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Flashcards in Test 2 Article Questions Deck (110):
1

The equine sarcoid is a neoplasm that
A. Is locally invasive
B. Can metastasize internally
C. Is well encapsulated and benign
D. Can invade BVs and lymphatics
E. occurs most commonly in the summer.

Locally invasive, spontaneous, fibroblastic CT tumor.

Most common tumor in the horse.

2

Sarcoids are classified as
A. fibroplastic (proud-flesh like)
B. Verrucous (wartlike)
C. Occult
D. Hyperplastic epidermal nodules
E. A, b, c

A-C

Fibroblastic, verracous, and occult

3

Which of the following statements is not a distinguishing feature of the histopathology of equine sarcoids
A. Hyperplastic and hyperkeratoic epidermis
B. Fibroblasts and fibrocytes arranged in an organized pattern perpendicular to the surface
C. Irregularly arranged fibroblasts and fibrocysts arranged in whorl or bundle formation
D. No invasion of underlying muscle
E. Marked rete-peg formation

B. Fibroblasts and fibrocytes arranged in an organized pattern perpendicular to surface

i. They are irregularly arranged (called whorls)
ii. They are hyperplastic and hyperkeratotic epidermis
iii. No invasion of underlying muscles

4

Most authorities believe that equine sarcoids are the result of
A. Bacterial infections
B. Viral infections
C. Chronic irritations
D. Chronic granulation tissue
E. Nonspecific carcinogens

B. Viral infections

Specifically Bovine Papilloma virus

5

Which of the following statements about equine sarcoids is not true
A. Histologically, the sarcoid resembles cutaneous habronemiasis
B. Grossly, sarcoids can resemble exuberant granulation tissue, cutaneous habronemiasis, SCC, equine papillomas, and dermatophytosis
C. Occult sarcoids may be confused with neurofibromas
D. Verrucous sarcoids can transform into fibroblastic ones
E. Surgical excision has been reportedly followed by a 50% recurrence rate.

A. Histologically the sarcoid resembles cutaneous habronemiasis


Can resemble fibromas, fibrosarcomas, schwannomas, neurofibromas, and neurofibrosarcomas

6

Cryosurgery results in tissue destruction by
A. Cellular dehydration resulting in cell membrane destruction
B. changing cell membrane integrity by denaturing lipoprotein complexes, resulting in impermability
C. thermal shock after freezing takes place
D. formation of intra and extracellular ice crystals
E. All of the above

E All the above

7

Which of the following statements about cryosurgery is not true?
A. Max lethal effects are achieved using fast- freeze , fast thaw method
B. liquid nitrogen is the most popular cryogen and requires least equipment.
C. Thermocouple needles are considered invaluable
D. The temp of the lesion should be brough to -20 C to -30 C
E. The surrounding healthy tissue should be protected from freezing

A. Max lethal effects are achieved using fast- freeze , fast thaw method

Fast freeze and slow thaw should be done at least twice

8

Which of the following is not true about post-freezing care?
A. Routine tetanus prophylaxis should be given
B. Tissue undergoing cryonecrosis forms a leathery scar after the initial edema and hyperemia
C. The frozen tissue may take up to eight weeks to slough
D. Healing time varies, but healing is always by first intention
E. The healed lesions usually have some white hairs present

D. Healing time varies, but healing is always by first intention

9

Which treatment regimen has not been recommended for sarcoid therapy after proper excision
A. 20% 5- fluorouracil daily for 30 to 90 days
B. Radiation therapy using various programs
C. Podophyllin mixed with carrier applied at 3 to 4 day intervals
D. Benzoin mixed with carrier applied at 3- to 4 day intervals for 30 to 90 d
E. BCG injected intralesionally

D. Benzoin mixed with carrier applied at 3- to 4 day intervals for 30 to 90 d

10

Which of the following is not true about BCG therapy
A. Its an attenuated strain of M. Bovis
B. Its specific effect is on cell mediated immunity
C. It is a reconstituted vxn
D. Vxn is a cell wall product with an oil adjuvant
E. An inflammatory response is expected with BCG therapy, but remission may take several months.

