Test Flashcards
(227 cards)
1
Q
How many principle pressure points are on each side of the body?
A
11
2
Q
What classification of burn causes redness, warmth and mild pain?
A
First Degree Burn
3
Q
What classification of burn causes red, blistered skin and severe pain?
A
Second Degree Burn
4
Q
What classification of burn is typically the most painful?
A
Second Degree Burn
5
Q
What classification of burn destroys tissue, skin and bone?
A
Third Degree Burn
6
Q
What classification of burn may damage nerve endings?
A
Third Degree Burn
7
Q
What are the two types of bone fractures?
A
Simple/Compound
8
Q
What are the three objectives of first aid?
A
Prevent further injury, infection and loss of life
9
Q
Which of the following is not an objective of first aid?
A
Control Bleeding
10
Q
First aid is categorized into _____ fundamental elements.
A
Eight
11
Q
What is NOT a method of controlling bleeding?
A
Ace Bandage
12
Q
What is a point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over the bone?
A
Pressure Point
13
Q
Which of the following is NOT a pressure point?
A
Subclavical artery (subclavian)
14
Q
Which of the following would you use as a last resort to control bleeding?
A
Tourniquet
15
Q
What do the following do: Purple Jersey Brown Jersey Yellow Jersey White Jersey Green Jersey
A
Aviation Fuel Crew Plane Captain Plane Director Landing Safety Officer Helicopter LSE
16
Q
Windshield static has the potential to build up and hold a _____ volt charge.
A
100,000
17
Q
What is the minimum number of chains required for an initial tie-down?
A
6
18
Q
Normal weather tie-down requires _____ chains.
A
9
19
Q
Normal weather tie-downs are required for winds between _____ and _____ knots.
A
Up to 45 knots
20
Q
Moderate weather tie-down requires _____ chains.
A
14
21
Q
Moderate weather tie-downs are required for winds between _____ and _____ knots.
A
46 to 60 knots
22
Q
Heavy weather tie-down requires_____ chains.
A
20
23
Q
What are the two types of tie-downs used onboard?
A
TD-1A/TD-1B
24
Q
Correct installation of a tie-down chain is with the hook facing up.
A
True
25
Who conducts a pre-move inspection of the brake system and aircraft to ensure it is mechanically sound and ready for movement?
Brake Rider
26
It is the _____ primary responsibility for ensuring that the aircraft is ready to be towed and that there is ample clearance for the aircraft.
Safety Observer
27
FPCON Alpha applies when _____.
When there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities.
28
FPCON Bravo applies when _____.
An increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
29
FPCON Charlie applies when _____.
An incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action is likely.
30
The defense readiness condition was developed by the Secretary of Defense.
False
31
Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) is most severe?
1
32
The _____ is responsible for TAD personnel, manpower management, and manages the SE training and license program.
Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)
33
The _____ is overall responsible for the production and material support of the aviation maintenance department.
Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO)
34
The NAMP was founded on a _____ level maintenance concept.
Three
35
The I-Level mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.
False
36
The _____ mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.
O-Level
37
Which level of maintenance is performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items?
D-Level
38
_____ and _____ are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP.
Rework and Upkeep
39
Turnaround
Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight.
40
Daily
Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth that the turnaround inspection.
41
Conditional
Unscheduled events required as the result of a specific over limit condition.
42
Special
A scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase.
43
The two most critical aspects in naval aviation are the release of an aircraft safe for flight and the acceptance of the aircraft.
True
44
The Monthly Maintenance Plan is prepared and distributed on the _____ of every month.
1st
45
At which level of maintenance can you find Maintenance Control?
O-Level
46
The concept of quality assurance is to prevent the occurrence of defects.
False
47
The achievement of quality assurance depends on _____, _____, and _____.
Prevention, Knowledge, Special Skills
48
The _____ is assigned to production work centers and inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions.
CDI
49
What program is not managed by quality assurance division?
SE Training and Licensing Program
50
Work center audits are conducted _____ to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center.
Semi-annually
51
NATOPS stands for _____.
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
52
NATOPS was established by the United States Navy in _____.
1961
53
The US Navy and Marine Corps lost how many aircraft in 1950?
776
54
In what year was the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) introduced?
1959
55
Warning
An operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
56
Caution
An operating procedure, practice or condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
57
Note
An operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized.
58
Shall
A procedure that is mandatory.
59
Should
A procedure that is recommended.
60
May
The procedure is optional.
61
Will
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
62
The _____ assigns aircraft markings and side numbers that identify an aircraft.
Chief of Naval Operations
63
Aircraft that have identification markings where the first character is "N through Z? and the second character is "A through Z" belongs to _____.
COMNAVAIRPAC
64
What is the significance of 8 May 1911?
Birth of Naval aviation
65
What was the Navy's first aircraft carrier?
