Test 3 Intro To Disease/CPR Flashcards
(307 cards)
1
Q
What is the definition of shock?
A
Poor blood delivery to vital organs
2
Q
What is the code that is used in hospitals when a patient crashes? Also known as the emergency code
A
Code blue is the emergency code
3
Q
For a sonographer, recognizing the need for _______is the first critical step.
A
Assistance
4
Q
Sonographers should be able to recognize signs of shock or any abnormal change in the patient’s status, true or false?
A
True
5
Q
When the sonographer recognizes a patient is deteriorating he or she should call________. Their extension in the hospital should be memorized.
A
MERT
6
Q
When the sonographer calls the above people, he or she should inform them of their location and the patient’s symptoms, true or false?
A
True
7
Q
When they arrive, the sonographer should inform them of the location of the ________cart.
A
Crash cart
8
Q
While waiting for the above people the sonographers should entertain the patient true or false?
A
False. The sonographer should be able to offer first aide take vital signs do CPR and reassure the patient
9
Q
While waiting for mart, the sonographer should assist in all possible ways and take vital signs on the patient true or false
A
True
10
Q
If the patient started experiencing chest pain while you were doing the exam, this could be an indication of______
A
PE,MI, or Angina. either way, stop the exam and assess. If need be, put up the bed rails and go call the emergency response team.
11
Q
If the patient started experiencing slurred speech while you were scanning, this might be indicative of________
A
Reduced blood to the brain, or stroke
12
Q
If the patient started experiencing dyspnea while you were scanning, you should stop the test, call______,and administer _______.
A
MERT
oxygen
13
Q
If the patient started vomiting while you were scanning, you should stop the scan and roll the patient ________, or get them into _______so he or she does not aspirate.
A
left or right lateral decubitus if they are laying down supine
Fowler if they are semi recumbent
14
Q
If the patient told you he or she is feeling nauseated, you should instruct the patient to breathe_______. Have the ________ready in case they vomit, and put that have them put a _______on the face
A
Slowly and deeply through the mouth
Emesis basin
Moist cloth
15
Q
If the patient told you they feel they might be having a seizure, you should help them lay on the ground, remove harmful objects him around the patient, loosen tight clothing,cushion the patient’s head, and do not attempt to restrain the patient, true or false
A
True
16
Q
If the patient started having convulsions while you were scanning, you should stop the test, raise the roof side rails of the bed, loosen tight clothing, cushion the patient’s head, and do not attempt to restrain the patient true or false
A
True
17
Q
Mini stroke is called______. This stands for_______.
A
TIA
transient ischemic attack
18
Q
The other name for stroke is______.This stands for______.
A
CVA
cardio vascular accident
19
Q
Stroke results from either stenosis of the carotid artery he or bleeding in the brain, true or false?
A
True
20
Q
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stroke and call MERT true or false
A
True- stroke is a life-threatening situation
21
Q
If someone is bleeding externally, you can stop the bleeding by__________.
A
Applying pressure to the artery supplying the area proximal to the injury
22
Q
Crash cart or code cart in the department is usually placed in a specific location so that everyone knows where it is located. When paramedics or medical emergency response team arrives, you can tell them where it is located or you can bring it to them depending on the departments policy what does the crash cart contain?
A
A defibrillator epinephrine atropine amidarone
23
Q
A patient who is unconscious is reactive only to painful stimuli, true or false?
A
True
24
Q
After a head injury, symptoms might progress slowly, so if the patient becomes progressively incoherent, drowsy, irritable, and stuporous these are signs of _________due to bleeding after the head trauma.
A
Intracranial pressure
25
If a stroke happens due to stenosis whether by plaque or embolus it is called ischemic stroke true or false
True
26
If the stroke happened to rupture of the cerebral artery or rupture of a cerebral aneurysm it is called hemorrhagic stroke, true or false?
True
27
The emergency medical response team's responsibility is to administer fluids to the shock patient, administer medications, insert in arterial line, perform into Bashan on the patient if there is a need to, and put him or her on a ventilator true or false?
True
28
The safest position for a patient who is unconscious is _____because of the accumulation of _____or ______or _______which will compromise the________.The airway may also be compromised by the _______falling backward, preventing air exchange.
