Test 2 MCQ practice questions

Question 1

Which of the following is a characteristic property of metallic solids?
a) Brittle and high melting points
b) Conductivity in solid and molten states
c) Hard but not conductive
d) Low melting points and variable hardness

Answer 1

b.
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 2

What type of crystalline solid is NaCl (sodium chloride)?
a) Molecular
b) Metallic
c) Covalent network
d) Ionic

Answer 2

d.
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic solids?
a) High melting points
b) Electrical conductivity in solid state
c) Hard and brittle structure
d) Composed of positive and negative ions

Answer 3

b.
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 4

Which of the following statements about covalent network solids is true?
a) They have high melting points due to strong covalent bonds.
b) They conduct electricity in the solid state.
c) They are composed of metal atoms held by a sea of electrons.
d) They have weak intermolecular forces and low melting points.

Answer 4

a.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 5

Which of the following describes molecular solids?
a) They are composed of ions held together by electrostatic forces.
b) They have high melting points due to strong covalent bonds.
c) They are composed of molecules held together by intermolecular forces.
d) They conduct electricity in both solid and liquid states.

Answer 5

c.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 6

Which type of crystalline solid is most likely to shatter rather than bend when struck?
a) Metallic
b) Covalent network
c) Ionic
d) Molecular

Answer 6

c.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 7

What type of solid is diamond an example of?
a) Ionic
b) Metallic
c) Covalent network
d) Molecular

Answer 7

c.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 8

What happens when an amorphous solid is heated?
a) It melts at a distinct temperature.
b) It gradually softens over a range of temperatures.
c) It becomes an ionic solid.
d) It forms a crystalline solid immediately.

Answer 8

b.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 9

Which of the following statements about crystal defects is false?
a) Vacancies occur when an atom is missing from a lattice position.
b) Interstitial defects occur when extra atoms occupy positions between regular lattice points.
c) Doping introduces impurities to create defects that can modify material properties.
d) Crystal defects always make a material weaker.

Answer 9

d.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 10

Which of the following best explains why metallic solids are good conductors of electricity?
a) The atoms are held together by strong covalent bonds.
b) The ions are free to move in the solid state.
c) They have delocalized electrons that move freely.
d) They are composed of molecules held together by intermolecular forces.

Answer 10

c.)
10.5 The solids state of matter

Question 11

A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic (BCC) structure. If an atom at the center of the unit cell is removed, how would the coordination number of the remaining atoms change?

a) It would increase
b) It would decrease
c) It would remain the same
d) It would become zero

Answer 11

b.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 12

The ionic radii of a cation and an anion determine their packing in a crystal. If the cation is too large for an octahedral hole but too small for a cubic hole, which type of structure is most likely to form?

a) Simple cubic
b) Body-centered cubic
c) Face-centered cubic with tetrahedral holes
d) Face-centered cubic with octahedral holes

Answer 12

c.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 13

A scientist is using X-ray diffraction to determine the structure of an unknown metal. If the diffraction pattern suggests a coordination number of 12, what is the most likely crystal structure?

a) Simple cubic
b) Body-centered cubic
c) Face-centered cubic (FCC)
d) Tetrahedral

Answer 13

c.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 14

Which of the following statements about metallic crystal structures is correct?

a) The simple cubic structure is the most efficient packing structure.
b) The body-centered cubic structure has a higher packing efficiency than the face-centered cubic structure.
c) Face-centered cubic structures maximize attractive forces and minimize energy.
d) All metals crystallize in a simple cubic structure.

Answer 14

c.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 15

An unknown ionic compound crystallizes in a structure where the anions form a face-centered cubic arrangement, and the cations occupy all the octahedral holes. What is the expected cation-to-anion ratio in this compound?

a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 3:1

Answer 15

a.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 16

Which property of metals is best explained by their crystal structure?

a) High electrical conductivity
b) Brittleness
c) Low density
d) Lack of malleability

Answer 16

a.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 17

Polonium (Po) is the only metal that crystallizes in a simple cubic structure. Based on this, which of the following statements is likely true?

a) Polonium has a high packing efficiency.
b) Polonium has a lower density compared to metals with FCC or BCC structures.
c) Polonium has a high coordination number.
d) Polonium forms strong metallic bonds due to its crystal structure.

