
heart
deafness
45
The diagnosis of what perinatal infection can only be made during the first year of life?
Rubella
46
What is the triad of CMV?
Jaundice
hepatosplenomegaly
petechiae/purpura
47
Which perinatal infection can cause seizures?
HSV
48
What are the four symtpoms of disseminated HSV?
hepatosplenomegaly
fever
DIC
skin eruptions
49
What structure does erysipelas infect?
dermal lymphatics
50
What happens to hot tub folliculitis in most patients?
resolves spontaneously
51
What is the most common cause of Clostridial infection?
trauma
52
What type of infection has pain out of proportion to physical findings?
nec. fasc.
53
Which type of infection can follow the lymphatic system?
Fungi
54
What is the most common route for septic arthritis?
hematogenous
55
Bug for puncture wound?
Pseudomonas
56
Which three viral infections can produce pharyngitis?
HIV
EBV
Influenza
57
Is bronchitis more commonly viral or bacterial?
viral
58
What could cause pain upon defecation in AIDS patients?
HSV proctitis
59
What causes Herpetic Whitlow?
sucking on fingers
60
What is Mollaret Syndrome?
recurrent HSV meningitis
61
Which virus can cause Sacral Dysfunction?
HSV
62
What is a drawback to acyclovir?
poor oral absorption
63
Which has vesicles of different stages, chicken pox or shingles?
chicken pox
64
What is the biggest concern of VZV lesions?
superimposed bacteria
65
What is the most severe complication of VZV? Mortality?
VZV pneumonia
near 50%
66
Ampicillin induced rash can correspond to what two viruses?
EBV or CMV
67
Which group is experiencing an increase in HIV incidence?
MSM
68
When do HIV infected patients present with symptoms?
viremia
69
What can be a clue for acute HIV infection?
rash
70
What rises first in an acute HIV infection?
viral load
71
What are the two confirmatory tests for HIV?
western
multispot
72
What is the advantage of HIV multispot test?
can differentiate between HIV1 and HIV2
73
What are the two HIV co-receptors?
CCR5 and CXCR4
74
Which HIV tropsim is transmitted from person to person?
CCR5
75
What does a two allele deletion of CCR5 mean?
almost immune
76
When would in-utero transmissions of HIV occur?
late stages
77
C-section for a viral load over what?
1,000
78
Syphilis is increasing in what population?
MSM
79
What cancer is increasing in gay men?
Anal
80
Is anal intercourse needed to have anal cancer?
no
81
Is GEL early onset or late onset sepsis?
early
82
Most significant infection in late onset sepsis?
meningitis
83
What is the most common bug for occult bacteremia?
strep. pneumo
84
Is HepB vaccine safe during pregnancy?
yes
85
What is the most common blood borne infection?
HCV
86
According to Bingaman, how many HIV antigens need to be present for a (+) HIV test?
two
87
HIV is also often found with what bug co-infection?
H. ducreyi
88
Which bug causes Granuloma Inguinale?
Klebsiella granulomatis
89
Is Granuloma Inguinale painful or painless?
painless
90
What virus family is Molloscum Cantagiosum a part of?
poxvirus
91
What are two major populations that should receive HCV testing?
HIV and IV drug users
92
Drug for chancroid?
1g of Azithromycin
93
Which has less recurrence, HSV1 or HSV2?
HSV1
94
What is primary herpes?
no previous AB's
95
Tell patients what during their pregnancy if their partner is herpes positive?
avoid sex in 3rd trimester
96
A patient that tests positive for syphillis should also be tested for what?
HIV
97
Megaplacenta corresponds to what disease?
congenital syphillis
98
Two drug for gonorrhea?
azithromycin or ceftriaxone
99
Reevaluate PID after how long?
72 hours
100
Does Granuloma Inguinale have palpable lymph nodes?
no
101
Drug for chancroid?
doxycycline
102
Drug for lymphogranuloma venerum?
doxy
103
Drug for scabies?
Permethrin
104
Molloscum occurs everywhere on the body except where?
palms and soles
105
What drug can increase the risk of cyctitis?
spermacide
106
What can give a positive nitrite?
beets
107
What is the normal heart rate for a one month old?
120-160
108
What is the normal respiratory rate for a one month old?
40-60
109
When can one diagnose septic shock?
after fluids have failed
110
Early sepsis occurs within how many days of life?
6 days
111
What is chorioamnionitis?
inflammation of fetal membranes
112
What is important during Occult Bacteremia?
vaccination history
113
Four drugs for toxo ?
pyrimethamine
sulfadiazine
leucovorin
prednisone
114
What is used to diagnose CMV?
urine
115
Which virus is the leading cause of congenital deafness?
CMV
116
What is the most common presentation for congenital HSV?
disseminated
117
How often does disseminated HSV after birth?
3 days
118
What two things should infants born to a Hep B positive mother receive?
vaccination
HepB immunoglobulin
119
Metaphyseal Dystrophy is indicative of what congenital disease?
syphillis
120
Which congenital virus can produce DIC?
herpes
121
Which two bacteria are known to mediate Necrotizing Fasciitis?
C. perfringens
GAS
122
Two steps for treating septic arthritis?
drain and antibiotics
123
What is often the cause of treatment failure in osteomyelitis?
inadequate tissue debridement
124
Which virus should always be in the differential for thrombocytopenia?
HIV
125
When is VZV no longer contagious?
crusted over
126
When are steroids used for EBV?
airway obstruction
127
Disseminated herpes usually occurs under what age in neonates?
4 weeks or under
128
Two main bugs for necrotizing fasciitis?
C. perfringens
Group A Strep
129
Where does clostridium septicum originate from?
colon
130
What percent of HIV infected people dont know theyre infected in the US?
20%
131
Which co-receptor is responsible for spread of HIV?
CCR5
132
What is the most common AIDS defining illness?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
133
Primary prophylaxis for what three bugs during HIV?
pneumocystis
toxo
MAC
134
Is herpes labialis HSV1 or HSV2?
one
135
Which reactivates more often, HSV1 or HSV2?
HSV2
136
Which herpes virus is not cytopathic?
EBV
137
What are neutrophil numbers for SIRS in peeds?
>15
138
What is the drug for early onset sepsis?
ampicillin
139
What are the drugs for late onset sepsis?
cephalosporin or vanc.
140
Which perinatal virus can a women get infected with before birth that effects the fetus?
Rubella
141
How many positive tests in neonate to Dx HIV?
two positive
142
How many negative tests in neonate to be clear of HIV?
three negative
143
Which type of herpes infection has the highest rate of neonatal transmission?
primary