B. Its specific effect is on cell mediated immunity

Its non-specific

11

The preferred instrument for equine arthroscopy is
A. 2 2 mm straight head view needlescopes
B. 4 mm 0 degree arthroscope
C. 4 mm 30 degree arthroscope
D. 4 mm 25 degree arthroscope
E. C or D

E

Both a 4 mm 25 degree or 30 degree scope can be used

12

The egress canula may be used for
A. Clearing the joint of debris
B. palpating the chip on initial exam
C. aspirating proliferative synovial membrane
D. A and B
E. B and C

D

Used for clearing the joint of debris and palpating the chip on initial exam

13

For joint distension with arthroscopy, fluid has the following advantages over gas
A. It lavages the joints
B. visual acuity is superior
C. superficial fibrillation is more easily seen
D. A and B
E. A and C

E

Lavages the join and superficial fibrillation is seen

14

In which of the following conditions is motorized surgical equipment most necessary?
A. Chip fractures of the intercarpal jt
B. Chip fractures of radiocarpal joint
C. Chip fractures of the first phalanx
D. OCD of tibiotarsal joint
E. OCD of Femoropetellar jt

E. OCD of Femoropetellar jt

15

The best method for sterilizing arthroscopes is
A. Steam autoclave
B. Ethylene oxide gase
C. 2% activated dialdehyde
D. A and B
E. B and C

C. 2% activated dialdehyde

16

A number of factors facilitate superior recognition of cartilage lesions with arthroscopy rather than arthrotomy, which of the following is not one of these factors?
A. Magnification
B. suspension of cartilage fibers by the fluid
C. palpation
D. Transillumination
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

All of these factors favor arthroscopy

17

In operating on carpal chip fractures arthroscopically
A. Only chips 8 mm or smaller can be removed
B. Chronic chips are removed with a bx- cutting forcep w/ no restriction on size
C. chronic chips are separated off w an elevator or osteotome and removed, not restriction on size.
D. chronic chips 8mm or smaller are separated off with an elevator or osteotome and removed.
E. None of the above

C. chronic chips are separated off w an elevator or osteotome and removed, not restriction on size.

18

For a chip fracture of the proximal aspect of the first phalanx/ medial side, the arthoscope is placed
A. Lateral to the common digital extensor tendon
B. Medial to the common digital extensor tendon
C. Through the common digital extensor tendon
D. through the volar pouch
E. None of the above

A. Lateral to the common digital extensor tendon

19

Which of the following statements is not true regarding arthroscopic surgery of the femoropatellar joint?
A. OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge can be operated on
B. OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge can be operated on but only if the lesions are less than 1 cm in diameter
C. Dx exam of the jt is commenced in suprapatellar pouch
D. snipping off the flap is preferable to creating a loose body
E. the subchondral bone should be curetted following removal of dissecans.

B. OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge can be operated on but only if the lesions are less than 1 cm in diameter

20

A common complication of arthroscopy is
A. Infection
B. instrument breakage
C. synovial hernia
D. severe capsulitits
E. None of the above

A. Infection

21

A laparoscope used for adult equine laparoscopy should be
A. longer than 50 cm, should have 0 degree angle and should be 10 mm in diameter
B. 35 cm long, 30 degree angle, & 5 mm diameter
C. Longer than 50 cm, 30 degree angle, and 10 mm in diameter
D. 35 cm long, 0 Degree angle, and 10 mm diameter
E. longer than 50 cm, 30 degree angle, and 5 mm diameter

C. Longer than 50 cm, 30 degree angle, and 10 mm in diameter

22

The widely accepted gas for abdominal insufflation is
A. carbon dioxide
B. nitrous oxide
C. Helium
D. room air
E. oxygen

A. carbon dioxide
(Followed by nitrous oxide and helium)

23

The main disadvantage of using CO2 for abdominal insufflation is
A. Cost
B. PO discomfort
C. formation of gas emboli
D. availability
E. B and C

B. PO discomfort

CO2 turns into carbonic acid on moist peritoneal surfaces which can cause irritation and lead to peritonitis

24

Which of the following is false
A. The laparoscopic trocar- cannula should be placed after the abdominal cavity has been insufflated
B. Complete evaluation of the abdomen during standing laparoscopy necessitates entering both sides of the abdomen
C. the abdomen should be maximally insufflated (>35) to avoid penetrating viscera with the laparoscopic trocar- canula
D. IPPV is required during laparoscopy with GA.
E. The use of high-flow insufflator (>10 L/min) is recommended for laparoscopy in adults horses.