```
Lateral decube
saliva
blood
vomitus
patient's airway
tongue
```
29
Plaque in the carotid artery he usually happens due to Atherosclerotic changes in the carotid artery true or false
True
30
What are the signs and symptoms of stroke?
```
Altered mental state and consciousness.
Unilateral numbness
Pupil dilation or blurred vision
Dysphasia
Dysphagia
Incontinence
Headache
Nausea and vomiting
```
31
Diabetic keto acidosis is a condition resulting from__________.
Type one diabetes, high glucose and metabolic acidosis
32
Shock is fatal if not treated, true or false?
True
33
Keto acidosis happens in more patients with type two diabetes true or false
False ketoacidosis happens more in patients with type one diabetes
34
Fasting glucose level is normal what it is between__________.
70-100mg/dl
35
When blood glucose exceeds________, it starts appearing in the urine.
180
36
Insulin is secreted by _______,located in the_______
Islets of langerhanz
Tail of the pancreas
37
The term used for description of above normal glucose level is hypoglycemia, true or false
False hypoglycemia refers to below normal glucose level
38
What is the most serious complication of diabetes?
Death. But this is due to higher incidence of retinopathy, myocardial infarction, strokes, PAD, & infections
39
Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to coma and death if not treated, true or false?
True
40
In all shocks, including septic shock, patients have cold skin true or false?
False. Septic shock is known as warm shock
41
Ketoacidosis happens when muscles cannot use glucose, so the liver breaks down________, forming Keytone bodies
Fatty acids
42
If the diabetic patient started having dry mucosa, rapid and deep breathing, headaches, drowsiness, and confusion abdominal pain nausea and vomiting and _______ all of these are signs and symptoms of impending diabetic coma
Fruity breath
43
Diabetes type one is the non-insulin-dependent diabetes true or false
False type one diabetes is insulin dependent
44
Type two diabetes happens mostly in children, true or false?
False type two diabetes happens mainly in adults. Children experience mainly type one diabetes, all the numbers of type two diabetes are rising due to the rise in obesity
45
Just stational diabetes is usually treated with diet and insulin, not with hypoglycemic drugs do to their effects on the fetus – true or false?
True
46
Diabetics must adhere to the doctors instructions in regards to their medications and meals timing, so that they do not develop hypoglycemia – true or false?
True
47
Diabetics who are going to have an abdomen a ultrasound study and they were requested to be NPO for 6 to 7 hours might develop__________.
Hypoglycemia
48
What should you do if a diabetic patient who has been NPO for several hours mentioned to you that he or she is getting headache nausea or dizziness?
Supply quick carbohydrates 3 tablespoons of sugar in juice or water.
49
Type two diabetes is treated with diet, exercise, hypoglycemic agents, or even insulin true or false?
True
50
Type one diabetes is treated with insulin true or false?
True
51
Symptoms of hypoglycemia are:
```
Headache
nausea
slurred speech
seizure
shock
coma
```
52
Symptoms of hyperglycemia are:
```
Poly urea
polydipsia
WeightLoss
Fatigue
bacterial or fungal infections
```
53
If a diabetic patient started showing Tim Tim's of hypoglycemia, the best management is to add miniature orange juice and have the patient rest true or false?
True
54
Never leave a patient with deteriorated level of consciousness unattended, true or false?
True
55
Always raise the bed side rails when you leave the patient alone to review the images with the radiologist etc, true or false?
True
56
Always raise the side bed rail on the opposite side from where you are scanning true or false?
True
57
General signs and symptoms of shock include: tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, altered mental status – true or false?
True
58
In septic shock, ________are chemicals that are considered part of the immune response. They are secreted in response to the presence of bacteria. The increase the capillary permeability and vasodilation.
Cytokines
59
Make sure the bedside rails her up when the patient's level of consciousness is changed true or false?
True
60
What does PAD stand for?
Peripheral arterial disease
61
If the patient's level of consciousness deteriorated quickly, and he or she lost their consciousness you have palpitated the carotid artery's and there is no pulse then you should start________.
CPR
62
In emergency situations, it is imperative that the sonographer act fast, work competently under pressure, speak calmly, and provide emotional support true or false?
True
63
What type of shock is caused by severe allergic reaction to radiographic contrast
Anaphylactic shock, or allergic shock a type of vasodilatory shock is the shock caused by allergic reaction's
64
When you start working at a hospital, you have to know where the _________card is located in the department.