USS Langley
66
What was the name of the Navy's first jet powered aircraft?
FJ-1 Fury
67
When was the first take off from a ship?
14 November 1910
68
Coral Sea
Broke the Japanese Navy code, was the first carrier to carrier battle. US carrier Lexington was sunk, and Yorktown was damaged.
69
Midway
The turning point of the Pacific war, the US sunk 4 Japanese carriers, Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
70
Guadacanal
After three days of fighting, the Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers. The Juneau was torpedoed.
71
_____ is the act, or process, of changing place or position.
Motion
72
The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time is known as _____.
Acceleration
73
_____ is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
Velocity
74
NIIN stands for _____.
National Item Identification Number
75
How many digits are in a National Stock Number?
13
76
What database does Aviation Supply use to look up parts data for all items carried in the Federal Government Supply System?
FEDLOG
77
CCS has five sections.
False
78
Which is NOT a section of CCS?
MDU
79
Who is administratively responsible for Weapons department personnel?
Gun Boss
80
Who is Operationally responsible for all ordnance throughout the ship?
Ordnance Handling Officer (OHO)
81
What Weapons Division is responsible for Elevators?
G-4
82
What Weapons Division is responsible for Magazines and Bomb Assembly?
G-3
83
What Weapons Division is responsible for magazine Sprinklers and Armory?
G-2
84
What Weapons Division is in charge of Administration/QA/Ordnance Control/Logistics?
G-5
85
Which Laser Guided Bomb is used as a Hard Target Penetrator?
GBU-24
86
In what weight class are MK-82 and BLU-111 Bombs?
500 LB
87
In what weight class are MK-83 and BLU-110 Bombs?
1000 LB
88
In what weight class are MK-84 and BLU-109 Bombs?
2000 LB
89
What does JDAM stand for?
Joint Direct Attack Munition
90
Match the JDAM GBU to the right weight class:
GBU-31
GBU-32
GBU-38
2000 LB
1000 LB
500 LB
91
Match the LGB GBU to the right weight class:
GBU-10
GBU-12
GBU-16
2000 LB
500 LB
1000 LB
92
Match the following missile guidance term:
Passive
Semi-Active
Active
Uses information collected from the target itself.
Uses an outside source to find the weapon.
Uses active detection and tracking methods to destroy its target.
93
```
Match the following missile to designator to their name:
Sidewinder
Maverick
Hellfire
Harm
```
AIM-9M
AGM-65
AGM-114B/K
AGM-88
94
What does HERO stand for?
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
95
What does AWSE stand for?
Armament Weapons Support Equipment
96
What weapons stage elevator is used for transporting weapons from second deck to the flight deck?
Upper Stage
97
What weapons stage elevator is used for transporting weapons from the weapons magazine to the hangar bay?
Lower Stage
98
What does it mean when you see a missile or bomb with a yellow stripe?
Contains High Explosives
99
A low collateral bomb body is identified by how many yellow bands?
3 yellow bands around the nose and 1 on the tail.
100
What ammunition is fired from the M61A1 and M61A2?
20MM
101
```
Match the following ammunition color codes with their explosive hazards:
Black
Light Green
Brown
White
```
Armor Piercing
Smoke or "marker"
Rocket motors/low explosives
Illuminating
102
```
Match the following ammunition color codes with their explosive hazards:
Light Green
Brown
White
Light Blue
```
Smoke or "marker"
Rocket motors/low explosives
Illuminating
Practice
103
What is the safe working load of the MHU-191/M Munitions Transporter?
5000 LB
104
The NSSMS Launchers are located STBD-FWD, PORT-AFT.
True
105
THE RAM Launchers are located STBD-FWD, PORT-AFT.
False
106
What is the maximum range of an SN/SPS-48 radar?
220 NM
107
What is AN/SPS-67?
Medium Range Surface Search Radar
108
The antenna of this radar system has a distinct popsicle stick shape.
AN/SPQ-9B
109
AN/SPN-43 has a maximum range of approximately _____.
50 NM
110
Which program provides the data required for the effective management of SE at all levels of aircraft maintenance?
AMMRL
111
CRIPL is a listing of all authorized remain in place items which are published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOM and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
True
112
What listing is a detailed statement of the IMAs component repair capability?
ICRL
113
Which is NOT a category of HAZMAT?
Contained Gasses
114
This unit maintains custody of high-cost AVDLRs that are ordered by the IMA work centers.
RAM
115
Supply Response Section is divided up into _____ units.
5
116
A term/code used by IMAs when repair is not authorized or when the activity is not capable of accomplishing the repair is what?
BCM
117
```
Match the following aircraft with the types of engines they utilize:
EA-6B Prowler
H-60 Seahawk
E-2C Hawkeye
F/A-18 Hornet
```
Turbojet
Turboshaft
Turboprop
Turbofan
118
All maintenance performed in NALCOMIS is documented on what?