C. the abdomen should be maximally insufflated (>35) to avoid penetrating viscera with the laparoscopic trocar- canula

It should be under 20 mmHG so that cardiopulmonary function is least affected

25

The technique for performing laproscopy for ovariectomy via a ventral abdominal approach involves
A. 1.5 cm skin incision to left of midline for inseration of scopic trocar - cannula
B. stab incision at umbilicus for placement of teat cannula to establish pneumoperitonum
C. instrument portal placement at any location along the ventral midline
D. 1.5 cm skin incision at the umbilicus for inseration of the laparoscopic trocar-cannula
E. B and D

D. 1.5 cm skin incision at the umbilicus for inseration of the laparoscopic trocar-cannula

26

Which is true
A. instrument portals are closed in 3 layers
B. when making instrument portals, it is important to make the skin incision longer than the abdominal incision
C. instrument portals should always be located apprx 5-10 cm from midline and cranial to the umbilicus
D. After sx, patients should be stall rested for 2 months
E. A and B

B. when making instrument portals, it is important to make the skin incision longer than the abdominal incision

27

Complications associated with laparoscopy include
A. PO abdominal pain
B. incisional infection and abscess formation related to stab incisions for instruments portals
C. Hemorrhage from instrument portals
D. A, B and C
E. A and C

E. A and C

PO abdominal pain and hemorrhage from the instruments portals.

28

The advantages of laparoscopic abdominal cryptorchidectomy include
A. no risk of PO evisceration
B. Direct viewing of the testis and vaginal ring
C. Decreased risk of PO infection
D. A, B and C
E. B and C.

D. A, B and C

No risk of PO evisceration, direct viewing of the testis and vaginal ring and decreased of PO infection

29

The procedures for which laparoscopy is most commonly used include
A. cryptorchidectomy
B. Bladder repair
C. tumor excision
D. ovariectomy
E. A and D

E. A and D

Crypto and ovariectomy

30

In addition to the equipment required for arthroscopy, laparoscopy necessitates the use of
A. Laparoscope
B. insufflator
C. other instruments
D. A, B, and C
E. A and B

D. A, B, and C

Laparoscope, insufflator and other instruments

31

Which statement regarding limb conformation in foals with angular limb deformities is correct?
A. W/ valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
B. W. varus deformities there is usually outward rotation of the feet
C. W/ valgus there is inward rotation of the feet
D. Rotational deformities are uncommon in foals with angular limb deformities

A. W/ valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet

Varus is inward rotation

32

Which of the following is not part of the multi-factorial complex implicated in development of angular limb deformities in foals?
A. abN fetal limb positioning
B. placentitis
C. hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones
D. growth plate trauma

C. hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones

Hypoplasia of the carpal and tarsal bones contribute.

33

Which statement regarding diagnosis of angular limb deformities is true?
A. regardless of the degree and location of the deformity, all foals should have their limbs radiographed at the initial exam
B. the limb can usually be manually straighted in foals with asymmetric physeal or apphyeal growth
C. the limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones
D. Rads are useful in determining the degree of rotational deformity

C. the limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones

34

Which statement regarding the diagnostic workup in foals with tarsal angular limb deformities is correct?
A. a dorsoplantar rad is useful for tarsal bone hypoplasia
B. lateromedial rad is helpful for tarsal bone hypoplasia
C. clinicians should rely heavily on dorsoplantar rads for exact ID and evaluation of the location and degree of tarsal angular limb deformities
D. concurrent rotational deformities are best ID using rads

B. lateromedial rad is helpful for tarsal bone hypoplasi

35

Which of the following is the most likely cause of carpal angular limb deformities in newborn foals?
A. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate
B. periarticular laxity
C. delayed ossification of the epiphysis
D. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate and the epiphyseal growth cartilage

C. delayed ossification of the epiphysis

36

Which statement regarding congenital hypothyroidism is correct?
A. it has been implicated as a cause of uneven physeal growth
B. it has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones
C. as a cause of delayed epiphyseal ossification
D. often associated with abN fetal limb positioning

B. it has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones

37

Foals with tarsal bone hypoplasia tend to present with
A. Valgus
B. Varus
C. valgus and straight hocked appearance
D. Valgus and sickle hocked appearance

D. Valgus and sickle hocked appearance

38

Which statement regarding physical examination of foals with angular limb deformities is true
A. Angular limb deformities are often associated with some degree of lameness in the affected limb
B. Angular limb deformities are normally assoc with heat, pain, and swelling at the site
C. in most cases foals with a deformity are not lame
D. A and B