Crash
65
The most recent recommendation of the American Heart Association is that _________should be the first step when resuscitating a person with cardiac arrest.
CPR
66
CPR stands for
Cardiopulmonary ressutation
67
CPR Follows the acronym
A-airway
C- compressions
B-breaths
68
When you start working at a hospital you have to know how to administer oxygen from the wall outlet or from the oxygen tank using nasal cannula true or false?
False – we will know how to do it however it is not necessary
69
When you start working at a hospital, you have to know how to use the secretion suction, whether it was a wall outlet suction or a vacuum container, true or false?
Balls, we will know how to do it however it is not necessary
70
What are the four levels of consciousness?
Alert and conscious drowsy but responsive unconscious
| comatose
71
The very young and very old are more susceptible to have a septic shock than the general population, true or false?
True
72
Young girls might develop septic shock due to improper use of______.
Tampons
73
Septic shock can lead to septicemia and that true or false?
True
74
Clot in the deep venous system is called ______which stands for______.
Dvt
| Deep vein thrombosis
75
If a patient looks as if he or she is fainting, the most important thing to do is to assist them to a safe position true or false
True
76
All these signs and symptoms are of a patient who is painting sweating dizziness feeling warm true or false
True
77
Mention the five types of shock
```
Hypovolemic
Vasodilatory A-septic
B-anaphylactic
Cardiogenic shock
Obstructive shock
```
78
A patient who is comatose can react to painful stimuli only true or false
False – a patient who is comatose does not respond to ANY stimuli
79
A patient who is drowsy but responsive can respond to fully to all of your questions even if you whisper to him or her, true or false
False. patient who is drowsy but responsive will not originally respond to whispered conversation, but will show increasing responsiveness with normal conversational volume levels.
80
Possible complications of seizures are respiratory distress aspiration physical trauma true or false
True
81
What does PE stand for
Pulmonary embolus
| Pleural effusion
82
History of artificial joint or valve is a risk for septic shock, true or false?
True
83
After an episode of seizure, patient may vomit, so make sure to place the patient in_____.
Lateral decubitus
84
After an episode of seizure, the patient is usually disoriented, so your role is to give emotional support and direct the patient where he or she needs to go true or false?
True
85
Diabetes is a disease characterized by the inability to metabolize____.
Glucose
86
Concussion is
Concussion is a brief loss of consciousness after a trauma
87
Hypovolemic shock is considered hot shock because the body tries to shift most blood from non-vital organs such as the skin and extremities to the vital organs such as brain heart kidneys and liver. True or false
False. Although in hypovolemic shock the body does try to shift blood to the vital organs such as the brain heart kidneys and liver it is known as cold shock. Septic shock is considered hot shock
88
People who have appendicitis might have the appendix rupture, this puts them at a higher risk for____ shock.
Septic shock, a type of vasodilatory shock
89
Hypovolemic shock can happen only when there is loss of blood internally or extern only true or false
False. hypovolemic shock can occur with the loss of plasma or through dehydration
90
Mention four causes of hypovolemic shock
Hemorrhage
lacerations
vomiting
diarrhea
91
Men who have been nine prostatic hypertrophy he and have a urinary catheter for a long time already higher risk of dying of septic shock true or false
True
92
Burns can cause cardiogenic shock, true or false
False burns can cause hypovolemic shock due to loss of plasma
93
Mention three examples of hypovolemic shock that occurred due to loss of fluids-not blood
Burns – plasma
Diarrhea – dehydration
Vomiting – dehydration
94
With hypovolemic shock, there is less fluid in the circulatory system, so ___drops and _______organs don't get the blood they need to function properly, which leads to shock
BP
| Vital
95
Motor vehicle accidents or rough sport can cause organ laceration or rupture. This leads to internal ________which leads to_______.
Bleeding
| hypovolemic shock
96
There are two types of vasodilatory shock. Name both
Septic shock and anaphylactic shock
97
In vasodilatory shock, blood vessels dilate, so ______drops leading to in adequate blood to vital organs which leads to shock.
Bp
98
Mention seven risk factors for septic shock
```
Drug use
aids
surgery
use of tampons
artificial joint/heart valve
diabetes
indwelling catheters
```
99
What type of shock is caused by loss of either blood volume or plasma?
