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Pharmacology 1 Practice Questions > Test 2 Practice Questions > Flashcards

Test 2 Practice Questions Flashcards

(89 cards)

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1
Q

The best antidote for atropine poisoning is

A

Physostigmine

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2
Q

Which drug is favored in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine

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3
Q

Atropine overdose may cause all of the following EXCEPT

Constipation

Tachycardia

Urine retention

Decrease in IOP

Decrease in gastric secretion

A

Decrease in intraocular pressure

IS NOT caused by Atropine OD

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4
Q

Which is the drug of choice in the immediate tx of acute anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine

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5
Q

Epinephrine is contraindicated with phenothiazine derivatives mainly because it

A

will cause severe hypotension

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6
Q

Which is the drug of choice for treatment of acute bronchial asthma?

A

Albuterol

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7
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT

Hypertension

Hyperthyroidism

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Glaucoma

Urinary incontinence

A

beta-blockers are NOT used for

URINARY INCONTINENCE

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8
Q

A dog poisoned with chocolate would show signs of

A

Tachycardia, Seizures, and Urination

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9
Q

All of the following can be used orally to decrease the absorption of strychnine EXCEPT:

diluted potassium permanganate

diluted tincture of iodine

diluted tannic acid solution

activated charcoal

sodium bicarbonate

A

sodium bicarbonate

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10
Q

Xanthine derivatives stimulate the CNS mainly by

A

blocking adenosine receptors

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11
Q

Which drug is used as an antidote for diazepam?

A

Flumazenil

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12
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives?

preanesthetic

chemical restraint

bronchial asthma

motion sickness

antiemetics

A

bronchial asthma

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13
Q

Benzodiazepines cause CNS depression by

A

enhancing GABA

(the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS)

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14
Q

Which CNS depressant drugs are used to stimulate appetite in cats and dogs?

A

Benzodiazepines

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15
Q

The BEST antagonist for droperidol-fentanyl combination is

A

4-AP naloxone combination

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16
Q

Bradycardia due to Xylazine in the horse is BEST treated with

A

Atropine

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17
Q

Which drug is MOST effective in reversing sedation and analgesia in dogs receiving

Medetomidine?

A

Atipamazole

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18
Q

Which muscle relaxant has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse?

A

Succinylcholine

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19
Q

Which drug is PREFERRED as an antidote for non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

overdose?

A

Neostigmine

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20
Q

The antithrombotic effect of aspirin is MAINLY due to

A

inhibition of platelet aggregation

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21
Q

The drug of choice for maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats is

A

Phenobarbital

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22
Q

Which statement about idiosyncratic drug reactions is LEAST accurate?

They are genetically determined reactions

They are unpredictable

They are dose-dependent

Usually caused by reactive drug metabolites

Usually involve the immune system

A

They are dose-dependent

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23
Q

Which of the following anesthetics is MOST likely to cause catecholamine-induced

cardiac arrythmias?

A

Halothane

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24
Q

T/F:

Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy

A

FALSE

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25
T/F: Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives
FALSE
26
T/F: The rate of biotransformation of drugs by hepatic microsomal enzymes depends MAINLY on their lipid solubility
TRUE
27
T/F: The most common biotransformation is oxidation
TRUE
28
T/F: A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction of the receptors
FALSE
29
T/F: If the IV infusion rate is doubled, the plasma concentration ultimately achieved at the steady-state is doubled
TRUE
30
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of acute death in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity? hypertension congestive heart failure cardiac arrythmias respiratory failure dehydration and shock
respiratory failure
31
Which cholinesterase inhibitor may have less systemic adverse effects because of a shorter duration of action?
Edrophonium
32
Which muscle relaxant is MOST likely to cross the **placental barrier**?
Guaifenesin
33
Methylxanthine derivatives cause CNS stimulation mainly by
blocking adenosine receptors
34
All of the following can be used for convulsive seizures in a dog poisoned with **strychnine** EXCEPT: Diazepam Pentobarbital Acepromazine Xylazine Methocarbamol
Acepromazine
35
All of the following are therapeutic uses of **phenothiazine derivatives** EXCEPT: antimotion sickness antihistamines preanesthetics analgesics antiemetics
Analgesics
36
Which of the following CNS depressant drugs has clinically signifcant analgesia? Chloral hydrate Pentobarbital Medetomidine Acepromazine Diazepam
Medetomidine has clinically significant analgesia
37
Duration of analgesia by Xylazine is about
**15 - 30 minutes**
38
Which drug is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in a dog suffering from epilepsy?
Succinylcholine
39
All of the following drugs may increase epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT: Xylazine Thiopental Isoproterenol Ephedrine Droperidol-Fentanyl combination
Droperidol-Fentanyl combination ## Footnote *will not increase epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias*
40
Which of the following drugs is a **selective alpha-1 blocker**? Pirenzepine Phenylpropanolamine (PPA) Prazosin Bretylium Atenolol
Prazosin
41
Which drug is used to stimulate appetite in small animals? Oxymorphone Chlorpromazine Oxazepam Droperidol Scopolamine
Oxazepam
42
Histamine causes bronchoconstriction by stimulating H1-receptors and albuterol causes bronchodilation by stimulating a2 adrenergic receptors therefore, Albuterol is probably a:
physiological antagonist
43
Facilitated diffusion: is energy dependent moves substances against concentration gradients is slower than simple diffusion involves penetration through pores is a carrier-mediated transport
Facilitated diffusion: is a carrier mediated transport *does not require energy*
44
T/F: Dissolution is the rate-limiting step that determines rate of absorption of a solid drug formulation given orally
TRUE
45
T/F: The most common phase II metabolic reaction is conjugation to glucaronic acid
TRUE
46
T/F: For most drugs, the half-life depends on the dose of drug administered
FALSE
47
T/F: A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction of the receptors
FALSE
48
**Neostigmine** can be used in all of the following EXCEPT: Treatment of myasthenia gravis Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis Urinary tract obstruction Rumen atony Antagonizing nondepolarizing muscle relaxants toxicity
Neostigmine DOES NOT work on ## Footnote **urinary tract obstruction**
49
The following drugs may cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT: Norepinephrine Epinephrine Propranalol Isoproterenol Terbutaline
Propranolol
50
Which is LEAST likely an adverse effect of **atropine**? Blurred vision (cycloplegia) Dry mouth Urinary retention Colic in horses Hypotension
Hypotension
51
A *specific antagonist* to **benzodiazepines** is
Flumazenil
52
**Atipamezole** is a
central alpha-2 antagonist
53
Which does NOT aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias during inhalation anesthesia? Xylazine Thiamylal Succinylcholine Isoproterenol Acepromazine
Acepromazine
54
The MOST important adverse effect due to parenteral administration of **phenothiazines** is: Direct tachycardia Nephrotoxicity Histamine release Hypotension Diarrhea
Hypotension ## Footnote *seen with parenteral administration of phenothiazines*
55
**Xylazine** produces all of the following effects EXCEPT: Analgesia Muscle relaxation Emesis Bradycardia Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia
56
In preanesthetic medication, **Glycopyrrolate** is preferred to **Atropine** because **Glycopyrrolate**:
Causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions
57
Which drug is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in an epileptic dog?
Glycopyrrolate
58
Which vasocontrictor drug is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia? Epinephrine Norepinephrine Phenylephrine Ephedrine Pseudoephedrine
