TEST 3 (RESTO, COM-DENT, PUBLIC HEALTH) Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

In diagnosing interproximal lesions that cannot
be explored directly, a good supplement to the
radiograph is

A. Reviewing patient’s history of carious activity
B. Examining marginal color changes or loss of
translucency beneath ridges
C. xamining corresponding tooth in the occluding quadrant
D. Preparing an adjacent occlusal surface and
examining the exposed proximal DEJ

B. Examining marginal color changes or loss of
translucency beneath ridges

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A test result that erroneously excludes an
individual from a specific diagnostic or reference
group is called _____.

A. Erroneous
B. False positive
C. False negative
D. Mistaken
E. None of the above

C. False negative- erroneously assign an indiviual from a specific diagnostic or reference group

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A/An __________ base is a base that is typically
placed over a calcium hydroxide base that has been placed over a pulp exposure.

A. Primary base
B. Secondary base
C. Direct base
D. Indirect base

B. Secondary base

NOTES:
Primary base- placed over dentui, near the pulp
Example: CaOH (for amalgam and composite)

Secondary base-placed over a calcium hydroxide base
Example: Zinc phosphate and Zinc polycarboxylate (for gold restoration)

GI- most widely used

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Solution liners should not be placed under
composite restorations because composites do not require the pulpal protection.

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct
and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is
correct

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
because composites do not require the pulpal protection.❌
because THEY WILL INHIBIT POLYMERIZATION OF THE RESIN

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When removing caries, which of the following
layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed?

A. Turbid dentin
B. Infected dentin
C. Transparent dentin
D. Normal dentin
E. Sub-transparent dentin

C. Transparent dentin- 1st layer of affected dentin, capable of remineralization, vital pulp

NOTES:
Sub-transparent dentin- also the affected dentin, zone of deminiralization that is caused by acids from caries, no bacteria, and is capable of remineralization.

Turbid dentin- zone of vacterial invasion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Curette used for anterior teth

A. 5/6
B. 7/8
C. 11/12
D. 13/14

A. 5/6

NOTES:
1/2,3/4 - anterior teeth, all surfaces
5/6 - anterior and PM, all surfaces
7/8, 9/10- posterior teeth, all surfaces
11/12, 15/16- posterior teeth, mesial
13/14, 17/18- posterior teeth, distal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The CPTIN index assessment is based on the
evaluation of specified index teeth for:

A. Gingival inflammation
B. Depth of periodontal pockets
C. Presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above

B. Depth of periodontal pockets

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The number of point angles in a mesio-occlusal
preparation

A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 3

A. 6

NOTES
LA, PA, WALLS
Class I, V- 8, 4, 5
Class II, IV- 11, 6, 8
Class III- 6, 3, 4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The technique of etching enamel and dentin
simultaneously is

A. Priming
B. Microetching
C. enamel etching
D. Total etch technique

D. Total etch technique

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following statements about slot retained complex amalgams are true except _____.

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.
B. Slots should be 1 mm or more in length.
C. Slots may be segmented or continuous.
D. Slots should be placed at least 0.5 mm inside
the DEJ.

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth❌
The longer, the better

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Smooth surface caries refers to _____.

A. Facial and lingual surfaces.
B. Occlusal pits and grooves.
C. Mesial and distal surfaces.
D. A and C.

D. A and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 12 year old patient scored using the DMF index. Data from this child revealed the following:

2 missing permanent 1st molars
4 missing 3rd molars
3 filled permanent teeth
4 active carious lesions on permanent teeth
2 filled deciduous teeth
2 missing deciduous teeth
What is the DMF score for this patient?

A. 6
B. 9
C. 13
D. 15
E. 19

B. 9

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The outline form of a cavity preparation is
defined as:

A. “That form the cavity takes to resist the forces
of mastication”
B. “That form the cavity takes to resist dislodgement or displacement of the
restoration”
C. “The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth”
D. “The shape or form of the preparation after
carious dentin has been excavated”
E. “The shape or form the preparation assumes
after the retention form has been completed”

C. “The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient returns to your office only 24 hours
after you cemented her new gold crown on tooth #19. She claims to feel a sharp electrical sensation in both her upper and lower jaw on the left side. When you explain to her what might be happening, you call it:

A. Electromagnetic pulse
B. Alternating current corrosion
C. Electrolyte explosion
D. Galvanic shock

D. Galvanic shock- occurs when 2 dissimilar metal comes in contact

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An index that measure the number of surfaces
and teeth affected by dental caries:

A. RCI
B. GI
C. DMF
D. UTN
E. PI

C. DMF- Decayed, Missing and Filled teeth

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following materials has the
highest linear coefficient of expansion?

