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NSG 319 Pathopharm II > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

Acute or chronic infection of the kidneys, ureters, or renal pelvis, often causing flank pain, fever, and urinary symptoms.

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2
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A

A condition marked by >» 3.5 g/day of proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia •

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3
Q

What is chronic glomeruonephritis?

A

Progressive glomeruli damage that can lead to chronic kidney failure; causes include diabetic nephropathy and lupus nephritis.

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4
Q

What is acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Sudden decline in kidney function with decreased GFR and accumulation of nitrogenous waist.

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5
Q

What is urosepsis?

A

A formation of stones in the urinary tract; includes nephrolithiasis and ureterolithiasis.

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6
Q

What are signs of bladder cancer?

A

Painless hematara, urgency, frequency; diagnosed vid cystoscope.

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7
Q

What is end-stage renal disease (esrd)?

A

Less than 10% of renal function remaining, requiring dialysis or transplant.

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8
Q

What is furosemide (lasix)?

A

A loop diuretic used for hypertension; may cause hypokalemia and ototoxicity.

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9
Q

What is hydrochlorothiazide?

A

A thiazide diuretic used for hypertension and edema; less potent than loop diuretics.

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10
Q

What is spironolactone?

A

A potassium - sparing diuretic that blacks aldosterone: used for heart failure and hypertension.

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11
Q

What is triamterene?

A

A potassium-sparing diuretic that directly inhibits Na/K exchange in the nephron.

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12
Q

What is amiloride?

A

A potassium sparing diuretic often used to prevent hypokalimia Fran other diuretics.

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13
Q

What is mannitol?

A

An osmotic diuretic used to treat anemia in CKD and chemotherapy patients.

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14
Q

What is phenazapyridine

A

A urinary analgesic that turns urine red orange; used for UTI symptom relief.

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15
Q

Whaat is trimethoprim / sulfamethotarde (bacterium)?

A

An antibiotic used for UTI’s; inhibits folic acid synthesis.

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16
Q

What does GFR stand for?

A

Glomerular filtration rate; measures kidney function.

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17
Q

What is BUN?

A

Blood urea nitrogen; elevated levels indicate renal impairment.

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18
Q

What is creatinine?

A

A waste product used to assess the kidney function; elevated when GFR is low.

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19
Q

What is RAAS?

A

Renin - angiotensin _ aldosterone system; regulate BP and fluid balance.

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20
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Promotes water reabscrption in kidneys to increase blood volume and pressure.

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21
Q

What is amp/bmp?

A

Natriuretic peptides that promote vasodilation and natriuresis.

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22
Q

What is calcitriol?

A

Active form of vitamin D; aids calcian/phosphate absorption

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23
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A

A hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.

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24
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in blood without symptoms.