Answer 17

b.)
10.6 Lattice structures in crystalline solids

Question 18

Which of the following best explains why sugar dissolves in water?
A) Sugar molecules form ionic bonds with water molecules.
B) Sugar molecules break down into individual atoms in water.
C) Sugar molecules disperse uniformly among water molecules due to molecular interactions.
D) Sugar molecules settle at the bottom of the container over time.

Answer 18

11.1 The dissolution process
C.

Question 19

A mixture is prepared by dissolving potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) in water. What happens at the molecular level?
A) The potassium dichromate remains as a solid.
B) The compound dissociates into potassium and dichromate ions, which disperse uniformly in water.
C) The compound reacts chemically with water to form a new substance.
D) The dichromate ions settle out of the solution due to their greater mass.

Answer 19

11.1 The dissolution process
B.

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of an ideal solution?
A) A mixture of water and oil
B) A mixture of helium and argon gases
C) A mixture of salt and water
D) A mixture of iron and copper

Answer 20

11.1 The dissolution process
B.

Question 21

Why does stirring a solute in a solvent speed up the dissolution process?
A) It provides energy required for dissolution to occur.
B) It increases the interaction between solute and solvent molecules.
C) It changes the solubility of the solute.
D) It forces the solute to break into individual atoms.

Answer 21

11.1 The dissolution process
B.

Question 22

What must occur for an ionic compound to dissolve in water?
A) The solute’s electrostatic forces must be weaker than the solvation forces.
B) The solute’s electrostatic forces must be stronger than the solvation forces.
C) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules must be completely destroyed.
D) The solute must chemically react with water.

Answer 22

11.1 The dissolution process
B.

Question 23

Ammonium nitrate is used in instant cold packs because it dissolves endothermically in water. Why does this process still occur spontaneously?
A) The increase in disorder (entropy) favors the dissolution.
B) The reaction releases heat into the surroundings.
C) The ammonium and nitrate ions form a new solid compound in water.
D) Water molecules increase their energy, causing the solution to become warm.

Answer 23

11.1 The dissolution process
A.

Question 24

Which of the following statements about solutions is TRUE?
A) Solutions always absorb heat when they form.
B) Solutions can be composed of solids, liquids, or gases.
C) A solution forms only when a solid dissolves in a liquid.
D) Solutions always require an external energy source to form.

Answer 24

11.1 The dissolution process
B.

Question 25

Which of the following substances is most likely a strong electrolyte? A) Pure water B) Table sugar (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) C) Potassium chloride (KCl) dissolved in water D) A nonpolar covalent compound

Answer 25

C. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 26

A scientist measures the electrical conductance of an unknown aqueous solution and observes that the light bulb in the circuit glows brightly. What can be concluded about the solution? A) It contains a strong electrolyte with a high concentration of ions. B) It contains a weak electrolyte with few ions present. C) It is a nonelectrolyte with no ions present. D) It must be a covalent compound that does not dissolve in water.

Answer 26

A. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 27

Which of the following best describes why ionic compounds are typically strong electrolytes? A) They dissolve in water without breaking into individual ions. B) They completely dissociate into freely moving ions in solution. C) They form weak intermolecular attractions with water molecules. D) They chemically react with water to form new compounds.

Answer 27

B. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 28

Hydrogen chloride (HCl) is a covalent gas but forms a strong electrolyte when dissolved in water. Why? A) HCl molecules remain intact but allow electricity to flow. B) HCl dissociates completely into H₃O⁺ and Cl⁻ ions in solution. C) HCl does not dissolve in water, so it does not affect conductivity. D) HCl only partially ionizes, making it a weak electrolyte.

Answer 28

B. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 29

Which of the following would be the best method to determine if a substance is a strong electrolyte, weak electrolyte, or nonelectrolyte? A) Measuring the mass of the substance before and after dissolution B) Observing the color of the solution after mixing C) Testing the electrical conductivity of the solution D) Measuring the rate at which the solute dissolves in water

Answer 29

C. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 30

Which statement correctly describes a weak electrolyte? A) It completely ionizes in water. B) It does not conduct electricity at all. C) It partially ionizes in water, producing some ions but also leaving some un-ionized molecules. D) It consists only of nonpolar covalent molecules.

