test 3 Flashcards by Genesis Diaz

1) A skeletal muscle is composed of a bundle of ________, each composed of many muscle fibers wrapped by connective tissue.

fascicles

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

2) What structure, composed of connective tissue, transmits force from contracting skeletal muscle to bone?

tendons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

3) The contractile portion of the thin filament is composed of what protein?

actin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

4) What is the regulatory protein component of the thin filament that binds to calcium, thereby initiating skeletal muscle contraction?

Troponin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

5) The shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber during contraction involves which of the following?

the sarcomeres shortening

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

6) In order for crossbridge cycling to occur, the actin-myosin complex must be broken by which of the following?

binding of ATP to myosin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

7) The sequence of events that links the muscle’s action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

D) excitation-contraction coupling

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

9) The binding of calcium to troponin will directly allow which of the following?

the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

8) Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by what type of neuron?

D) parasympathetic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

10) What is the function of T tubules?

They conduct action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle cell.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

11) What is a motor unit?

a motor neuron, its axons, and all the muscle fibers it innervates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

12) Which of the following is a property of eccentric skeletal muscle contraction?

Load is greater than the force generated by the muscle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

13) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of specific muscle fiber types

Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

14) As skeletal muscle is further stretched beyond the length where optimum force is developed

B) thin filaments are pulled away from thick filaments, thereby reducing actin’s ability to interact with myosin.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

15) What is an increase in the number of active motor units that would increase the force developed by a skeletal muscle called?

A) recruitment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

16) Which of the following is the correct order of muscle fiber recruitment, from first to last?

A) slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

17) Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of skeletal muscle that would be observed in response to aerobic training?

D) an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

18) When blood moves through the body it travels in a circular pattern. The general pattern of blood flow follows which sequence of vessels as it leaves the heart?

C) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

19) The opening and closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves is driven by

D) differences in pressure across the valve.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

20) The circulatory system consists of two divisions and is supplied with blood by different sides of the heart.
The right heart supplies blood to the _____ circuit, whereas the left heart supplies blood to the ______ circuit.

pulmonary : systemic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Blood supply to the heart comes from

coronary arteries

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary function of the AV and semilunar valves?

to permit blood to flow forward while preventing it from flowing backward

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

23) What structure provides the pathway for the movement of electrical current between the cells of the conduction pathway and the ventricular muscle fibers?

gap junctions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

24) Which of the following is the correct conduction pathway through the heart?

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

25) Which of the following is NOT a part of the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle

Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.

26) The R-R interval is the time between the peaks of two successive QRS complexes and represents

the amount of time between heartbeats

27) What is occurring during ventricular ejection?

The AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as blood is leaving the ventricles

28) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume is the

stroke volume

29) Given end-diastolic volume = 130 mL and end-systolic volume = 65 mL, what is the stroke volume and ejection fraction?

SV = 65 mL, EF = 0.50

30) Cardiac output is determined by what two variables?

heart rate and stroke volume

31) Under resting conditions, heart rate is primarily under the control of what control system?

the parasympathetic nervous system

32) Which of the following would NOT result from an increase in ventricular contractility?

decreased end-diastolic volume

33) What factor would NOT increase the stroke volume?

decreased venous return

34) Which of the following equations correctly relates flow, pressure, and resistance?

pressure = flow × resistance

35) Which of the following would increase the rate of blood flow through a blood vessel?

increased pressure of the blood entering the vessel

36) The elastic nature of the largest blood vessel's walls allows them to act as a ________, maintaining the driving force for blood flow while the heart is relaxed during diastole.

pressure reservoir

37) The blood vessels of largest diameter are the ______, and the medium sized blood vessels are the ______.

38) Resistance to blood flow is regulated primarily by what blood vessels?

arterioles

39) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, fibrin clotting

40) Drugs that block angiotensin-converting enzyme would cause which of the following?

decreased mean arterial pressure

41) ________ describes the movement of fluid out of the capillary, while ________ describes the movement of fluid into the capillary.

Filtration: absorption

42) Under normal conditions, which Starling forces favor filtration?

capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

43) What factor assists venous return to the heart?

valves in the vein the muscle pumps in the legs the respiratory pump the lymphatic system returning interstitial fluid E) all of the above assist venous return

44) ________ are responsible for the detection of mean arterial pressure.