C. in most cases foals with a deformity are not lame

39

Which statement regarding foals with cuboidal bone hypoplasia is correct?
A. if left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity w/in 2 wks
B. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity w/in 2 days
C. Manual reducibility of this condition is not time dependent
D. The condition is never manually reducible

A. if left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity w/in 2 wks

40

Angular limb deformities most often originate within the carpal, tarsal, __________ joint regions
A. or distal interphalangeal
B. or proximal interphalangeal
C. Or metacarpo or Metatarsalphalangeal
D. Distal interphalangeal, or metacarpo- or metatarsalphalangeal

C. Or metacarpo or Metatarsalphalangeal

41

Which statement regarding management of congenital angular limb deformities is correct?
A. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution is unlikely
B. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2-4 wks of life.
C. In most foals born with angular limb deformities d/t carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs w/in 2-4 wks of life.
D. in most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 4-8 wks of life.

B. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2-4 wks of life.

42

To avoid development of a contracted foot in a foal, glue-on shoes should not be left on for longer than
A. 2 months
B. 3 M
C. 2 wks
D. none of the above

C. 2 wks

43

To allow rapid growth in young foals, tube casts should be changed at _______ intervals
A. 3-4 d
B. 10-14 d
C. 3-4 wk
D. 4-6 wk

B. 10-14 d

44

Corrective ostectomy or osteotomy is
A. preferred in treating tarsal bone hypoplasia
B. preferred in treating severe carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia
C. Generally performed before cessation of physeal growth
D. Generally performed after cessation of physeal growth

D. Generally performed after cessation of physeal growth

45

According to a recent experimental study, HCPTE was
A. More effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity
B. Less effective than stall confinement alone in correcting the carpal angular limb deformity
C. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity
D. As effective as unlimited pasture exercise in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.

C. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity

46

Which statement regarding treatment of foals with carpal bone hypoplasia is correct?
A. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia often require surgical tx after an initial period of splint bandaging
B. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on show with extension to the inside
C. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the outside
D. Foal with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting

D. Foal with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting

47

A 6-week-old foal with a significant varus deformity caused by asymmetric growth at the distal metatarsal growth plate in the left hindlimb is best treated by
A. Splint bandaging and confinement
B. Confinement
C. corrective trimming and possible shoeing as well as confinement
D. surgery corrective trimming and possibly showing as well as confinement

D. surgery corrective trimming and possibly showing as well as confinement

48

Which statement regarding HCPTE is true?
A. HCPTE temporarily retards longitudinal growth on the convex aspect of the deformity
B. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity
C. Foals that have undergone HCPTE require a second sx to prevent overcorrection of the deformity
D. HCPTE exerts its effect for approx. 3 months

B. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity

49

Which statement regarding TPB is correct?
A. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with a significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase
B. TPB is primarily used in foals with diaphyseal deformities
C. Contrary to HCPTE, overcorrection has not been reported with TPB.
D. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, mini foals, or foals with diaphyseal deformities

A. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with a significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase

50

Postoperative treatment of foals using HCPTE includes
A. Free pasture exercise because it tends to increase the rate of correction
B. Confinement
C. Splint bandage
D. Non of the above

B. Confinement

51

Definitive diagnosis of progressive ethmoid hematoma in horses is made by
A. Endoscopic exam
B. hx and clinical exam
C. CT
D. Histopath exam

D. Histopath exam

52

What is the prognosis for long term resolution of progressive ethmoid hematoma
A. Grave no matter what tx is performed
B. Good if treated with intralesional formalin
C. Guarded to poor no matter what tx
D. Good if tx w/ sx excision and cryotherapy of the base

C. Guarded to poor no matter what tx

53

In what breed have there been no reports of progressive ethmoid hematoma
A. Warmbloods
B. Arabians
C. Tennessee Walkers
D. Standardbreds

D. Standardbreds

54

What causes the color variations of the progressive ethmoid hematoma when viewed through a video endoscope
A. Age of lesion
B. fibrosis of mass
C. type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments
D. Non of the above

C. type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments

55

What is the most common clinical sign observed in horses with progressive ethmoid hematoma
A. Coughing
B. Epistaxis
C. Head pressing
D. Respiratory distress

B. Epistaxis

Mild, intermittent and unilateral

56

Which survey radiograph view most consistently demonstrates the lesion associated with progressive ethmoid hematoma
A. Dorsoventral
B. Oblique
C. Lateral
D. None of the above