Answer 30

C. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 31

A solution of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is tested for electrical conductivity and produces a dim glow in a light bulb circuit. What can be inferred? A) Acetic acid is a strong electrolyte. B) Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte because it only partially ionizes. C) Acetic acid is a nonelectrolyte and does not produce ions. D) The light bulb’s brightness is unrelated to ion concentration.

Answer 31

B. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 32

Which of the following explains why some ionic compounds do not dissolve well in water, even though water is a polar solvent? A) Their solute-solute electrostatic forces are much stronger than solute-solvent attractions. B) Water cannot interact with any type of ionic compound. C) Ionic compounds are always nonpolar and do not mix with water. D) Water molecules do not surround ions in a solution.

Answer 32

A. 11.2 Electrolytes

Question 33

A student prepares a sugar-water solution and keeps adding sugar while stirring. Eventually, some sugar remains undissolved at the bottom of the glass. What conclusion can the student draw? A) The solution is unsaturated. B) The solution has reached its solubility limit and is saturated. C) The solution is supersaturated. D) The sugar has chemically reacted with water.

Answer 33

B.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 34

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a supersaturated solution? A) Adding a spoonful of salt to water and watching it dissolve completely. B) Heating a solution to dissolve more solute than normally possible, then cooling it down without precipitation occurring. C) Mixing oil and water, resulting in two separate layers. D) Opening a soda bottle and hearing a hiss as gas escapes.

Answer 34

B.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 35

3. Which of the following statements correctly explains why fish may struggle to survive in water affected by thermal pollution? A) Warm water holds more dissolved oxygen, making it difficult for fish to extract oxygen. B) Higher temperatures decrease oxygen solubility, leading to lower dissolved oxygen levels. C) Thermal pollution causes water to become too acidic, harming aquatic life. D) Cold water evaporates faster, leaving fish with less oxygen.

Answer 35

B.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 36

Why does a carbonated beverage go "flat" after being opened and left out for some time? A) The solubility of CO₂ decreases as the pressure is released, causing gas to escape. B) The beverage absorbs oxygen from the air, reacting with CO₂. C) The sugar in the drink reacts with CO₂, forming solid carbonates. D) The solubility of CO₂ increases over time, making it stay dissolved in the liquid.

Answer 36

A.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 37

A closed soda bottle is at equilibrium with dissolved carbon dioxide. If the bottle is placed in a hot car, what will happen to the concentration of CO₂ in the soda? A) It will increase because heat makes gases more soluble. B) It will decrease because gas solubility decreases with temperature. C) It will remain the same since the bottle is sealed. D) The CO₂ will chemically react with the soda, forming carbonic acid.

Answer 37

B.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 38

Which of the following is an example of Henry’s Law in action? A) Sugar dissolving faster in hot tea than in cold tea. B) A diver experiencing decompression sickness ("the bends") due to nitrogen coming out of solution too quickly. C) Oil and water separating into layers when mixed. D) Ethanol completely dissolving in water due to hydrogen bonding.

Answer 38

B.) 11.3 Solubility

Question 39

Which of the following molecules would exhibit only London dispersion forces? A. HCl B. H2O C. CH4 D. NH3

Answer 39

c.) 10.1 Intermolecular forces

Question 40

Why does n-pentane have a higher boiling point than neopentane? A. n-Pentane is a polar molecule, while neopentane is nonpolar. B. n-Pentane has a larger molecular mass than neopentane. C. n-Pentane has a more elongated shape, leading to stronger dispersion forces. D. Neopentane forms hydrogen bonds, weakening its dispersion forces.

Answer 40

Answer: C. (Elongated molecules have greater surface area for interactions, strengthening dispersion forces.) 10.1 Intermolecular forces

Question 41

What is the primary reason water (H2O) has a much higher boiling point than nitrosyl fluoride (ONF), even though ONF has a higher molecular mass? A. Water has stronger dipole-dipole attractions. B. Water forms hydrogen bonds, which are much stronger than dipole-dipole interactions. C. ONF has weaker London dispersion forces. D. ONF has ionic bonds, making it more volatile.