Norepinephrine
59
Prazosin is a
**alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist**
60
The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma is called
Clearance
61
T/F: Assuming most drugs have small molecular size, diffusion of free drugs across most capillaries is mainly limited by lipid solubility
FALSE
62
T/F: A drug's volume of distribution is a good indication for the ability of the drug to diffuse across membranes
TRUE
63
Methylxanthines cause CNS stimulation by
Blocking adenosine receptors
64
Phenothiazines uses include all of the following EXCEPT: preanesthetic chemical restraint bronchial asthma motion sickness antiemetic
bronchal asthma
65
All of the following are therapeutic uses of Xylazine EXCEPT: preanesthetic combined with ketamine as anesthetic in dogs and cats muscle relaxant emetic antiepileptic
antiepileptic
66
Atipamezole is a
alpha-2 antagonist
67
A quarternary ammonium compound is expected to:
be excreted in urine mainly unchanged
68
Non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the following adverse effects EXCEPT: Bradycardia Sedation Bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients AV-block Hypertension
Hypertension
69
The drug of choice for treatment of drug-induced sinus bradycardia is
Atropine
70
Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension? succinylcholine pancuronium vecuronium d-tubocurarine
d-tubocurarine
71
T/F: Prescription orders for schedule II drugs must be limited to a 14-day supply and cannot be refilled
FALSE
72
Which of the following is LEAST likely a use for **anticholinergic drugs**? antispasmodic in colic cycloplegic in ophthalmology antimotion sickness antihypertensives antidote for organophosphate poisoning
antihypertensives
73
Which of the following muscle relaxants can increase intraocular pressure? tubocurarine succinylcholine pancuronium vecuronium atracurium
succinylcholine ## Footnote *can increase intraocular pressure*
74
The most common adverse effect due to injection of phenothiazine derivatives is
hypotension
75
Treatment of organophosphate poisoning include the following agents EXCEPT: atropine 2-PAM succinylcholine activated charcoal artificial respiration
succinylcholine ## Footnote *is not used to treat OP poisoning*
76
Which mydriatic anticholinergic drug has the SHORTEST duration of action?
Tropicamide
77
Phenothiazine derivatives cause CNS depression mainly by
blocking dopamine excitatory receptors
78
T/F: Drug conjugates are usually water soluble and inactive
TRUE
79
At therapeutic doses, which of the following CNS depressants are LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular and respiratory depression? Barbiturates Opioid analgesics Phenothiazines Benzodiazepines Butyrophenones
Benzodiazepines
80
All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT: hypertension hyperthyroidism ventricular tachyarrhythmias glaucoma urinary incontinence
urinary incontinence
81
Adverse effects of phenothiazine derivatives include all of the following EXCEPT: bradycardia hypotension penile paralysis in horses sedation GI hypermotility
GI hypermotility
82
Hyperprolactinemia is an adverse effect of:
phenothiazines
83
**All of the following statements about succinylcholine are true EXCEPT:** Its actions on skeletal muscles are similar to the actions of ACh It has a short duration of action It does not cross the BBB It potentiates actions of catecholamines on the heart during inhalation anesthesia Its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine
Its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine
84
**All of the following statements about Xylazine are true EXCEPT:** It has sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant effects It may induce vomiting in dogs and cats As a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias It depresses the CNS by activating presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors It is antagonized with Yohimbine
As a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias
85
All of the following are uses of Epinephrine EXCEPT: acute anaphylactic shock bronchospasm cardiac arrest open-angle glaucoma hemorrhagic shock
hemorrhagic shock
86
Alpha-2 selective agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT: bronchodilation hyperkalemia tachycardia at large doses skeletal muscle tremors uterine relaxation
hyperkalemia
87
Prescriptions for controlled substances in schedule II are limited to a \_\_\_ day supply
**34** day supply limit
88
**All of the matches between a preanesthetic agent and its action are true EXCEPT:** Glycopyrrolate- inhibits salivary secretion Butorphanol- Reduces the MAC of the anesthetic Thiopental- shortens induction Acepromazine- reduces postanesthetic pain Droperidol/Fentanyl- protects against epinephrine-induced cardia arrythmias
Acepromazine- reduces postanesthetic pain
89
**Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT:** sedative hypnotic muscle relaxant analgesic neuroleptic
sedative

Pharmacology 1 Practice Questions (6 decks)

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