A. Amalgam
B. Direct gold
C. Tooth structure
D. Composite resin

D. Composite resin- more dimensional chnage when subjected to extreme change in temperature.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _____.

A. Carious.
B. Very sensitive.
C. Causing gingival inflammation.
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In comparison to amalgam restoration,
composite restorations are _____.

A. Stronger.
B. More technique-sensitive.
C. More resistant to occlusal forces.
D. Not indicated for Class II restoration

B. More technique-sensitive.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following biological test is used to check
the effectiveness of the sterilization process.

A. Spore test
B. Total bacterial count test
C. Aseptic test
D. EPA test
E. Disinfection test

A. Spore test- biological monitor, it is conducted weekly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. Incidence
B. Rate
C. Ratio
D. Prevalence
E. None of thes

D. Prevalence

NOTES:
Prevalence- existing cases
INcidence- New cases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An index which use a dichotomous scoring
system:

A. CPTIN
B. NIDR-GI
C. GI
D. PI
E. None of these

E. None of these

NOTES:
Dichotomous scoring- refers to the assignment of one of two possible values based on a person’s performance or response to the test question

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the instrument used for ART

A. explorer
B. Hand piece
C. excavator
D. Both motor and manual

C. excavator

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following recommendations must
be followed when handling mercury?

A. Train personnel involved in the handling of
mercury
B. Work in properly ventilated areas
C. Use high-volume evacuation systems when
finishing or removing amalgams
D. Avoid direct skin contact with the metal
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A tooth was restored 3 months ago by a new associate of yours. The patient is complaining of mobility and thermal sensitivity. You take a periapical radiograph; you could see all of the following in that radiograph to confirm your suspicions, EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Hypercementosis B. Root restoration C. Periodontal pockets D. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Widening of the periodontal ligament space

C. Periodontal pockets

When restoring the embrasures of posterior teeth the contact should be formed slightly buccal from center. This will create a wider facial embrasure. A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false This will create a wider facial embrasure❌ This will create a NARROW facial embrasure, WIDER LINGUAL SURFACE

An ion-releasing composite material that reduces secondary caries formation at restoration by inhibiting bacterial growth: A. Ceromers B. Ormocers C. Flowable composites D. Smart composites E. Compomers

D. Smart composites- releases fluoride, hydroxyl and calcium ions

Thin extension of facial and lingual proximal margins of an onlay preparation: A. Collar B. Slot C. Locks D. Skirts E. Cover

D. Skirts- improves both retention and resistance form

A dentist is preparing tooth #27 for an occlusal amalgam restoration. Once the ideal outline form and depth have been established, the dentist notice that caries remains on the facial, pulpal and lingual walls of the preparation. The next step in treatment is to: A. Extend the outline form B. C. Remove the caries with a larger round bur Remove the caries with a spoon excavator D. Place CAOH over caries

A. Extend the outline form

A dentist inadvertently scaled a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a maxillary first molar. This would most likely result in: A. Arrested caries B. Extension of caries C. Discoloration of the tooth D. Increased microleakage

A. Arrested caries- remineralized lesion

A Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not require a gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline: A. Facially B. Lingually C. Gingivally D. Occlusally E. Vertically

D. Occlusally NOTES: Primary: Occlusal Permanent: Gingival

The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is: A. The reducing zone B. The zone closed to the nozzle C. The oxidizing zone D. A combination of oxidizing and reducing zone

A. The reducing zone

As caries progresses from enamel to dentin and toward the pulp interproximally, the radiographic appearance resembles which of the following? A. V shape in the enamel with the apex toward the DEJ and V shape in dentin with apex toward the pulp B. V shape in enamel with apex toward the proximal surface and V shape in dentin with the apex toward the pulp, resulting in a diamond appearance C. V shape in enamel with the apex toward the DEJ and V shape in dentin with the apex toward the DEJ, resulting in a bowtie appearance D. V shape in enamel with the apex toward the proximal surface and V shape in dentin with the apex toward the DEJ