Hypovolemic shock
100
History of surgery and abortions are risk factors for septic shock true or false?
True
101
Septic shock's most positive organisms are
Gram-negative bacteria
102
In treating patients with shock, large amounts of fluids are administered. oxygen administration, possible intubation, and mechanical ventilation may be needed, & in case of septic shock antibiotics are given. true or false
True
103
All allergic reaction's develop into anaphylactic shock true or false
False-Not all allergic reaction's develop into anaphylactic shock.
104
In case of an allergic reaction, patients benefit from these medications
Benadryl
| EpiPen
105
When the patient starts experiencing dyspnea dysphasia and changing their voice, this means that they have to go to the ER. They can benefit from injecting them selves with an____. This is helpful in saving the patient until he or she reaches a hospital where they can get treated.
EpiPen
106
When the patient who is allergic to a specific material starts having dyspnea, Strider, wheezing, horse voice this means the patient is having signs and symptoms of:
An allergic reaction
107
Allergic reaction symptoms may include sneezing rhinorrhea swollen lips and eyes hives true or false
True
108
In order to avoid an allergic reaction you should check the patient's chart for allergy usually it shows up in red on the electronic chart. Also, ask the patient if he or she is allergic to latex or any other material true or false
True
109
What is cardiac Tamponade
The rabbit accumulation of fluid in the pericardium it restricts normal cardiac function
110
Patients who have had septic shock might develop skin peeling on their palms or on the soles of their feet 1 to 2 weeks after which resembles a rash true or false
True
111
What is cardiogenic shock?
A condition where he suddenly we can heart isn't able to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands
112
What are two causes of cardiogenic shock
Acute myocardial infarction
| Cardiac Tamponade
113
What are two causes of obstructive shock?
Pulmonary embolism tension pneumothorax
114
Which type of seizure is more common in children?
Petite mal seizures are more common in children
115
Seizures are a symptom rather than a disease true or false
True
116
_______ is the sensation that precedes the onset of epilepsy or migraine
Aura
117
When the kidney is not functioning well due to shock this translates to lower urinary output, true or false?
True
118
MI stands for
Myocardial infarction
119
Angina is chest pain that accompanies lack of blood supply to the heart due to atherosclerosis in the coronary artery he or spasm in the coronary artery, true or false?
True
120
Myocardial infarction is when a portion of the heart dies due to prolonged to lack of blood supply to that portion true or false?
True
121
People who have angina might benefit from nitroglycerin pill place under the tongue, or chewing an aspirin true or false?
True- if the angina is stable angina
122
How do you describe the pain of someone who is having a heart attack?
Squeezing
pressure
heaviness
123
What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?
Stable angina occurs when the heart works harder.
| Unstable angina is a medical emergency and symptom of myocardial infarction
124
The most common complication of mile cardio infarction is CHF which stands for
Congestive heart failure
125
People who have cardiogenic shock might have ________which is a serious type of arrhythmia
Ventricular fibrillation
126
Seizures are a symptom of many conditions – for example, epilepsy brain tumor, encephalitis, post natal trauma congenital malformation and electrolyte balance true or false
True
127
What are the three main types of seizures?
Partial/ focal
Petit mal/ absence seizure
Grand mal/ tonic-clonic
128
Tension pneumothorax means:
Rapid accumulation of pericardial fluid
129
Tension pneumothorax is life-threatening true or false
True
130
During a simple partial seizure the patient may retain consciousness true or false?
True
131
The other name for petite mal is:
Absence seizure
132
Symptoms of petite mall or absence seizure are sudden brief loss of consciousness, I flutter with loss of focus, blank expression true or false?
True
133
Grand mal seizures are very obvious true or false
True
134
Grand mall seizures have two stages_______ and______
Tonic
Clonic
135
_________ is the term used when bacteria is present in the blood
Septicemia
136
During the first stage of grand mall seizures, the patient loses ________and the muscles suddenly contract-causing the person to ___________with rigid body, fixture, clenched hands, and extended legs.
Consciousness
fall down
137
During the second phase of grand mal seizures the muscles go into rhythmic contractions, alternating _______and_______.