Answer 41

Answer: B. (Hydrogen bonding is responsible for water’s unexpectedly high boiling point.) 10.1 Intermolecular forces

Question 42

Which of the following correctly ranks the intermolecular forces from weakest to strongest? A. Hydrogen bonding < Dipole-Dipole < Dispersion B. Dipole-Dipole < Dispersion < Hydrogen bonding C. Dispersion < Dipole-Dipole < Hydrogen bonding D. Dispersion < Hydrogen bonding < Dipole-Dipole

Answer 42

Answer: C. (Dispersion forces are the weakest, followed by dipole-dipole, with hydrogen bonding being the strongest.) 10.1 Intermolecular forces

Question 43

Which of the following factors increases the strength of London dispersion forces? A. Increasing molecular mass B. Increasing polarity of the molecule C. Decreasing the number of electrons in the molecule D. Presence of hydrogen bonding

Answer 43

Answer: A. (Larger molecules with more electrons are more polarizable, leading to stronger dispersion forces.) 10.1 Intermolecular forces

Question 44

Which answer options accurately describe movement in a semipermeable membrane? (pick all that apply) A.) Solvent moves across to the more concentrated side of the membrane. B.) Solvent and solute move equally across once equilibrium is reached. C.) Solute moves across to the less concentrated side of the membrane. D.) There is no net movement of solvent once equilibrium is reached.

Answer 44

A and D

Question 45

What is ? (pick all that apply) A.) The heat of separating a salt into ions . B.) The enthalpy change of the solution. C.) The heat of moving a salt from solid to liquid phase. D.) The enthalpy change of breaking ionic bonds.

Answer 45

A and D

Question 46

Which of the following increases viscosity? (Pick all that apply) A. Stronger intermolecular forces B. Higher temperature C. More complex molecular structure D. Presence of adhesive forces

Answer 46

Answer: A and C Explanation: Stronger IMFs and larger/more complex molecules increase viscosity. Higher temperature decreases viscosity. Adhesive forces (between different materials) do not directly affect viscosity.

Question 47

Why does water form a concave meniscus in a glass tube? A. Cohesive forces between water molecules are stronger than adhesive forces to glass. B. Adhesive forces between water and glass are stronger than cohesive forces between water molecules. C. Surface tension pulls the water downward. D. Gravity compresses the water into the tube.

Answer 47

Answer: B Explanation: Water “wets” glass because the adhesive forces between water and glass are stronger than cohesive forces between water molecules.

Question 48

Which scenario would likely lead to higher surface tension? A. Adding soap to water B. Cooling water to a lower temperature C. Heating ethanol to a higher temperature D. Adding mercury to glass

Answer 48

Answer: B Explanation: Lower temperatures increase surface tension by slowing molecular motion, giving IMFs more effect. Soap reduces surface tension.

Question 49

What happens to the surface tension of water if oil is added to the surface? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stays the same. D. It depends on the type of oil.

Answer 49

Answer: B Explanation: Surface contaminants (like oil) disrupt cohesive forces between water molecules, reducing surface tension.

Question 50

What explains why mercury forms a convex meniscus in glass tubes? A. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces. B. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces. C. Surface tension is weaker than viscosity. D. Capillary action pulls the mercury downward.

Answer 50

B Explanation: Mercury’s cohesive forces (between mercury atoms) are much stronger than its adhesive forces to glass.

Question 51

During a camping trip at high altitude, you notice that water boils much faster than at sea level. This is because the boiling point of water at higher altitudes is: a) Higher due to increased temperature b) Lower due to decreased pressure c) The same regardless of altitude d) Higher due to increased pressure

Answer 51

b.)

Question 52

When a snowflake forms directly from water vapor in the air, skipping the liquid phase entirely, this is an example of: a) Melting b) Sublimation c) Deposition d) Condensation

Answer 52

c.)