A. V shape in the enamel with the apex toward the DEJ and V shape in dentin with apex toward the pulp

This index that is designed to be repeated to following patient oral hygiene education: A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. None of these

A. OHI-S - debris, calculus index, for fully erupted teeth - John Greene and Jack Vermillion

Index assess pockets, bleeding, plaque, retentive factors and periodontal treatment needs: A. CPTIN B. GI C. PI D. OHI-S E. None of these

A. CPTIN - Community Perodontal Index of Treatment Needs - Cutress and Ainamo - WHO probe, Walking technique

The principles below describes which form of the tooth preparation; 1. Using a box shape with a relatively horizontal floor to help resist occlusal forces 2. Restricting the extension of external walls to allow strong cusp and ridge areas with dentin support 3. Reducing and covering weak cusps including enough of weakened tooth within the restoration 4. Providing enough thickness of the material to prevent fracture A. Convenience form B. Prevention form C. Resistance form D. Retention form

C. Resistance form

Chisels are used primarily to cut: A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Enamel D. Amalgam

C. Enamel

Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion? A. Glass Ionomer B. Zinc oxide-eugenol C. Zinc polycarboxylate D. Zinc phosphate

A. Glass Ionomer B. Zinc oxide-eugenol

According to the CDC, the acceptable water quality in a dental office should be _____. A. < 125 CFU/mL B. < 250 CFU/mL C. < 500 CFU/mL D. < 750 CFU/mL E. < 1000 CFU/M

C. < 500 CFU/mL

Xerostomia is the most common adverse side effect of medications. This is attributed to the cholinergic effects of many medications. A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false B. The first statement is false; the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

A. The first statement is true; the second statement is false This is attributed to the cholinergic effects of many medications❌ This is attributed to the ANTICHOLINERGIC effects of many medications.

The difference between the lowest and highest values. A. mean B. Mode C. Median D. Range

D. Range

It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined criteria under specific conditions. A. Indices B. Prevalence C. Incidence D. Epidemiology E. None of these

D. Epidemiology- distribution and determinants

What distinguishes a base from a cement, from a cavity liner. A. Final application thickness B. Degree of pulpal protection C. Biocompatibility of material D. Degree of hardness

A. Final application thickness NOTES: Base: 1-2 mm Cement: 15-25 microns Cavity liner: 5 microns

Chronic caries is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Slowly progressing or arrested B. Pain is common C. Common in adults D. Extrinsic pigmentation

B. Pain is common❌

The smear 'layer is an important consideration in _____. A. bevel placement B. establishing the outline form C. dentin bonding D. the formation of recurrent caries

C. dentin bonding

The principal goals of bonding are _____. A. Sealing and thermal insulation B. Strengthening teeth and esthetics C. Esthetics and reduction of postoperative sensitivity D. Sealing and retention E. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure

D. Sealing and retention

The primary contraindication(s) for the use of a composite restoration is (are) _____. A. Occlusal factors B. Inability to isolate the operating area C. Nonesthetic areas D. Extension onto the root surface

B. Inability to isolate the operating area

With regard to the mercury controversy related to the use of amalgam restorations, which statement is incorrect? A. There is lack of scientific evidence that amalgam poses health risks to humans except for rare allergic reactions. B. Alternative amalgam-like materials (with low or no mercury content) have promise about mercury. C. True allergies to amalgam rarely have been reported. D. Efforts are underway to reduce the environmental mercury to which people are exposed to lessen their total mercury exposure.

B. Alternative amalgam-like materials (with low or no mercury content) have promise about mercury.

48.Components of a mercury spill kit, except A. Warning tape and dampening spray B. Protective apron and nitrile gloves C. Goggles and amalgam well D. Scraper and aspirator

C. Goggles and amalgam well❌

Finishing and polishing of amalgam is necessary to I. complete the carving II. refine the anatomy and contour III. enhance the surface texture. A. II and III B. I, II, III C. I and III D. I and II

B. I, II, III

Which of the following statements is true regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration? A. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite. B. The amalgam is more difficult and technique sensitive. C. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation. D. Amalgam should be used for Class II restorations.

C. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation.

All of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except _____. A. Patient age. B. Esthetic concern. C. Tooth is symptomatic. D. Deeply notched axially.

A. Patient age.❌ NOTES: AGE is not a factor for the need of restoration

The ideal amount of time from placing an indirect pulp cap until reopening the tooth to remove the remaining decay is: A. 7 – 10 days B. 2 – 3 weeks C. 1 month D. 3– 4 months E. 1 year

D. 3– 4 months

On the first day in your solo private practice you have a pulp exposure. All of the following are favorable factors in avoiding root canal treatment EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm B. The tooth had never been symptomatic C. The pulp tissue appears pink D. The hemorrhage is slight E. It is a pinpoint carious exposure

E. It is a pinpoint CARIOUS exposure❌ - infected, for root canal

Which composite type is 70 to 77 percent filled by volume and has an average particle size ranging from 1 to 3 um. A. Microfills B. Hybrids C. Micrhybrids D. Packables E. Flowables

B. Hybrids

A group of researchers undertook a study to assess the relationship between squamous cell carcinoma and chewing tobacco. The researchers determined past exposure records among subjects who had been diagnosed with the disease. This type of study was a _____. A. Clinical trial B. Community trial C. Retrospective cohort study D. Case control study E. Randomized clinical trial

C. Retrospective cohort study

The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process serves each of the following, except: A. To remove loose enamel rods B. To minimize marginal opening C. To facilitate finishing D. To minimize the need for gingival extension

D. To minimize the need for gingival extension❌

Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. The severely of disease perceived by the patient affects patient compliance. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A. Both statements are true

Which of the following is the least likely to cause rampant caries in geriatric patients? A. Poor oral hygiene B. A change in the oral microflora C. A decrease salivary flow D. The side effects of medication

B. A change in the oral microflora

During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns will be the most subject to accidental exposure? A. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar B. Facial of mandibular first premolar C. Distoficial of a mandibular first molar D. Lingual of mandibular first premolar

B. Facial of mandibular first premolar

A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal load has cusp undermined with caries. The restoration material of choice would be: A. Cast gold B. Silver amalgam C. Composite resin D. Direct filling gold

A. Cast gold

The outward portion of a reactive sclerotic dentin wherein caries has left a hard, darkened, cleanable surface is A. Intertubular dentin B. Intratubular dentin C. Eburnated dentin D. Dead tracts

C. Eburnated dentin- exposed portion

Any element, substance or force whether living or non-living, the presence or absence of which can initiate or perpetuate a disease process is A. time B. host C. agent D. environment

C. agent- needs to be present for a disease to occur

In HIV diagnosis, the Western blot assay is used to confirm the results of a positive ELISA test. Therefore, we can say that the Western blot test will confirm a _____. A. True-positive result B. True-negative result C. False-positive result D. False-negative result E. None of the above

A. True-positive result

Which of the following statement(s) about the hepatitis B vaccination is(are) true? A. HBV must be offered to all potentially exposed dental workers. B. The HBV must be free to all potentially exposed dental workers. C. At the time of employment, each person should be asked to provide documentation of previous immunizations. D. Three doses are given to confer immunity. E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

Caries depends on the balance between demineralization and demineralization. Demineralization occurs when the pH level of the mouth drops below 4. The first statement is _____. A. correct and the second statement is correct B. incorrect and the second statement is correct C. correct and the second statement is incorrect D. incorrect and the second statement is incorrect

D. incorrect and the second statement is incorrect Caries depends on the balance between demineralization and demineralization.❌ Caries depends on the balance between demineralization and REMINERALIZATION Demineralization occurs when the pH level of the mouth drops below 4.❌ Demineralization occurs when the pH level of the mouth drops below 5.5

Direct pulp capping is more successful in 1. Younger patients 2. Pulp exposure less than 0.5 mm. 3. Cases when bleeding is easily controlled 4. Pulp exposure not contaminated by saliva A. 1, 2, 3 B. 3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2

C. 1,2,3,4

The initiation of caries requires four entities. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Host B. Bacteria C. Carbohydrates D. Saliva E. Time