Flexing tonic
Relaxing clonic
138
Other symptoms that can accompany grand mal seizures are:
Frothing at the mouth
biting the tongue
urinary or fecal incontinence
139
DVT is a medical emergency true or false?
True
140
PE leads to hypoxemia which is a life-threatening condition true or false
True
141
DVT's most serious complication is________.
Pulmonary embolus which leads to hypoxemia and stroke
142
People who are on drugs are at higher risk for developing septic shock than others true or false?
True
143
In all shocks, blood vessels constrict-except in ________and _______where blood vessels dilate.
Anaphylactic and septic shock
144
In cardiogenic shock, blood pressure drops because the heart contractibility is compromised, true or false?
True
145
And septic and anaphylactic shock blood pressure drops because the blood vessels dilate true or false
True
146
In hypovolemic shock, blood pressure drops because there's not enough volume in the blood vessels true or false?
True
147
Bacterial endotoxins are responsible for septic shock true or false?
True
148
Besides chest pain dyspnea, hypotension, hemoptysis is one of the symptoms of PE true or false?
True it is one of the distinct symptoms of PE
149
__________ therapy is used in cases of heart attack and pulmonary embolism
Thrombolytic
150
Most hospitals use latex blue gloves nowadays true or false
True
151
However not all sterile gloves are late text free true or false
True
152
Before procedures, for example ultrasound guided biopsy he, ask the patient if he or she is on blood thinners true or false?
True
153
Before procedures, ask the patient if he or she is allergic to anything, true or false?
True
154
Vertigo means
Dizziness
155
Syncope means
Fainting
156
Signs and symptoms of fainting include dizziness feeling warm sweating hypotension and maybe come on conscious true or false
True
157
CPR is most beneficial if performed within 10 seconds of cardiac arrest, true or false
True – the sooner the better
158
Brain damage can occur after _____minutes of cardiac arrest
2
159
Death can occur after _______minutes of cardiac arrest
8-10
160
CPR is performed even if the patient is DNR true or false
False if the patient is DNR it means do not resuscitate
161
What does DNR stand for
Do not resuscitate
162
Punctured lungs, lacerated liver, fractured ribs might happen if CPR was not performed correctly, true or false?
True
163
You can perform CPR on the mattress true or false?
False you must perform CPR against a hard surface like the floor
164
CPR is cycles of _____and________
30 compressions
| 2 breaths
165
If you are alone and have access to a telephone, call 911 before you begin CPR true or false?
True
166
The acronym used by the American heart Association for CPR is_____
CAB
Compressions
Airway
Breathing
167
In order for compressions to be effective, you have to push on the chest at least 5 inches true or false
False it needs to be 2 inches or 5 cm
168
The number of compressions is ________
30
169
The rate of compressions should be about 100 compressions per minute true or false
True according to the video, however the American Heart Association is now recommending 120 compressions per minute.
170
Giving enough time for_______ is very important, as it means the blood is allowed to fly back to the heart.
Recoil
171
Chest compressions and ________time should be equal
Recoil time
172
Arm should be bent when you are performing compressions, true or false?
False the arms should be straight when performing compressions
173
Your shoulders should be at the level of your hands when you were doing compressions true or false?
Falls the shoulders should be as far away from the hands as possible- as the arms are kept straight
174
The rule used to maintain open airways is head______,chin_________.
Tilt
lift
175
Checking if the patient is breathing should not take more than 5 to 10 seconds during CPR because the priority is for compressions true or false?
True
176
When you're doing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should pinch the nostril shot true or false?
True
177
_________Breaths are given after you perform 30 compressions
2
178
When you give breath to the patient whether it is mouth to mouth or with Ambu bag make sure the patient's chest is________.
Rising
179
___________ are available to prevent direct contact with the patient's mouth during CPR. When they are used make sure that they form a _________over the patient's nose and mouth
Barrier methods
tight seal
180
If the person has not begun moving after ______cycles of CPR, administer_________ using________.
Five
shock
AED
181
CPR can be performed on adults, children, and infants, true or false
True
182
What is a syndrome
A syndrome is a collection of signs and symptoms often affecting more than one organ and characterize a particular disease
183
Scleroderma is one of the degenerative diseases true or false?
True
184
What is etiology?
Study of all factors causing a disease
185
This Bestos exposure has been linked to ________,which is a malignant cancer of the_________.