MAF
119
Who acts as the liasion between Production Control, Supply, and the various Maintenance Controls of the embarked squadrons?
MMCO
120
Which unit under Supply Response Section is responsible for processing and expediting high priority parts?
PMU
121
There are _____ categories of HAZMAT.
6
122
```
Match the following units with their appropriate sections:
TRU
SSU
RCU
AWP
```
SRS
CCS
SRS
CCS
123
SRS is responsible for which of the following?
Processing customer requirements and providing follow ups and status as required.
124
_____ are used to decrease wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wings surfaces.
Spoiler
125
_____ causes extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing.
Flap
126
_____ provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions.
NALCOMIS
127
_____ must be in control of the maintenance to ensure successful operation or repair of critical assets.
Maintenance/Production Control
128
Match the core capabilities:
Forward Presence
Sea Control
Power Protection
Establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.
Protects the ability to operate freely at sea.
The essential combat element of the maritime strategy.
129
```
Match the platform:
Helicopter Sea Combat
Tactical Electronic Warfare
Aircraft Logistics Support
Helicopter Maritime Strike
Patrol
Fleet Composite
```
Perform rescue, logistics, MCM, and combat search and rescue missions.
Exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems.
Transport of personnel and supplies.
Anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare, also handles logistics and rescue.
Anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
Provide air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.
130
MOVLAS is the backup to which system?
Fesnal Lens Optical Landing System
131
What are 3 hazards on the flight deck?
Jet Blast, Rotor Wash, Prop Arcs
132
Aft Spotter and ISIS Computer Operator are stations manned in _____?
PRI-FLY
133
What is the primary job of the Crash Crew?
To save lives
134
How can you identify the LSE?
Green jersey with red cranial
135
Who is responsible for the operation of the ship's ALRE and VLA?
Catapult and Arresting Gear Officer
136
The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time is called _____.
Speed
137
An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion until acted upon by an outside force is an example of Newton's _____ law.
First
138
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction is Newton's _____ law.
Third
139
Newton's _____ law of motion states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by and external force, the change of motion will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Second
140
Bernoulli's principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction, the speed of the fluid decreases and the pressure increases.
False
141
What are the three axis of an aircraft?
Longitudinal, Lateral, Vertical
142
The aircraft's _____ controls the vertical axis (yaw).
Rudder
143
```
Match four types of shock:
Septic shock
Anaphylactic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Neurogenic shock
```
Bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins.
A severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction.
Caused by severe blood and fluid loss.
Caused by a spinal chord injury.
144
ORM is a systematic decision making process used to _____.
Identify and manage hazards.
145
What are the five steps of ORM?
```
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
```
146
Match the three types of mishaps:
Class A mishap
Class B mishap
Class C mishap
Property damage $2M or more; or an injury resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability.
Property damage $500,000 or more but less than $2M; or an injury resulting in permanent partial disability.
Property damage is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift.
147
If a mishap occurs totaling $450,000 in property damage and an injury resulting in a permanently disabled arm, what class would it be categorized as?
Class B
148
PPE is the _____ line of defense.
Last
149
What are the two types of bone fractures?
Open/Closed
Simple/Compound
Both A and B
150
Heat _____ is a heat related injury causing the skin to become cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils dilated?
Exhaustion
151
Heat _____ is a heat related injury causing the skin to be hot and/or dry, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse?
Stroke
152
What is NOT one of the three types of cold weather injuries?
Surface Frostbite
153
Match the three types of cold weather injuries:
Hypothermia
Superficial frostbite
Deep frostbite
A general cooling of the body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature.
When ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
154
_____ is a life-threatening medical condition where the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body.
Shock
155
Bacteria and viruses are examples of pathogens.
True
156
Biological agents are broken into what divisions?
Pathogens and toxins
157
What is the primary way to limit the chemical and biological warfare impact?
Training and Awareness
158
What type of canister is used with the MCU-2P gas mask?
C-2
159
```
Match the five types of nuclear explosions:
High Altitude Burst
Air Burst
Surface Burst
Shallow Underwater Burst
Deep Underwater Burst
```
Occurs in excess of 100,000' with ionosphere disruptions and EMP.
The fireball does not reach the surface. Vacuum created collects debris resulting in severe radiation fallout.
Fireball touches the surface which results in severe ratioactive fallout.
Small fireball and blast wave causes large waves and water contamination.
Yields the greatest water contamination.
160
What are the two types of shipboard shielding stations?
Ready shelter and Deep shelter
161
The DT-60 dosimeter determines the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the zero to _____ roentgens.
600
162
Nerve agents are _____ casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue.
Liquid
163
Nerve agents are casualty agents that _____.
Disrupt nerve impulses to the body
164
What are two examples of blood agents?
