Test 3 Flashcards

(134 cards)

1
Q

Where does the alveolar ridge sit in health?

A

1.5 - 2mm apical to the CEJ

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2
Q

What does the aveolar ride look like on a radiograph of the anterior in health?

A

Pointed
Sharp
Very radiopaque

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3
Q

What does the alveolar ridge look like on radiographs of the posterior in health?

A

Flat
Smooth
Parallel to the CEJ
Less radiopaque than anterior

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4
Q

What does the alveolar ridge look like on radiographs in disease?

A

More than 2mm apical to the CEJ
Indistinct

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5
Q

What does the PDL space look like on radiographs?

A

The thin radiolucent line between the tooth and the lamina dura

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6
Q

What does the lamina dura look like on a radiograph?

A

Radiopaque line around the outside of the PDL space

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7
Q

What types of radiographs should you use to diagnose bone loss?

A

PA using paralleling technique (RINN)
Vertical BW for posterior

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8
Q

What type of radiographs should you not use to diagnose bone loss?

A

Any type using the bisecting technique
Horizontal BWs alone

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9
Q

Why don’t you use the bisecting technique for bone loss assessment?

A

Dimesntional distortion due to vertial angulation

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10
Q

Why shouldn’t you use horizontal BW alone to diagnose disease?

A

Limited vision of interproximal bone loss

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11
Q

What areas of bone are difficult to see on radiographs?

A

Buccal and / or lingual
Furcation

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12
Q

What type of bone loss is parallel to the CEJ?

A

Horizontal

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13
Q

What type of bone loss is not parallel to the CEJ?

A

Vertical / angular

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14
Q

What early signs can indicate bone change?

A

Fuzziness at the crest
Widened PDL space
Finger-like radiolucent projections

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15
Q

What are the predisposing factors to periodontal disease?

A

Calculus
Overhangs
Inadequate / uneven margins
Open / loose contacts
Poor contour

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16
Q

How do overhangs contribute to periodontal disease?

A

Food / bacteria gets trapped

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17
Q

What does calculus look like on radiographs?

A

Pointed, irregulat radiopaque projections
Nodular radiopaque projections
Smooth radiopacity

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18
Q

What is a one wall bony defect?

A

One wall remaining

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19
Q

What is a two wall bony defect?

A

Two walls remaining

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20
Q

What is a two wall bony defect also known as?

A

Osseous crater

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21
Q

What is a three wall bony defect?

A

Three walls remaining

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22
Q

What is a four wall bony defect?

A

Circumferential defect surrounds the tooth, no wall remaining

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23
Q

What type of radiograph is used to diagnose mandibular fractures?

A

Panoramic

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24
Q

What are the signs of a fracture on a radiograph?

A

Sharpe defined radiolucent lines within the bone
Change in anatomic outline
Asymmetrical mandible
Loss of continuity of outer border
Increase in radiopacity due to overlapping of fragments