Mesothelioma
| lungs
186
When treatment, or a procedure causes a disease or condition, this is called_________.
Itrogenic
187
Disease of undetermined cause is called
Idiopathic
188
In acute disease, the body recovers it tell me a stasis quickly, true or false?
True
189
Ultraviolet radiation exposure increases the chance of__________.
Skin cancer
190
What is pathophysiology?
Pathophysiology is the physical process associated with the disease
191
What is pathogenesis?
Pathogenesis indicates the changes in the tissue affected by the disease
192
What is epidemic?
An epidemic is an outbreak of disease spreading through one or more populations at a time
193
Antioxidant such as vitamins a CE beta-carotene might slow the process of aging by preventing _________from oxidizing sensitive biological molecules or reducing their formation
Free radicals
194
Mention seven diseases that are more associated with aging
```
Diabetes type two
cancer
increased blood pressure benign prostatic hypertrophy
Atherosclerosis
osteoporosis
hearing loss
```
195
Mentioned seven diseases that are more common in adolescence
```
Obesity
eating disorders mononucleosis
spinal curvatures
testicular cancer
chromosomal abnormality's
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
```
196
What are the four signs and symptoms of inflammation
Redness
pain
Warmth
swelling
197
Acne vulgaris and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are more common in the elderly then in adolescence true or false
False
198
What is epidemiology?
Epidemiology is the study of the occurrence, distribution, and transmission of diseases in humans
199
Communicable diseases I diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another, true or false
True
200
Cushing's Marphran's downs
turner
Klinefelter's are all___________
Congenital genetic syndromes
201
Kwashiorkor is deficiency in protein intake true or false
True
202
Skin problem is a benign growth caused by a human papilloma virus true or false?
True
203
What are the two major organizations responsible for disease data collection?
The WHO
the CDC
204
Exposure to specific dyes increases the likelihood of_________
Bladder cancer. The dyes are called tannins
205
Ebola is an endemic epidemic or pandemic?
Ebola is an epidemic
206
__________ is the most common type of bladder cancer.
Urethral carcinoma
207
Mention five benign tumors that arise from connective tissue
```
Lipoma
osteoma
chondroma
fibroma
hemangioma
```
208
What is apoptosis
Predetermined cell death in its genes
209
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is more common in men less than 50 years old, true or false?
False benign prostatic hypertrophy is more common in men over 50 years old
210
What is a pandemic
A pandemic is an epidemic affecting large geographical regions
211
Scoliosis and lordosis are more common in children less than eight years old true or false
True- scoliosis and lordosis are more common in juveniles
212
What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
Incidence indicates the number of new cases associated with a particular population within a given time.
Prevalence is the number of new and old cases within a population and within a time.
213
Patients with acne who are treated with radiation in the past developed _______cancer.
Thyroid
214
Alzheimer's and Parkinson's disease are auto immune diseases true or false?
False
215
Mention five sarcomas
```
Sarcomas-cancer that originates in fat or bone tissue. examples are: osteosarcoma
liposarcoma
fibrosarcoma
leiomyosarcoma
chondrosarcoma
```
216
Mention four types of cancer that arise from the epithelial tissue
Cancers that arise from epithelial tissue are known as carcinomas.
examples are:
basal or Squamus cell carcinoma melanoma
adenocarcinoma
large or small cell carcinoma of the lung
217
Mention five types of adenocarcinoma
```
Adenocarcinoma is cancer that arises from glandular epithelium tissue.
Examples are:
Lung
breast
pancreatic
ovarian
Colon
```
218
Cancer that arises from the glandular epithelium is called_________
Adenocarcinoma
219
What is endemic
An endemic is a disease native to a local region
220
Lyme disease is epidemic in southern Maine true or false?
False. Lyme disease is endemic to southern Maine- meaning native.
221
Marasmus is severe weight loss true or false?
True
222
Mesothelioma is a benign disease true or false?
False mesothelioma is a deadly disease of the lungs
223
What is remission?
Remission is a time during a serious illness or a patient's health improves should remission become permanent it is said the patient has been cured
224
Carcinoma is malignant tumor arising from epithelial tissue true or false
True
225
What is prognosis?
The probability or likelihood of recovery or a good outcome
226
What is the difference between morbidity and mortality?