Arterial baroreceptors

45) Which of the following would NOT increase blood pressure

46) Which of the following may cause increased ADH release?

47) Local regulation of some vessels may occur from

48) During heavy exercise the blood flow to muscles may increase up to 20 times above resting levels.

49) Edema may be caused by

high blood pressure decreased plasmsa protein concentration leakage of plasma proteins into the interstitial fluid blockage of the lymphatic vessels E) all of the above

50) Stretch receptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus

serve as baroreceptors that affect vagus and sympathetic nerve activity

51) The final electron acceptor in aerobic cell respiration is ________.

oxygen

52) Anabolic reactions do not ________.

release energy

Glycolysis converts glucose into two ________ molecules.

pyruvic acid

54) To go through glycolysis, ________ ATP per glucose molecule must be "invested" in order to activate the glucose molecule.

two

55) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?

anti-A and anti-B

56) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?

57) Which of the following molecules would be key intermediates or could go several different directions?

A) Pyruvic acid B) Acetyl CoA Choices A and B

58) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________.

1 FADH2, 1 ATP, and 3 NADH

59) The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain system is ________.

oxygen

60) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock?

Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

61) ATP formation in the electron transport system is called ________.

oxidative phosphorylation

62) The opposite process of glycogenesis is ________.

glycogenolysis

63) The Cori cycle converts ________ to pyruvic acid.

lactic acid

64) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure?

Increased arteriolar vasodilation

65) The hydrolysis of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called ________.

lipolysis

66) Beta-oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid will yield ________ acetyl CoA molecules

67) Ketone bodies are produced due to ________.

68) The process in which an amine group is transferred from one amino acid to another is called ________.

transamination

69) Ammonia is produced through the process of ________.

oxidative deamination

70) What type of tissue is especially dependent on adequate plasma glucose levels?

Nervous

71) Anemia is defined as

a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.

72) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is

120 days

73) Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers

gap junctions

Compared to skeletal muscle fibers, the fibers of the heart are depolarized for ___ period of time

a longer

75) The second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below

Semilunar valves opening

76) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?

Medulla oblongata

77) Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles?

T wave

78) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will have these characteristics EXCEPT

higher resting cardiac output

78) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will have these characteristics EXCEPT

higher resting cardiac output

79) Which of the following cells is responsible for inflammatory reactions

80) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?

precapillary sphincters

81) An entire skeletal muscle is composed of bundles of _____, which is surrounded by ____each composed of many muscle fibers wrapped by a(n) ______.

fascicles, perimysium, endomysium

83) The sequence of events that links the muscle's action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

excitation-contraction coupling

A muscle fiber is composed ____ which is composed of many ____?

myofibrils, myofilaments

Which of the following produces the power stroke in muscle contraction?

The release of Pi, and then ADP

What is the state in a skeletal muscle when there is no relaxation is occurring?

tetanus

Which of the following would you NOT find in smooth muscle?

troponin

The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of the same gender and body size is the difference in ________.

physical activity

Metabolic rate can be measured by the ________.

amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body

What is the average energy expenditure for an active man not engaged in heavy manual labor?

2500 kcal/day

If an individual consumes excess calories as carbohydrates, the excess energy is eventually stored as ____.

adipose tissue

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

Vitamin C

Tissue damage by free radicals is prevented to some extent by all of the following EXCEPT _____.

vitamin D

Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called ________.

oxidative stress

The main energy source for the brain is ________.

glucose

Obesity in adults results primarily from adipocyte hypertrophy, rather than hyperplasia. TRUE OR FALSE

True

Which of the following is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation in muscle cells, thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect?

Adiponectin

The risk of cardiovascular disease is increased in someone with ________.

a large waist measure (>40 men, >35 women)

Which condition is NOT found in metabolic syndrome?

Hypotension

Which hormones are involved in long-term regulation of hunger?

Leptin and insulin

What hormone is important in adaptive thermogenesis?

Thyroxine

Lipolysis is increased by ________.

epinephrine growth hormone glucagon D) All of the choices are correct.

Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause ________.

increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles

The thyroid gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT ________.

parathyroid hormone

Which of the following would be favorable to bone deposition?

Increased kidney reabsorption of calcium