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25
Horizontal fractures can be directionally
Horizontal or oblique
26
Where are horizontal fractures more common?
Maxillary centrals
27
What causes a horizontal fracture?
Direct application of force
28
What type of fracture is lengthwise from the crown to the apex?
Vertical fracture
29
True or False: vertical fractures are usually through facial and lingual surfaces
True
30
Where are vertical fractures more common?
With molars
31
What is a tooth concussion?
When a tooth has been hit but not knocked out or broken
32
Symptoms of tooth concussions
Crush injury Inflammatory edema results No displacement Minimal loosening Widening of the PDL space
33
True to False: Tooth concussion can cause minor avulsion resulting in premature tooth contact.
True
34
What is a long term effect of tooth concussion?
Pulp chamber size changes
35
What is a dislocation of a tooth from it's socket but is still present in the mouth?
Luxation
36
Symptoms of tooth luxation
Abnormally mobile teeth due to severing of the PDL attachment Apical portion of the PDL space is widened
37
In which teeth is luxation most common?
Central incisors
38
What is tooth displacement into the alveolar process?
Intrusive luxation
39
What is partial displacement externally?
Extrusive luxation
40
What is the movement of a tooth other than intrusive or extrusive?
Lateral luxation
41
What is the complete displacement of a tooth?
Avulsion
42
What is the number one cause for permanent tooth loss?
Fights
43
What is the number one cause for primary tooth loss?
Falls
44
What teeth are most commonly lost through avulsion?
Maxillary centrals
45
What is the process of reimplantation dependent on?
Condition of the tooth outisde the mouth Time spent outside the mouth Viability of the residual PDL
46
Will endodontic therapy be needed on a reimplanted avulsed tooth?
Possibly
47
What is physiological resorption?
Roots of primary teeth are resorbed as permanent teeth move in
48
What is pathological resporption?
Roots are resorbed due to regressive alteration of tooth structure under abnormal stimuli.
49
Where does external resporption occur?
Along the periphery of the root surface, at the apex
50
What is external resorption often associated with?
Reimplanted teeth Impacted teeth Trauma Chronic inflammation
51
What does a tooth with external resporption look like on a radiograph?
Blunted apex Shortened length
52
Where does internal resorption occur?
Within the root and / or crown
53
What tooth structures are involved with interal root resporption?
Pulp Dentin
54
What causes internal root resorption?
Trauma Pulp capping Pulp polyps
55
How does internal resorption appear on a radiograph?
Round / oval radiolucency
56
What is the treatment for external resorption?
None
57
What is the treatment for internal resorption?
Extraction if tooth is weakened Endo if the tooth is not weakened
58
What is pulpal sclerosis?
Diffused, calcification of the pulp chamber and canals
59
True or False: pulpal sclerosis causes an increase in canal size
False. Pulpal sclerosis causes a decease in canal size
60
What is pulpal obliteration?
The tooth does not have a pulp chamber or canals due to the formation of secondary dentin
61
Is a tooth with pulpal obliteration vital or non-vital?
Non-vital
62
What are round / ovoid / cylindrical calcifications within the pulp chamber?
Pulp stones
63
Do pulp stones cause the person any problems?
No
64
What are common periapical radiolucencies?
Granulomas Cysts Abscesses
65
What is a localized mass of chronically inflammed granulation tissue?
Periapical granuloma
66
Is a tooth with a periapical granuloma vital or non-vital?
Non-vital
67
What causes periapical granuloma?
Pulpal necrosis
68
What commonly follows pulpitis?
Periapical granuloma
69
True or False: periapical granulomas are asymptomatic but the clients commonly have a history of sensitivity to sweets
False. Periapical granulomas are asymptomatic but the clients commonly have a history of sensitivity to temperature
70
What is the appearance of a periapical granuloma on radiographs?
Widened PDL space at the apex that enlarges with time No lamina dura
71
What is a periapical cyst also known as?
Radicular cyst
72
What are periapical cysts caused by?
Pulpal necrosis
73
True or False: periapical cysts are the most common.
True
74
Are periapical cysts symptomatic or asymptomatic?
Asymptomatic
75
What is the appearance of a periapical cyst on a radiograph?
Similar to a periapical granuloma but has a lamina dura
76
What is an infection in the pulp of a tooth, causing a collection of pus a the apex?
Periapical abscess
77
What are the characteristics of an acute periapical abscess?
Painful Non-vital tooth No change in the PDL space widening
78
What are the characteristics of a chronic periapical abscess?
Asymptomatic due to draining Appears round / ovoid with poorly defined margins and no lamina dura on an x-ray
79
What is a periodontal abscess?
A bacterial infection within the walls that results from a pre-existing periodontal condition
80
Characteristics of a peridontal abscess?
Painful Rapidly progressing Destruction
81
What is the treatment of a periodontal abscess