Question 53

A scientist wants to melt a metal, but they also need to avoid increasing its temperature above the melting point. Which type of heat energy must they carefully control? a) Sensible heat b) Radiant heat c) Latent heat d) Conductive heat

Answer 53

c.)

Question 54

After removing a bottle of supercooled water from a freezer, you tap it sharply on the side. The water instantly freezes into ice. What caused this sudden phase change? a) The water absorbed latent heat. b) The impact provided nucleation sites for crystals to form. c) The pressure in the bottle increased. d) The water boiled briefly before freezing.

Answer 54

b.)

Question 55

When dry ice is left at room temperature, it changes directly from a solid to a gas. What type of phase change is this? a) Freezing b) Sublimation c) Deposition d) Condensation

Answer 55

b.)

Question 56

Which of the following is true when water is boiling at its boiling point? a) The temperature of the water rises as heat is added. b) The water absorbs latent heat, but the temperature stays constant. c) The water's temperature decreases slightly as bubbles form. d) The vapor pressure of the water decreases.

Answer 56

b.)

Question 57

On a phase diagram, what does the triple point represent? a) The temperature and pressure where liquid and gas coexist. b) The temperature and pressure where all three phases (solid, liquid, gas) coexist. c) The temperature and pressure where sublimation occurs. d) The point beyond which only the solid phase exists

Answer 57

B.)

Question 58

In a heating curve, why does the temperature remain constant when a solid melts into a liquid? a) The heat energy is lost to the environment. b) The heat energy is used to break intermolecular forces rather than increasing temperature. c) The solid has reached thermal equilibrium. d) The heat energy causes the solid to cool instead of melt.

Answer 58

b.)

Question 59

In a superheated liquid, why does the liquid remain in the liquid phase even though it is above its normal boiling point? a) The pressure is extremely high. b) No nucleation sites are available to start boiling. c) The liquid has absorbed all of its latent heat. d) The liquid is highly viscous.

Answer 59

b.)

Question 60

In paper chromatography, what is the stationary phase? A) The solvent that moves up the paper B) The ink sample being separated C) The paper itself D) The pigments that dissolve in the solvent

Answer 60

C.)

Question 61

During chromatography, a substance that interacts strongly with the stationary phase will: A) Move quickly through the stationary phase B) Move very slowly or not at all C) Evaporate immediately D) React chemically with the mobile phase

Answer 61

B.)

Question 62

What type of intermolecular force would you expect between a polar dye molecule and a polar stationary phase? A) London Dispersion Forces B) Hydrogen Bonding C) Covalent Bonding D) Ionic Bonding

Answer 62

B.)

Question 63

In chromatography, the mobile phase can be: A) A solid only B) A gas only C) A liquid or a gas D) A liquid only

Answer 63

C.)

Question 64

Which of the following would likely travel the farthest in a polar stationary phase if the mobile phase is nonpolar? A) A highly polar compound B) A slightly polar compound C) A nonpolar compound D) An ionic compound

Answer 64

C.)

Question 65

The separation of substances in chromatography relies heavily on differences in: A) Density B) Atomic number C) Solubility and intermolecular forces D) Mass only

Answer 65

C.)

Question 66

Which intermolecular force is strongest in nonpolar molecules? A) Hydrogen bonding B) Dipole-dipole interactions C) London Dispersion Forces D) Ionic interactions

Answer 66

C.)

Question 67

In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), the stationary phase is a polar silica gel. If you are separating a mixture of compounds, which type of compound would you expect to have the smallest Rf value (travel the shortest distance)? A) A large, nonpolar hydrocarbon B) A polar alcohol C) A nonpolar aromatic compound D) A weakly polar ester

Answer 67

B.)

Question 68

You are performing column chromatography to separate two organic compounds: one is nonpolar and the other is highly polar. You are using a polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase. Which compound will elute first? A) The nonpolar compound B) The polar compound C) Both will elute at the same time D) The order depends only on molecular size, not polarity

Answer 68

A.)

Question 69

Gas chromatography (GC) separates compounds primarily based on: A) Polarity and boiling point B) Molecular size only C) Density and mass D) Color and solubility

Answer 69

A.)