Were but he indicates disease rates within a group.
| Mortality indicates relative number of deaths for a particular disease with in a group
227
Benign tumors do not spread, they grow slowly, and their cells are very well differentiated true or false?
True
228
Benign tumor of the brain or the heart can be fatal because it disrupts the normal function of a vital organ true or false?
True
229
Sir, is malignant tumor arising from the connective tissue, true or false?
True
230
What does the term complications mean?
Complications means new or secondary additional problems that arise after the original disease
231
Malignant tumors can metastasize through ______or _______to distant organs
The lymphatic system
| Blood cells
232
When malignant tumors spread to adjacent tissue this is called________
Invasion- metastasis
233
Infection always involves inflammation true or false?
True
234
Inflammation always involves infection true or false?
False information does not always involve infection however infection always involves inflammation
235
Mention five examples of screening tests that are used as tools prevention of disease
```
Pap smears
Breast self exam
Mammograms
Prostate exam
PSA numbers
```
236
Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause________ in the cell's DNA – causing gene mutations, cancer or death of cells. That's why _________women can't have x-ray, CT, or mammogram done.
Ionization
| Pregnant
237
The decreased _______of cervical cancer is due to the human papilloma virus vaccination and to Pap smear tests
Incidence
238
Single gene disorders follow up Mendelian inheritance patterns, true or false?
True
239
What are the three skin cancers that might develop from long periods of exposure to sunlight or to tanning lamps or beds?
Basal or
Squamous cell skin carcinoma's
Melanoma
240
AIDS patients are at a risk of developing_______ sarcoma.
Karposi
241
What is mortality?
the number of deaths in a population from a particular disease
242
People who I have BRCA1 and or BRCA 2 mutated have decreased risk of breast and ovarian cancer true or false?
False people who have a mutated BRCA1 and or BRCA2 have an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer
243
In turner syndrome, girls only have one sex chromosome X true or false?
True
244
Exposure to infrared radiation may cause permanent I damage, true or false?
True
245
Ashkenazi Jews are more susceptible to breast, ovarian, and prostate cancer's true or false?
True
246
Autosomal dominant disorder means that even if you inherit the trait from one parent only you will still have the disease true or false?
True
247
Autosomal recessive disorder means that you have to inherit the trait from both parents to have the disease true or false?
True. Should you only carry the trait from one parent, you will not have the disease but you will be called a carrier
248
Petaluma is malignant tumor of the skin true or false
False. Papilloma is a benign tumor of the skin caused by the HPV virus
249
Autosomal recessive disorder means if you inherit the treat from only one parent you will be a carrier of the disease, but will not have the disease true or false?
True
250
Having a trait on both genes from the dad and the mom is called homozygous treat true or false?
True
251
Heterozygous genes in regards to a specific disease trait means one gene is normal and the other is abnormal true or false?
True
252
What are symptoms and what are signs
Signs are objective abnormalities that can be seen or measured.
Symptoms – subjective abnormalities felt by the patient.
253
Testicular cancer is more common in men over 40 years old, true or false?
False. Testicular cancer is more common in men under 40 years old.
254
Patients who underwent splenectomy for example after a motor vehicle accident or a sports are susceptible to develop infections with________and_______.
Strep pneumonia
| Meningitis
255
What are five auto immune diseases?
```
Lupus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hashimoto's Disease
Graves Disease
Scleroderma
```
256
Example of benign germ cell tumor is a
Cystic teratoma
257
In down syndrome, patients have three sets of chromosomes number 18 true or false?
False. In down syndrome there at three sets of chromosomes on number 21
258
Multiple melanoma is a benign tumor, true or false
False multiple melanoma is a stage III cancer
259
Melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin arising from_________, cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color
Melanocytes
260
Give two examples of carcinogens
Smoking
| Tannins – dyes
261
Mention three diseases that are considered multi factorial disorders meaning both genetics and environmental factors are involved
Lung cancer
Letter cancer
Mesothelioma
262
Germ cell tumor's can be a nine or malignant, true or false?
True
263
Rheumatoid arthritis is an acute disease or false?
False rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic disease
264
What is prodromal period? Give one example of a disease that has a prodromal period.