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC), Cyanogen Chloride (CK)
165
M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper detects what type of chemical agents?
Liquid chemical agents
166
Atropine/2-PAM-chloride is used for _____ agent casualties.
Nerve
167
What are the auto-injectors issued for use in combating nerve agent casualties?
Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride
168
The use of agents to cause disease, sickness or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces is _____.
Biological Warfare
169
Who is responsible for the supervision and handling of embarked aircraft on the flight deck and hangar deck?
Aircraft Handling Officer
170
VLA is part of which division?
V-2
171
What color jerseys do LOX personnel wear?
White
172
Who wears a white jersey with no cranial?
LSO
173
What system is used by the pilot to bring the aircraft down a glide slope to the deck using a cross deck pendant pattern?
FLOLS
174
What division of Air Department includes Flight Deck Repair and the Quality Surveillance Lab?
V-4
175
What two work centers comprise CATCC?
Air Ops and CCA
176
What does ILARTS stand for?
Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System
177
MOVLAS stands for Manually Operated Virtual Landing Aid System.
False
178
Operation of aircraft elevators and hangar bay doors falls under the responsibility of which division?
V-3
179
What are stations manned in Flight Deck Control?
Dog, Assistant Flight Deck Officer, Fuels Rep
180
What type of system is the MK-7 arresting engine?
Hydro-pneumatic
181
What color jerseys will GSE Troubleshooters wear?
Green
182
Air Admin and Tower personnel are part of which division?
V-5
183
Who determines the case launch and recovery of all aircraft embarked on the aircraft carrier?
Air Officer
184
Who establishes the air plan?
Strike Ops
185
CT's typically work in which CVIC division?
OS
186
AN/SPN 46 is also known as _____.
PALS
187
Angels 6 is _____?
6000 feet
188
"Clara" and "Ball" are associated with _____.
Visual Landing Aid
189
Air flow disturbances on and about the carrier are called _____.
Burble
190
What is a term used for a first-tour pilot on his initial carrier deployment?
Nugget
191
Where is the first aircraft in marshal stack placed?
21 NM at 6000 feet
192
During Case II Approach Control hands off to _____?
PRI-FLY
193
Who is primarily responsible for the aircraft glide slope and lineup performance?
Final Control
194
Who is in control of departing aircraft during Case II operations?
Departure Control
195
Final Control is a position manned in _____?
CCA
196
Marshal Control hands off to _____ during Case I operations?
PRI-FLY
197
Approach Control is responsible for monitoring the location and package status of tanker aircraft.
False
198
What Case of operations are when the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 1000' and 5 NM respectively?
II
199
Production Control is part of which division?
IM-1
200
What does PR stand for?
Aircrew Survival Equipmentman
201
What does AT stand for?
Aviation Electronics Technician
202
What does AZ stand for?
Aviation Maintenance Administrationman
203
Squadrons perform what level of maintenance?
O-Level
204
The first three digits of a JCN are known as what?
Organization code
205
What are the 5 basic section of a jet engine?
Intake, Compression, Combustion, Turbine, Exhaust
206
The magnetic bearing and distance to the carrier is known as _____.
Pigeons
207
What does CDC stand for?
Combat Direction Center
208
Which are stations manned in Air Ops?
Assistant Air Operations Officer, Land/Launch Record Keeper
209
Tally-Ho is a pilot report indicating a target has been engaged.
False
210
What does NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
211
What does AIMD stand for?
Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department
212
Which level of inspectors are in the work centers?
CDI
213
AIMD is comprised of how many divisions?
4
214
A management tool used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environments is
Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP)
215
```
MOPP Level 0
MOPP Level 1
MOPP Level 2
MOPP Level 3
MOPP Level 4
```
Issue IPE, accessible within 5 minutes.
JSLIST, MASK, Gloves readily accessible.
Mask carried decontamination supplies stage.
GQ, install filters, don over-boots.
Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown.
216
_____ is the primary duty of the firefighter.
Saving lives
217
What are the three sides of the fire triangle?
Oxygen, heat, fuel
218
When fighting a class C fire, how far away must the firefighter be when using H2O in a fog pattern?
Four feet
219
What is the current water to AFFF mixture for shipboard use?
94% water/6% AFFF
220
When properly applied, what has the ability to cool aircraft and ordinance?
Water (H2O)
221
What firefighting agent will not prevent reflash if an ignition source is present?
Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP)
222
Carbon Dioxide suppresses fire by _____.
Displacing the oxygen
223
The airfield rotating beacon is used to identify the airport's location?
True
224
Airfield rotating beacons on military airfields use _____ white light(s) and _____ green light(s)?
Two, one
225
Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways are known as _____.
Threshold Markings
226
Threshold markings are _____ wide by _____ long.
12 feet, 150 feet
227
What barrier is designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tailhooks?
MA-2