C. Lateral

57

Diagnostic differentials after visualization of the mass lesion with the video endoscope should include all of the following except
A. Pulmonary neoplasia
B. Nasal trauma
C. Nasal neoplasia
D. Mycotic Rhinitis

A. Pulmonary neoplasia

58

What is the most substantial complication after surgical excision of a progressive ethmoid hematoma
A. Facial deformity
B. Resp Distress
C. wound dehiscence
D. hemorrhage

B. Resp Distress

59

Formalin (10%) treatment for progressive ethmoid hematoma in the horse is administered via which route
A. Intralesional
B. IV
C. IM
D. A nasogastric tube placed in the stomach

A. Intralesional

60

To monitor for recurrence after treatment of a progressive ethmoid hematoma, repeat exams should be performed at _______ intervals for______
A. 2 wk; 2 yr
B. 1 m; 1 yr
C. 3-6 m; 5 yr
D. 1 yr; 10 yr

C. 3-6 m; 5 yr

61

Which surgical approach to the guttural pouch does not provide ventral drainage?
A. Hyovertebrotomy
B. Virborgs triangle
C. Whitehouse
D. Modified Whitehouse

A. Hyovertebrotomy

62

Which surgical approach is best suited for treating guttural pouch mycosis?
A. a low hyovertebrotomy
B. Virborgs triangle
C. Whitehouse
D. Modified Whitehouse

A. a low hyovertebrotomy

63

What is the most common complication of guttural pouch surgery?
A. Blindness
B. Dysphagia
C. Facial nerve paralysis
D. AbN resp noises

B. Dysphagia

64

Mycotic lesions of the guttural pouch have a propensity for developing in which artery?
A. Maxillary
B. ECA
C. ICA
D. palatine

C. ICA

65

Which organisms are most commonly grown from diptheric plaques in cases of guttural pouch mycosis
A. A. furnigatus and strept equi
B. E. nidulans and histplasma capsulatum
C. E. Nidulans and A. furnigatus
D. Candida albicans and blastomyces dermatitis

C. E. Nidulans and A. furnigatus

66

What is the most common presenting sign for guttural pouch mycosis?
A. Dysphagia
B. Bilateral epistaxis, esp after work
C. facial nerve paralysis
D. Unilateral epistaxis at rest

D. Unilateral epistaxis at rest

67

Which ancillary procedure is most effective in diagnosing guttural pouch mycosis?
A. Endoscopy
B. rad
C. U/S
D. Fluoroscopy

A. Endoscopy

68

Which is the recommended therapy for guttural pouch mycosis?
A. scraping the fungi plaque off the guttural pouch membrane
B. irrigation with antifungal medication
C. Sx
D. systemic antifungal meds

C. Sx

69

Which artery is most likely to cause retrograde blood flow to mycotic lesions in the external carotid and maxillary arteries
A. linguofacial
B. Major palatine
C. Infraorbital
D. External ophthalmic

B. Major palatine

70

Current surgical techniques for arterial occlusion in treating guttural pouch mycosis include
a. Ligation
b. Balloon catheterization
c. Transarterial coil embolization
d. all of the above

D. all of the above

71

In a resting horse, which fraction of the total resistance to airflow is in the upper airway?
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4

C. 2/3

72

Videoendoscopy w/ the patient at rest allows dx of all the following upper respiratory disturbances except
A. Arytenoid chondritis
B. axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
C. persistent DDSP
D. persistent epiglottic entrapment

B. axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds

73

The intrinsic musculature of the pharynx includes all of the following except the
A. tensor veli palantini
B. levator veli palatine
C. Palatopharyngeus
D. hyoepiglotticus

D. hyoepiglotticus

74

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the pharynx is innervated by the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve?
A. genioglossus
B. sternohyoideus
C. thyrohyoideus
D. Sternothyroideus

C. thyrohyoideus

75

Rostral pharyngeal collapse has been experimentally reproduced by transecting the tendon of the ____ muscle.
A. tensor veli palatini
B. palatopharyngeus
C. stylopharyngeus
D. palatinus

A. tensor veli palatine

Bilaterally

76

Staphylectomy, epiglottic augmentation, rostral palatoplasty, and sternohyoideus/ sternothyroideus myectomy are all treatments for
A. rostral pharyngeal collapse
B. nasopharyngeal cicatrix
C. dorsal pharyngeal collapse
D. DDSP