Prodromal period is a period With possibly non-positive test results & vague symptoms. Damage from the disease has not yet been done as it has recently been acquired
Hep C
265
What are the two definitions of pathology?
Study of disease
Study of disease tissue under a microscope
266
Colon cancer tends to run in families, true or false?
True
267
______ virus is associated with cervical cancer
HPV
268
Malignancy arising from the blood cells are: _________&________.
Leukemia
| Lymphoma
269
What is hyperplasia?
Overproduction of cells
270
What is anaplasia?
Over generation of abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells.
271
What is the term used to describe severe loss of appetite and weight in cancer patients?
Pyrexia
272
Abnormal jeans that can be involved in cancer are called________.
Oncogenes
273
Chemicals that can affect genes causing abnormal cell reproduction are called _________.
Carcinogens
274
Two cancers that usually are detected late are ______ and ____.This is due to their presence in areas where they can grow large before they are detected.
Ovarian cancer
| Pancreatic cancer
275
jaundice can be the symptom of ________cancer when it obstructs the CBD.
Pancreatic
276
Hematuria can be a symptom of ______or ______cancer.
Kidney
| Bladder
277
Postmenopausal bleeding may be associated with endometrial cancer, true or false?
True
278
Coughing maybe caused by ______cancer.
Lung
279
Mention three examples of lumps and the positions they are felt by patients that might turn out to be cancerous
Lumps in the thyroid
Lumps in the breast
Lumps on the testes
280
What does recurrence mean?
Recurrence is when a disease comes back
281
What are tumor markers?
Tumor markers are substances in the body found when cancer is present. Sometimes they are used as monitoring numbers
282
__________ is the removal of small piece of tissue and the process of sending it for histological examination.
Tissue biopsy procedure
283
What is PSA?
Prostate specific antigen. This is a test used to monitor for cancer markers for men with benign prostatic hypertrophy
284
Staging of cancer use the system called________.
TNM- tumor node metastases
285
Staging and grading cancer is very important to decide for the best management, true or false?
True
286
In order for the position stage cancer, diagnostic imaging modalities are used. For example x-rays in the mammograms, CT, MRI, pet scan, and ultrasound. True or false?
True
287
In staging cancer, T stands for______, N stands for_______, and M stands for_______.
Tumor
Node
Metastases
288
And some types of cancer, T1 might indicate smaller tumors than in other types of cancer, true or false?
True
289
In-situ cancer has the worst prognosis true or false?
False in situ cancer has the best prognosis
290
Stage 2 cancer has a better prognosis then stage 4, true or false?
True
291
Stage four cancer always indicate distant metastases, true or false?
True
292
Grading of cancer – what does it mean?
Grading of cancer is the appearance of the cancer cells under a microscope.
293
Grade 3 has worse prognosis in grade one, true or false?
True
294
Cells of cancer in grade 3 look angry or aggressive under the microscope, true or false?
PREACH!
295
Grade III cancer of the same size and lymph nodes status has a substantially higher chance of being able to spread then a grade one cancer, true or false?
True
296
When performing surgery to resect a tumor, the surgeon make sure that the removed mass has clean margins, true or false?
True
297
______ or______ happens when microscopic deposits of cancer cells outside the resected area go undetected and these deposits grow into cancer
Secondary cancer
Cancer recurrence
298
What is adjuvant treatment
Adjuvant treatment is extra treatment after resection to improve cure or survival rates
299
What does adjuvant treatment include?
Chemo
| radiation
300
Chemotherapy can be used to cheer and control cancer or to shrink the size of cancerous masses so they are easier to resect, true or false?
True
301
Radiation therapy can be used to cure some types of cancers, for example lung cancer true or false?
True
302
Hormonal therapy is used in __________cancers.
Breast
Prostate
Testicular
303
______ is plastic surgery that is done after mastectomy.
Reconstruction
304
________ is used after removal of the cancer is segment of the esophagus to improve the quality of life
And esophageal stent
305
There are over 100 types of HPV, some of them cause the regular boards we see on the hands and fingers for example, others can cause sexually transmitted disease is and I link to cervical cancer, true or false?
True
306
What is the term used for the procedure that's done on patients who had their colon resected due to colon cancer?
Colonostomy
307
What is the term used for the procedure that is done on patient who has had their ileum resected due to Crohn's disease?
Ileostomy