Question 70

In reversed-phase chromatography, the stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar (like water or methanol). Which of the following would elute last? A) A small, nonpolar compound B) A large, nonpolar compound C) A small, polar compound D) A large, polar compound

Answer 70

D.)

Question 71

A mixture contains three compounds: Compound A can form hydrogen bonds. Compound B is nonpolar. Compound C is ionic. You use a polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase. What is the expected order of elution (first to last)? A) A, B, C B) B, A, C C) C, A, B D) B, C, A

Answer 71

B.)

Question 72

In liquid chromatography, a compound that elutes quickly probably has: A) Strong intermolecular forces with the stationary phase B) Weak intermolecular forces with the stationary phase C) High molecular mass D) A large dipole moment

Answer 72

B.)

Question 73

Which of the following changes could increase the Rf value of a polar compound in paper chromatography? A) Switching to a less polar solvent as the mobile phase B) Using a thicker paper C) Drying the paper before running the chromatography D) Adding a small amount of salt to the mobile phase

Answer 73

D.)

Question 74

When a surfactant forms a micelle in water, the interior of the micelle primarily experiences: A) Hydrogen bonding B) Ion-dipole interactions C) London Dispersion Forces D) Dipole-dipole interactions

Answer 74

C.)

Question 75

Surfactants reduce surface tension because they: A) Break ionic bonds between water molecules B) Weaken hydrogen bonding at the water surface C) Strengthen London Dispersion Forces in the bulk liquid D) React chemically with water

Answer 75

B.)

Question 76

In an oil-water mixture stabilized by a surfactant, what type of interaction occurs between the surfactant’s hydrophobic tail and the oil? A) Hydrogen bonding B) Dipole-dipole interactions C) London Dispersion Forces D) Ion-dipole interactions

Answer 76

C.)

Question 77

Which type of surfactant would be most effective at stabilizing an oil droplet in water? A) A surfactant with a large nonpolar head and short tail B) A surfactant with a large polar head and long nonpolar tail C) A surfactant with no polar head D) A surfactant that is completely hydrophobic

Answer 77

B.)

Question 78

Surfactants are particularly useful for cleaning greasy dishes because: A) They form covalent bonds with grease B) They dissolve the grease into the water by forming micelles C) They react chemically with grease to form soap D) They neutralize the grease’s pH

Answer 78

B.)

Question 79

Zeta potential is most directly related to: A) The internal charge of a particle’s core B) The charge at the exact surface of the particle C) The potential at the boundary between the moving fluid and stationary fluid surrounding a particle D) The ability of a particle to absorb light

Answer 79

C.)

Question 80

Which of the following zeta potentials would indicate the most stable colloid suspension? A) 0 mV B) +5 mV C) -30 mV D) +50 mV

Answer 80

D.)

Question 81

In a suspension of negatively charged clay particles, adding a small amount of positively charged ions (like Ca²⁺) would likely: A) Increase the magnitude of the zeta potential and increase stability B) Decrease the magnitude of the zeta potential and decrease stability C) Have no effect on zeta potential D) Cause the particles to become positively charged

Answer 81

B.)

Question 82

Zeta potential is most relevant in which of the following processes? A) Titration of strong acids and bases B) Formation of covalent bonds in polymers C) Stability of emulsions and suspensions D) Determining boiling point elevation

Answer 82

C.)

Question 83

If a colloidal suspension has a zeta potential close to zero, which type of intermolecular force becomes dominant between the particles? A) Hydrogen bonding B) London Dispersion Forces (van der Waals) C) Dipole-dipole interactions D) Ion-dipole interactions

Answer 83

B.)

Question 84

During wastewater treatment, controlling zeta potential is important because: A) It controls how quickly water freezes. B) It affects how easily particles can be removed through flocculation. C) It changes the chemical formula of contaminants. D) It enhances the solubility of dissolved salts.

Answer 84

B.)

Question 85

How could you intentionally reduce the zeta potential of negatively charged particles to promote aggregation? A) Add more water B) Add negatively charged surfactants C) Add a salt solution containing positive ions D) Increase the temperature

Answer 85

C.)