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25
What is uremia?
Clinical syndrome due to renal failure with systemic symptoms.
26
What is Erectile Dysfunction (ED)?
A persistent inability to achieve or maintain an erection suitable for intercourse.
27
What is Premature Ejaculation?
The most common male sexual dysfunction, often treated off-label with SSRIs or topical anesthetics.
28
What is Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
Nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate causing urinary symptoms like hesitancy and nocturia.
29
What is Sildenafil (Viagra) used for?
To treat ED by inhibiting PDE5 and enhancing erectile response.
30
What are adverse effects of Sildenafil?
Hypotension, priapism, visual disturbances, headache, and rare vision loss.
31
Name three other PDE5 inhibitors.
Vardenafil, Tadalafil (36-hour effect), and Avanafil (fastest onset).
32
What is Finasteride (Proscar)?
A 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor used for BPH and male-pattern baldness.
33
Name some Alpha1-Adrenergic Antagonists for BPH.
Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin, Silodosin.
34
Which BPH medications also affect blood pressure?
Terazosin and Doxazosin, as they also act on vascular alpha receptors.
35
What are androgens?
Hormones that promote male sex characteristics; major one is testosterone.
36
What are anabolic effects of testosterone?
Increased skeletal muscle mass and stimulation of erythropoiesis.
37
What is virilization?
The development of male physical characteristics due to androgen excess.
38
What is PSA?
Prostate-specific antigen, a protein whose levels may decrease with Finasteride.
39
What are risks of anabolic steroid abuse?
Hypertension, testicular shrinkage, gynecomastia, aggression, and liver damage.
40
What is 'Floppy-Iris Syndrome'?
A complication during cataract surgery linked to alpha-blockers like tamsulosin.
41
What is metastasis?
The spread of cancer from the original site to distant tissues and organs.
42
What is cachexia?
A complex syndrome in cancer involving weight loss, anorexia, and muscle wasting.
43
What is leukopenia?
A reduction in the number of white blood cells, often due to cancer or chemotherapy.
44
What is thrombocytopenia?
A decrease in platelet count, increasing the risk of bleeding.
45
What are paraneoplastic syndromes?
Disorders triggered by cancer, such as SIADH, hypercalcemia, and Cushing syndrome.
46
What is an oncological emergency?
A life-threatening event in cancer patients like spinal cord compression or tumor lysis syndrome.
47
What is fatigue in cancer patients attributed to?
Factors like poor nutrition, treatment, depression, and metabolic changes.
48
What is Tamoxifen used for?
Used to treat and prevent breast cancer by blocking estrogen receptors.
49
What are the side effects of Tamoxifen?
Hot flashes, fluid retention, endometrial cancer risk, and teratogenic effects.
50
What are monoclonal antibodies (MABs)?
Lab-made antibodies that bind specific antigens on cancer cells (e.g., Rituximab).
51
What is the mechanism of Rituximab?
Binds CD20 on B cells to treat certain lymphomas and leukemias.
52
What is the role of immune modifying drugs like interferons?
Enhance immune response and reduce tumor proliferation.
53
What are cytokine release syndrome symptoms?
Fever, nausea, low blood pressure, and trouble breathing.
54
What are major toxicities of chemotherapy?
Alopecia, hyperuricemia, reproductive toxicity, and carcinogenesis.
55
What is a proto-oncogene?
A normal gene that can become an oncogene due to mutations.
56
What is a tumor suppressor gene?
A gene that inhibits cell division; mutations lead to cancer (e.g., p53, Rb).
57
What is angiogenesis?
The formation of new blood vessels, crucial for tumor growth.
58
What is the TNM staging system?
Tumor size (T), Node involvement (N), Metastasis (M) classification for cancer.
59
What is a tumor marker?
A substance produced by cancer cells used to track tumor origin and activity.
60
What is meant by grading a tumor?
Assessment of how closely cancer cells resemble normal tissue.
61
What is gene therapy in cancer?
Altering genes to suppress oncogenes or enhance immune recognition.
62
What is a gene?
Basic unit of heredity.
63
What is genetics?
The study of a single gene and its effects.
64
What is a genome?
All DNA representing the genes for a species.
65
What is genomics?
Study of the function and interactions of all genes.
66
What is a genotype?
The genetic makeup of an organism ('what they have').
67
What is a phenotype?
Observable appearance based on genetic makeup ('what they demonstrate').
68
What is a mutation?