D. Saliva❌

Enamel Etching is typically completed with: A. 37% Phosphoric acid B. 13% Phosphoric acid C. 37% Hydrochloric acid D. 13% Hydrochloric acid

A. 37% Phosphoric acid (for 15-20 seconds) -15 seconds rinse -15 seconds dry

Rapid cooling by immersion in water, of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it has been shaped is referred to as: A. Annealing B. Tempering C. Quenching D. None of the above

C. Quenching

To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades. This is because less cutting blade cut more efficiently. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades. ❌ To polish a restoration you will likely use a bur with MORE cutting blades. NOTES: The higher the number or cutting blades, The less efficient the cutting

A cold test reveals lingering pain. You ask the patient to raise their hand until the pain subsides. The patient raises their hand for about 8 seconds. What does this data suggest? A. Pulpal necrosis B. Irreversible pulpitis C. Pulpal hyperemia D. Acute apical periodontitis

C. Pulpal hyperemia (REVERSIBLE PULPITIS) NOTES: REVERSIBLE PULPITIS- (+) cold test, >10-15 sec IRREVERSIBLE PULPITIS- (+) cold test and (+)heat test, <15 sec

The most retentive style of pin is the self threaded pins because they are cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT because they are cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself.❌ because they are NOT cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself.

The rubber dam can still be used effectively even if teeth are crowded and overlapped because the hole punch pattern does not always have to be followed. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Put the following steps in order for proper sealant placement. 1. Apply acid etch 2. Place the low viscous sealant material 3. Apply bonding agent 4. Wash acid etch away 5. Use rubber prophy cup with pumice A. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2 B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 D. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3

A. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

The light cure sealants require UV light. The light cure sealants are known to be clinically better than chemical cure. A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

D. Both statements are false The light cure sealants require UV light. ❌ The light cure sealants require VISIBLE LIGHT. The light cure sealants are known to be clinically better than chemical cure.❌ The light cure sealants are known to be clinically THE SAME than chemical cure.

Fluoride reduces the rate of enamel solubility. This increases the hardness of enamel. A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false This increases the hardness of enamel.❌ This DOES NOT increases the hardness of enamel.

Which of the following is least associated with the short term strength of a material? A. Creep B. Modulus of elasticity C. Resilience D. Brittleness

A. Creep- strain relaxation

Plastic deformation takes place prior to elastic deformation. The distinction between these two is termed the elastic limit. A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false

B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true Plastic deformation takes place prior to elastic deformation. ❌ Plastic deformation takes place AFTER elastic deformation

The following were the scores for six dental students in their Restorative Dentistry exam: 56, 64, 68, 46, 82, 86. Therefore, the median is _____. A. 68 B. 64 C. 67 D. 40 E. 66

E. 66

What type of GIC is used for ART(atraumatic restorative technique)? A. Type IV B. Type V C. Type VI D. Type VIII

D. Type VIII NOTES: LRL POCHAP 1-Luting cement 2-Restorative Material 3-Liners and bases 4-Pits and fissures 5-Ortho 6-Core build-up material 7-High fluoride releasing 8-ART 9-Pediatric

Which of the following is a primary level preventive dentistry? A. Prevention of disease progression and recurrence B. Specific protection C. Early diagnosis D. Prompt treatment

B. Specific protection NOTES: PRIMARY- Specific protection SECONDARY- Prevention of disease progression and recurrence

Which of the following are examples of demographic data? A. Social status, education, occupation B. Family income, community resources C. Age, sex, race, ethnicity D. Health, beliefs, customs

C. Age, sex, race, ethnicity

The measure of variability A. variance B. Mean C. Deviation D. Statistics

A. variance- spread between numbers of the data set

For modified class IV tooth preparations, if the fracture is confined to the enamel, you should____. A. bevel sharp cavo-surface margins B. make a through and through preparation C. prepare the same way as in a carious class IV D. etch, bond and place composite

A. bevel sharp cavo-surface margins - 0.5mm wide - 45 degree angle - course diamond bur

Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct? A. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity. B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity. C. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator of current caries activity. D. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity.

B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.

87. For a dental hand instrument with a formula of 10-8.5-8-14, the number 10 refers to _____. A. The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter. B. The primary cutting edge angle in centigrades. C. The blade length in millimeters. D. The blade angle in centigrades.