Scaling
82
Conditions that appear as periapical radiopacities?
Condensing osteitis Sclerotic bone Hypercementosis
83
What is condensing osteitis?
Well-defined radiopacity that is apical to the apex of a non-vital tooth from a proliferation of periapical bone in response to pulpal necrosis
84
Does condensing osteitis appear attached to the root on a radiograph?
No
85
What is the most common radiopacity?
Condensing osteitis
86
Where is condensing osteitis most commonly found?
Mandibular first molars
87
Where else is condensing osteitis commonly found?
Teeth with large carious lesions or restorations
88
What does sclerotic bone look like in a radiograph?
Well-defined radiopacity apical of vital, non-carious teeth
89
True or False: sclerotic bone is idiopathic
True
90
Is sclerotic bone associtated with inflammation?
No
91
Is sclerotic bone attached to the tooth?
No
92
Is scelrotic bone symptomatic or asymptomatic?
Asymptomatic
93
What is extra deposition of cementum on all surfaces of the root?
Hypercementosis
94
What causes hypercementosis?
Supra-eruption Inflammation Trauma
95
True or False: hypercementosis is large and bulbous.
True
96
What is the law?
A system of rules
97
What are statutes?
Laws passed by legislature (Acts)
98
What are regulations?
Rules that set out to detail the practical application made under the authority of statutes
99
What are moral principals that govern behaviour?
Ethics
100
What governs hygienists?
HARP RHPA DHA
101
What does HARP govern for hygienists?
Safety involving the use of x-rays
102
How does the RHPA govern hygienists?
Outlines controlled acts
103
How does the DHA govern hygienists?
Under the RHPA that dictates the scope of practice and authorized acts
104
What are the five ethical principles?
Beneficence Autonomy Privacy and confidentiality Accountability Professionalism
105
What is beneficence?
Promoting the good of another
106
What is autonomy?
The right to make decisions
107
What is privacy and confidentiality?
Controlling the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information and the right to expect that information is kept secure
108
What is accountability?
Answering for one's actions
109
What is professionalism?
Commitment to use and advance skills and knowledge. As well as being honest, competent, and fair
110
What are DH examples of benefience?
Scaling effectively / completely Education
111
What are DH examples of autonomy?
Informed consent Involvement in treatment planning
112
What is DH example of privacy and confidentiality?
Not sharing any information
113
What are DH examples of accountability?
Meeting clients' needs Infection control
114
What are DH examples of professionalism?
Client-centered care QA program Continuing education
115
What is providing high-quality services every time called?
Competence
116
What is truthful in actions and statements?
Honesty
117
What happens if legal obligations are not followed?
Legal action, fines, or imprisonment
118
What is fairness?
Balancing competing interests
119
What happens legally when violating ethical principles?
May or may not have legal consequences
120
What is the failure to meet the bare minimum of legal requirements?
Professional misconduct
121
What follows professional misconduct?
Disciplinary proceedings
122
What is an ethical dilemma?
When two or more eithical principles are in conflict
123
What are the decision-making model steps?
1. Identify the problem 2. Gather information 3. Clarify the problem 4. Identify options 5. Assess options 6. Choose an option 7. Implement option 8. Evaluate outcome (consequences and benefits)
124
True or False: DH are mandatory sexual abuse reporters.
True
125
What can failure to report sexual abuse lead to?
Severe penalties
126
When must a report of suspected sexual abuse be reported?
Within 30 days
127
True or False: if the client does not want you to report, you still have to and it is not a breach of confidentiality.
True
128
Sexual abuse in inacteractions with clients include
Sexual relations Touching of a sexual nature Behaviour / remarks of a sexual nature Treatment of someone you have been intimate with
129
What happens to a hygienist guilty of sexual abuse of a client?
Mandatory penalty and removal of certificate
130
Who is a client?
A person receiving services from the registrant Person who has has an entry in their health record by the registrant Person who consented to a service provided by the registrant Had a drug prescribed to them by the registrant
131
When is a person no longer considered a client?
If one full year has passed
132
When of the treatment of spouses allowed?
Person is defined by the Family Law Act (married) Person has lived with the registrant outside of marriage continuously for 3 year or more (common law) The treatment is an emergency situation
133
How to maintain firm boundaries with clients
Avoid sexual behaviour and put a stop to it Avoid misinterpretation Do not comment on body or sex life Never date a client Do not treat spouses / partners Detect and deflect emotionally attached clients
134
What does the Child, Youth, and Family Services Act dictate?
Responsibility for the welfare of children Mandatory report for anyone under the age of 16