D. DDSP

77

Dysfunction of the ____ muscle causes collapse of the pharyngeal roof during dorsal pharyngeal collapse
A. palatopharyngeus
B. stylopharyngeus caudalis
C. palatinus
D. sternohyoideus

B. stylopharyngeus caudalis

78

Which of the following is not an acceptable treatment for nasopharyngeal cicatrix?
A. anti-inflammatory medications
B. transendoscopic laser transaction
C. permanent tracheostomy
D. partial arytenoidectomy

D. partial arytenoidectomy

Because the rima glottides diameter is inadequate for normal respiration

79

Which upper resp disturbance may predispose a horse to DDSP as a result of inflammation of the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve?
A. pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia
B. elongated soft palate
C. Subepiglottic cyst
D. Epiglottic hypoplasia

A. pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia

80

What is the max length that should be removed from the soft palate during staphylectomy for correction for DDSP?
A. 2 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 10 mm

B. 5 mm

81

Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle provides arytenoid abduction by drawing the dorsomedial margins of the arytenoid cartilages together?
A. cricoarytenoideus Lateralis
B. arytenoideus transversus
C. thyroarytenoideus
D. Cricoarytenoideus dorsalsis

B. arytenoideus transversus

The paired cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscles also abduct by abducting the corniculate processes and tense the vocal folds.

82

Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle is not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus?
A. Cricoarytenoideus dorsalsis
B. arytenoideus transversus
C. cricothyroideus
D. thyroarytenoideus

C. cricothyroideus

Innervated by the external branch of the cranial laryngeal nerve

83

A remnant of the thyroglossal duct is throught to cause
A. dorsal epiglottic abscessation
B. subepiglottic granulomas
C. epiglottitis
D. subepiglottic cysts

D. subepiglottic cysts

84

Alone, which recommended tx for RLN does not improve upper airway noise or return the upper resp airflow mechanics to baseline values?
A. laryngoplasty
B. bilateral ventriculocordectomy
C. Unilateral laser local cordectomy
D. None of the above

B. bilateral ventriculocordectomy

85

Laryngoplasty failure can be corrected by
A. partial arytenoidectomy
B. ventriculectomy
C. bilateral ventriculocordectomy
D. unilateral laser vocal cordectomy

A. partial arytenoidectomy

86

What is the approx. success rate of partial arytenoidectomy in treating arytenoid chondritis in racing TBs?
A. 20% to 30%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-80%
D. 85-95%

C. 60-80%

87

Which upper airway disturbance is thought to be caused by developmental abnormality of the 4th branchial arch?
A. a subepiglottic cyst
B. axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
C. epiglottic retroversion
D. rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch

D. rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch

88

Which nerve/ muscle combo is used when performing a neuromuscular- pedicle graft to tx RLN?
A. hypoglossal nerve/ hyoepiglotticus muscle
B. first cervical nerver/ omohyoideus muscle
C. external branch of the cranial laryngeal nerve/ cricothyroideus muscle
D. External branch of the cranial laryngeal nerve/ thyrohoideus muscle

B. first cervical nerver/ omohyoideus muscle

89

Which of the following is not a complication of sx correction of epiglottic entrapment?
A. reentrapment
B. DDSP
C. laceration of the epiglottis
D. Epiglottic retroversion

D. Epiglottic retroversion

90

Which of the following disorders results in distortion of the corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage, causing decreased arytenoid cartilage abduction, axial displacement of the arytenoid cartilage, and rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch?
A. axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
B. Rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch
C. arytenoid chonritis
D. dorsal epiglottic abscessation

C. arytenoid chonritis

91

When do the deciduous PM normally erupt?
A. at birth or shortly thereafter
B. 2 yrs
C. 3 yrs
D. 4 yrs

A. at birth or shortly thereafter

92

The difference in width between the upper and lower jaw is called
A. isognathia
B. brachygnathia
C. prognathia
D. anisognathia

D. anisognathia

93

Brachygnathia is also known as
A. sow mouth
B. monkey mouth
C. parrot mouth
D. none of the above

C. parrot mouth

94

Retained deciduous incisors
A. may be assoc with discomfort
B. cause caudal displacement of the erupting permanent incisors
C. can be removed in a standing patient
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

95

Canine teeth
A. are usually problematic in mares and should be removed
B. may irritate the eruption site
C. are synonymous with wolf teeth
D. none of the above

D. none of the above

96

In regard to the check teeth, sharp dental points and overgrowths
A. may traumatize the cheeks or tongue
B. have been associated with biting problems
C. require floating
D. all of the above