A. The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter. NOTES: 4- number formula W: width C: cutting edge angle L: length A: angle of the blade

Which one of the following acids is generally recommended for etching tooth structure? A. Maleic acid B. Polyacrylic acid C. Phosphoric acid D. Tartaric acid E. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

C. Phosphoric acid

UV light curing systems are no longer used, that is because dual cure systems fixed the problem of “incomplete curing.” A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

All of the following statements are true concerning posterior composite restoration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Posterior composite restoration are frequently indicated in the treatment of occlusal lesions which allow conservation preparations B. Posterior composite restoration are contraindicated in patient with heavy occlusion (bruxism ) C. Posterior composites are contraindicated with high caries risk D. Posterior composite restoration may be indicated for the restoration of Class II cavities in premolar teeth where the appearance is very important, the cavity margins are in the enamel, and the occlusal contacts are on the enamel E. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacement unless a dry operating field is maintained

E. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacement unless a dry operating field is maintained❌

Regarding the use of pins, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Use one pin per missing axial line angle, cusp, or marginal ridge, up to a maximum of four B. Use large-diameter pins whenever possible C. Use the minimum number of pins compatible with adequate retention (pins weaken amalgam) D. Pins should extend 2 mm into dentin and restorative material E. Pins are bent to make them parallel or to increase their retentiveness 92. A patient arrives at your offi

E. Pins are bent to make them parallel or to increase their retentiveness❌ E. Pins are NOT bent to make them parallel or to increase their retentiveness

A patient arrives at your office with their full gold crown in hand. They explain to you that another dentist delivered it just last week. You then examine the crown and the preparation. What is the most likely reason the crown fell off? A. There was very little cement in the crown B. The preparation was only 4 mm high C. The preparation walls were tapered at about 15⁰ D. The margins were jagged and undefined

C. The preparation walls were tapered at about 15⁰

The lab calls your office and asks if you want a particular casting done in a base or a noble metal. Which of the following responses is appropriate? A. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit B. Noble, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit C. Base, because the patient wants a gold tooth D. Noble, because the patient wants a gold tooth

A. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit

High-gold alloys used for cast restoration are: A. Greater than 20% gold or other noble metals B. Greater than 30% gold or other noble metals C. Greater than 50% gold or other noble metals D. Greater than 75% gold or other noble metals

D. Greater than 75% gold or other noble metals

The following statements describe an MOD gold cast preparation. Which would you have to change in order to ensure the onlay will be successful? A. The mesial box has an axiopulpal line angle that is longer from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle B. From facial to lingual, the distal axiopulpal line angle is longer that the mesial axiopulpal line angle C. The mesial and distal axial walls converge D. The distal box has an axiopulpal line angle that is shorter from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle

D. The distal box has an axiopulpal line angle that is shorter from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle❌ Distal box should be LONGER

ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in: A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

A. Africa

When preparing a Class V cavity preparation for direct filling gold, you should ensure you have all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Rounded internal line and point angle B. Small retentive undercuts placed in the axio- occlusal and axio-gingival line angles C. Mesial and distal walls that flare and meet the cavosurface at a 90⁰ angle D. An axial wall that is convex and follows the external contour of the tooth .5 mm into dentin

A. Rounded internal line and point angle❌ SHARP internal line and point angle

Basic composition of dental amalgam alloy: A. Silver and palladium B. Silver and copper C. Silver and zinc D. Silver and tin

D. Silver and tin

A patient reports serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the following cements should be avoided? A. BIS-GMA B. Glass ionomer C. Phosphoric acid D. Ethoxybenzoic acid E. Zinc Oxide-Eugenol

E. Zinc Oxide-Eugenol

What do you call the motion of a piezoelectric ultrasonic? A. hammering B. scrapping C. vibrating D. elliptical

B. scrapping (or TAPPING) NOTES: MAGNETOSTRICTIVE - Hammering/ Scrapping PIEZOELECTRIC- Scrapping/ Tapping

The dentist adjusts the shade of restoration using a complementary color. This procedure will result in A. Increased value B. Decreased value C. Intensified color D. Increased translucency

B. Decreased value

TEST 3 (RESTO, COM-DENT, PUBLIC HEALTH) Flashcards

(104 cards)