A permanent change in genetic material, can cause disease.
69
What is nondisjunction?
Error in chromosome separation leading to abnormal numbers.
70
What is aneuploidy?
Abnormal number of chromosomes (not a multiple of 23).
71
What is trisomy?
Three copies of one chromosome (example: Trisomy 21 in Down Syndrome).
72
What is monosomy?
Only one copy of a chromosome (often fatal).
73
What is Down Syndrome?
Trisomy 21; characteristic features and increased health risks.
74
What is Trisomy X?
Female with three X chromosomes; variable symptoms.
75
What is Turner Syndrome?
Female with only one X chromosome; various physical features.
76
What is a dominant allele?
Observable trait when two alleles are present.
77
What is a recessive allele?
Trait expressed only if two copies are present.
78
What is a carrier?
Has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal.
79
What is autosomal dominant?
One abnormal allele causes the disease (e.g., Huntington's).
80
What is autosomal recessive?
Two abnormal alleles needed to express the disease (e.g., Cystic Fibrosis).
81
What is Cystic Fibrosis?
Autosomal recessive disorder due to CFTR mutation.
82
What is penetrance?
Proportion of individuals with genotype who express phenotype.
83
What is expressivity?
Variation in severity of disease expression.
84
What is consanguinity?
Mating of closely related individuals; increases genetic disease risk.
85
What is X-linked recessive?
Mutation on the X chromosome, usually affects males.
86
What is epigenetics?
Changes in gene expression without altering DNA sequence.
87
What is Prader-Willi Syndrome?
Deletion from chromosome 15, inherited from father.
88
What is Angelman Syndrome?
Deletion from chromosome 15, inherited from mother.
89
What is 5-azacytidine?
Demethylating agent used to treat leukemia.
90
What are Histone Deacetylase (HDAC) Inhibitors?
Drugs used to treat T-cell lymphomas.
91
What are androgens?
Hormones produced by testes, ovaries, adrenal cortex; promote male sex characteristics.
92
What is testosterone?
Primary androgen in males; critical for pubertal changes and spermatogenesis.
93
What are the effects of testosterone in females?
Maintains libido, promotes clitoral growth; overproduction leads to virilization.
94
What are the anabolic effects of androgens?
Increases skeletal muscle mass and red blood cell production via erythropoietin synthesis.
95
What is male hypogonadism?
Condition treated with testosterone replacement therapy.
96
What are the adverse effects of androgens?
Include virilization, hepatotoxicity, premature epiphyseal closure, prostate cancer risk.
97
What are some oral androgens?
Fluoxymesterone, methyltestosterone.
98
What are other testosterone preparations?
Transdermal patches, gels, implants, buccal tablets.
99
What is androgen abuse?
Athletes misuse steroids risking hypertension, sterility, liver damage, psychiatric effects.
100
What is erectile dysfunction (ED)?
Inability to achieve or maintain an erection; affects 30 million men.
101
What are PDE5 inhibitors?
Sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil, avanafil; oral therapy for ED.
102
What is sildenafil (Viagra)?
First PDE5 inhibitor; treats ED and pulmonary hypertension.
103
What are the adverse effects of sildenafil?
Include hypotension, priapism, headache, visual disturbances.
104
What are sildenafil drug interactions?
Dangerous with nitrates and alpha-blockers; caution with CYP3A4 inhibitors.
105
What are other PDE5 inhibitors?
Vardenafil (QT prolongation), Tadalafil (36-hour effect), Avanafil (fast onset).
106
What is premature ejaculation?
Most common male sexual dysfunction; treated off-label with SSRIs, TCAs.
107
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Non-cancerous prostate enlargement causing urinary symptoms.
108
What are 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?
Finasteride, dutasteride; shrink prostate size.
109
What is finasteride (Proscar)?
Blocks 5-alpha reductase; treats BPH and male-pattern baldness.
110
What are alpha1-adrenergic antagonists?
Relax prostate/bladder muscles; drugs include tamsulosin, doxazosin.
111
What is tamsulosin (Flomax)?
Selective alpha1 antagonist for prostate; less blood pressure impact.
112
What are terazosin (Hytrin) and doxazosin (Cardura)?
Alpha blockers that can lower blood pressure.
113
What are the side effects of alpha blockers?
Include hypotension, dizziness, abnormal ejaculation.
114
What are BPH drug interactions?
Risk with nitrates, antihypertensives, PDE5 inhibitors.
115
What are other BPH treatments?
Saw palmetto (efficacy questionable), tolterodine, botulinum toxin.

NSG 319 Pathopharm II (2 decks)

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