C. require floating

97

Deciduous PM caps
A. may cause discomfort
B. do not occur in fillies and mares
C. are also known as wolf teeth
D. None of the above

A. may cause discomfort

98

Eruption cysts
A. are not detectable w/ rads
B. are assoc w/ eruption of permanent PMs
C. do not occur on the maxilla
D. all of the above

B. are assoc w/ eruption of permanent PMs

99

Wolf teeth may
A. cause pain d/t bit contact
B. not be present in all the dental arcades
C. not erupt
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

100

In regard to dental exam,
A. wetting the hands and instruments can reduce irritation in the horses mouth
B. wearing exam gloves helps minimize contamination of the clinicians skin
C. a bright light source facilitates most procedures
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

101

Which of the following statement concerning bacterial and/ or fungal keratitis in horses is true?
A. Most cases are thought to be initiated by trauma
B. The conjunctival sac of the normal equine eye is sterile
C. Common presenting signs include blepharospasm, epiphora, and corneal edema or opacity
D. a and c
E. a, b and c

D. a and c

102

Which of the following organisms are frequently found in normal equine eyes?
A. staph, strept, pseudomonas, and aspergillus species
B. Staph, strept, pseudomonas and tricophyton species
C. staph, bacillus, strept, and trichophyton
D. staph, bacillus, strept, and aspergillus

D. staph, bacillus, strept, and aspergillus

103

Which of the following organisms are frequently cultured from the conjunctiva and cornea of horses with external eye disease?
A. staph, pseudo, aspergillus, trichophyton
B. Strept, pseudo, clostridium and asperg
C. strept, staph, pseudo, and asperg
D. pseudo, clostridium, aspergillus and trichophyton

C. strept, staph, pseudo, and asperg

104

Evaluation of a horse with keratitis should include
A. sedation and regional anesthesia (eyelid block)
B. exam w/ a good quality light source and magnification
C. bacterial culture of anterior chamber exudate
D. A and B
E. a, b and c

E. a, b and c

105

Ulcerative keratitis caused by infection may show which of the following c/s?
A. lack of fluorescein dye retention, focal corneal opacity, blepharospasm, and miosis
B. fluorescein dye retention, smooth lesion margins, epiphora and mydriasis
C. fluorescein dye retention, irregular lesion margins, corneal melting and miosis
D. lack of fluorescein dye retention, corneal edema, hypophyon, hyphema and mydriasis

C. fluorescein dye retention, irregular lesion margins, corneal melting and miosis

106

Corneal stromal abscesses are associated with which of the following c/s?
A. lack of fluro dye retention, focal corneal opacity, blepharosasm and miosis
B. fluro dye retention, smooth lesion margin, epiphora and mydriasis
C. fluro dye retention, irregular lesion margins, corneal melting and miosis
D. lack of dye retention, corneal edema, hypopyon, hyphema and mydriasis

A. lack of fluro dye retention, focal corneal opacity, blepharosasm and miosis

107

Before results of culture and sensitvity testing become available, a horse with a rapidly progressive melting corneal ulcer (with a miotic pupil and hypopyon) should be treated with
A. a topically applied neomycin- bacitracin- polymixin B- hydrocortisone combo
B. topical gentamicin
C. IM penicillin and streptomycin
D. a and b
E. all of the above

B. topical gentamicin

108

which of the following statement regarding frequency of topical abs is correct?
A. Ointments should be applied BID and solution q 2 hrs
B. Ointments and solution should be applied QID.
C. ointments should be applied at least QID and solutions at least 6x daily
D. If systemic ab are used, topical ointments and solutions can be applied TID.

C. ointments should be applied at least QID and solutions at least 6x daily

109

Keratitis can be treated with appropriate topical antimicrobials in addition to which of the following?
A. topical atropine, subconjunctival abs, systemic NSAID agents
B. subconjunctival abs, topical steroids, systemic NSAIDs
C. topical atropine, systemic AB and systemic steroids
D. Topical atropine, topical steroids, systemic NSAIDS

A. topical atropine, subconjunctival abs, systemic NSAID agents

110

Surgical debridement followed by application of a conjunctival pedicle flap offers which of the following therapeutic advantages?
A. excision of necrotic corneal stroma
B. excision of infectious agents and proteolytic enzymes
C. restoration of corneal integrity
D. provision of circulation of the lesion
E. all of the above

E. all of the above