test 2 (chapter 5,6,8,) Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What is a gene composed of

A

DNA that transcribes to produce an RNA molecule during transcription.

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2
Q

what is mRNA and what does it do

A

Messenger RNA and it provides the information for the ribosome to catalyze protein synthesis in translation.

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3
Q

what is gene expression?

A

the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded into a gene.

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4
Q

What is central dogma

A

the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.

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5
Q

what is a cells genotype

A

its full collection of its genes it contains.

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6
Q

What is a cells phenotype

A

The set of observable characteristics from those genes.

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7
Q

semiconservative replication

A

after replication each parent strand has a new and an old strand

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8
Q

What is DNA pol 3

A

is required from DNA synthesis and adds deoxyribose nucleotides one by one on the 3’ -OH strand.

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9
Q

what are DNA pol 1 and 2 for

A

repair.

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10
Q

what is a histone

A

a protein that provides structural support for a chromosome.

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11
Q

What happens if DNA is supercoiled?

A

it is inaccessible.

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12
Q

How does DNA get un-supercoiled?

A

Topoisomerase(gyrase)

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13
Q

What does helicase do

A

break the DNA structure by destroying the hydrogen bonds.

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14
Q

What nucleotide has fewer hydrogen bonds?

A

AT

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15
Q

What is primer?

A

a free 3’ -OH group that start the DNA synthesis.

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16
Q

what is primer synthesized by

A

RNA primase.

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17
Q

Ligase

A

Seals the gaps between the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to create one continuous DNA strand

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18
Q

DNA pol 1

A

Exonuclease activity removes RNA primer and replaces it with newly synthesized DNA

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19
Q

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

A

Relaxes supercoiled chromosome to make DNA more accessible for the initiation of replication; helps relieve the stress on DNA when unwinding, by causing breaks and then resealing the DNA

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20
Q

Topoisomerase IV

A

Introduces single-stranded break into concatenated chromosomes to release them from each other, and then reseals the DNA

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21
Q

A segment of DNA that codes for a functional product

A

gene

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22
Q

What process converts one parental DNA strand into 2 identical offspring molecules

A

transcription

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23
Q

In DNA replication the newly added nucleotide is joined to the growing DNA strand by

A

DNA polymerase

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24
Q

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides specifically to the what prime side of the growing strand?

A

3 prime

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24
Which one of the following enzymes joins DNA strands, joins Okazaki fragments, and mends gaps in the DNA backbone during excision repair
DNA Ligase
24
What carries the coded information for making specific proteins from DNA to ribosomes?
mRNA
25
Which molecules recognize specific codons and transport amino acids to translate those specific codons?
tRNA
25
A group of three nucleotides on mRNA is called a(n)
codon
26
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the DNA at the
promoter
27
of the 61 codons how many are sense codons
61 (3 are the telomeres)
28
between 60 to 80 percent of genes are not regulated by the cell but are ______ in nature
constitutive
29
What is the process that turns on the transcription of a gene or genes?
induction
30
A group of genes that are transcribed together and controlled by one promoter defines a(n)
operon
31
Inhibition of the metabolism of alternative carbon sources by glucose is called
catabolite repression
32
ionizing radiation causes
DNA strand breaks
33
Single-stranded RNA molecules that inhibit protein production in eukaryotic cells are known as
microRNAs
34
thymine dimers can be repaired by light repair enzymes called
photolyases
35
What is the most common type of mutation which involves single base pairs?
base substitution
36
Mutations in which one or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted in the DNA are called
frameshift mutations
36
Approximately what percentage of substances found by the Ames test to be mutagenic are also carcinogenic in animals?
90%
37
The process of bacteria passing their genes to other microbes of the same generation is known as
horizontal gene shift
38
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell via
naked DNA in solution
39
The process in which bacterial DNA is transferred from a donor cell to a recipient cell inside a bacteriophage is called
transduction
40
The process for gene transfer which requires cell- to-cell contact and a particular type of plasmid is called
conjugtion
40
Which type of plasmids carry genes for sex pili and for the transfer of the plasmid to another cell?
conjugative plasmids.
41
What are the small segments of DNA that can move from one region of a DNA molecule to another?
transposons
42
The building of complex organic molecules from simpler ones is called
anabolism
43
The breakdown of complex organic compounds into simpler ones is called
catabolism
44
Inhibitors that fill the enzyme's active site and compete with the normal substrate are
competitive
45
Enzymes increase the speed of a chemical reaction by
lowering the activation energy
46
Many apoenzymes are inactive by themselves and must be activated by
cofactors
47
The addition of phosphate to a chemical compound is called
phosphorylation
48
In what process does the aerobic electron transport chain participate?
oxidative phosphorylation
49
A molecule that undergoes reduction
gains electrons
50
the energy from catabolic reactions is used to produce
ATP
51
In which one of the following processes is light energy converted to ATP, which is then used to synthesize organic molecules?
photosynthesis
52
In which one of the following processes is light energy converted to ATP, which is then used to synthesize organic molecules?
2 pyruvic acids, 2 atp, and 2 NADH
53
In prokaryotes, how many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of one glucose via aerobic respiration
38
54
The pentose phosphate pathway provides a means to break down glucose and
five carbon sugars
55
The FIRST step in the Krebs cycle is combination of an acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid, leading to the formation of
citric acid
56
In anaerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is
an inorganic molecule other than oxygen
57
Where does photosynthesis take place in eukaryotic cells?
chloroplasts
58
In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis
ADP is converted to ATP
59
In the Calvin-Benson cycle
carbon dioxide is used to synthesize sugars
60
Photosynthesis in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria produces
oxygen
61
use electrons from reduced inorganic or organic compounds as a source of energy and CO2 as a source of carbon
chemoautotrophs
62
In cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons
return to chlorophyll
63
In lipid biosynthesis, glycerol is derived from dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed during
glycolisis
64
If an amine group added to a precursor comes from a preexisting amino acid, the process is called
transamination
65
The five-carbon sugars of nucleotides are derived from either the
pentose phosphate pathway; entener duodorff pathway
66
Metabolic pathways that function in BOTH anabolism and catabolism are called ________ pathways
amphiobolic
67
In fermentation
the final electron acceptor is organic.
68
an optimum PH for most bacteria is near
7
69
A psychrophile has an optimal growth temperature of about
15C
70
Organisms that require high salt concentrations for growth are called
obligate halophiles
71
What is/are the energy source(s) utilized by primary producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor?
sulfur compounds
72
Addition of salts preserves foods because they
increase osmotic pressure
73
Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs derive their carbon from
carbon dioxide
74
Some microorganisms use gaseous nitrogen directly from the atmosphere in a process called
nitrogen fixation
75
An organism that uses oxygen when present but can grow without oxygen is called a(n)
facultative anaerobe
76
Which organism is killed by atmospheric oxygen?
obligate anaerobe
77
One of the following enzymes found in some bacteria which can break down toxic hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is
catalase
78
Generation time can best be defined as
the time it takes for a cell to divide.
78
Bacterial growth is usually graphed using ________ axis scales.
logarithmic
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