test 4 Flashcards
(297 cards)
1
Q
what are the structures that transport sperm
A
epididymis, vas deferens, spermatic cord, ejaculatory duct
2
Q
what is the alveoli
A
smallest structures in the mammary gland
3
Q
what is the areola
A
darkened area surrounding nipple
4
Q
what is the colostrum
A
thin, yellow, fluid,precursor of milk, secreted for a few days after birth,
5
Q
with is the cooper ligaments
A
suspensory ligaments, fibrous bands extending from the inner breast surface to the chest wall
6
Q
what is the fibroadenoma
A
benign breast mass
7
Q
what is galactorrhea
A
persistent white discharge of milk between nursing session or after weaning
8
Q
what is gynecomastia
A
excessive breast development in the male
9
Q
what is intraductal papilloma
A
serosanguineous nipple discharge
10
Q
what is an inverted nipple
A
where the nipples are depressed of invaginated
11
Q
what is lactiferous
A
conveying milk
12
Q
what is mastalgia
A
pain in the breast
13
Q
what is Montgomery glands
A
sebaceous glands in the areola that secrete protective lipid during lactation; also called tubercles of montgomery
14
Q
what is paget disease
A
intraductal carcinoma in the breast
15
Q
what is peau d’orange
A
orange peel appearance of breast due to edema
16
Q
what is retraction
A
dimple, or pucker in the skin
17
Q
what is striae
A
stretch marks
18
Q
what is supernumerary nipple
A
minute extra nipple along the embryonic milk line
19
Q
what is the tail of spence
A
extension of breast tissue into the axilla
20
Q
what is thelarche
A
beginning of prepubertal breast development
21
Q
what is chancre
A
red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge that is a sign of syphilis
22
Q
what is condylomata acuminata
A
soft, pointed, fleshy papules that occur on the genitalia and are caused by HPV
23
Q
what is cryptorchidism
A
undescended testes
24
Q
what is cystitis
A
inflammation of the urinary bladder
25
what is epididymis
structures composed of coiled ducts located over the superior and posterior surface of the testes, which store sperm
26
what is epispadias
congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the dorsal (upper) side of penis instead of at the tip
27
what is a hernia
weak spot in abdominal muscle wall (usually in area of inguinal canal or femoral canal) through which a loop of bowel may protrude
28
what is herpes genitalis
a sexually transmitted infection characterized by clusters of small painful vesicles, caused by a virus
29
what is hydrocele
cystic fluid in tunica vaginalis surrounding the testis
30
what is hypospadias
congenital defect in which urethra opens on the ventral (under) side of penis rather that at the tip
31
what is orchitis
acute inflammation of testis, usually associated with mumps
32
what is paraphimosis
foreskin is advanced and tightly fixed over the glans penis
33
what is peyronle disease
nontender hard plaques on the surface of penis, associated with painful bending of penis during erection
34
what is phimosis
foreskin is advanced and tightly fixed over the glans penis
35
what is prepuce
foreskin, the hood or flap of skin over the glans penis that often is surgically removed after birth by circumcision
36
what is priapism
prolonged, painful erection of penis without sexual desire
37
what is the spermatic cord
collection of vas deferens, blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves that ascends along the testis and through the inguinal canal into the abdomen
38
what is the spermatocele
retention cyst in epididymis filled with milky fluid that contains sperm
39
what is torsion
sudden twisting of spermatic cord, a surgical emergency
40
what is varicocele
dilated tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord
41
what is the vas deferens
duct carrying sperm from the epididymis through the abdomen and then into the urethra
42
what is constipation
decrease in stool frequency, with difficulty passing of very hard, dry stools
43
what is a fissure
painful longitudinal tear in tissue
44
what is a hemorrhoid
flabby papules of skin or mucous membrane in the anal region caused by a varicose vein of the hemorrhoidal plexus
45
what is melena
blood in the stool
46
what is pruritus
itching or burning sensation in the skin
47
what is steatorrhea
excessive fat in the stool, as in gastrointestinal malabsorption of fat
48
what are the valves of Houston
set of three semilunar transverse folds that cross half the circumference of the rectal lumen
49
what is adnexa
accessory organs of the uterus
50
what is amenorrhea
absence of menstruation; termed secondary amenorrhea when menstruation has begun and then ceases; most common cause is pregnancy
51
what are bartholin glands
vestibular glands, located on either side of the vaginal orifice, that secretes a clear lubrication mucus during intercourse
52
what is a bloody show
dislodging of thick cervical mucus plus at the end of pregnancy, which is a sign of beginning of labor
53
what is a caruncle
small, deep red mass protruding from the urethral meatus, usually due to urethritis
54
what is a Chadwick sign
bluish discoloration of cervix that occurs normally in pregnancy at 6 to 8 weeks' gestation
55
what is chancre
red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge that is a sign of syphilis
56
what is clitoris
small, elongated erectile tissue in the female, located at anterior juncture of labia minora
57
what is cystocele
prolapse of urinary bladder and its vaginal mucosa into the vagina with straining or standing
58
what is dysmenorrhea
abdominal cramping and pain associated with menstruation
59
what is dyspareunia
painful intercourse
60
what is dysuria
painful urination
61
what is endometriosis
aberrant growths or endometrial tissue scattered throughout pelvis
62
what is fibroid
hard, painless nodules in uterine wall that cause uterine enlargement
63
what is gonorrhea
sexually transmitted infection characterized by purulent vaginal discharge or may have no symptoms
64
what is hegar sign
softening of cervix that is a sign of pregnancy, occurring at 10 to 12 weeks' gestation
65
what is hematuria
red-tinged or bloody urine
66
what is the hymen
membranous fold of tissue partly closing vaginal orifice
67
what is leukorrhea
whitish or yellowish discharge from the vaginal orifice
68
what is menarche
onset of first menstruation, usually between 11 and 13 years of age
69
what is menopause
cessation of menses, usually occurring around 48-51 years of age
70
what is menorrhagia
excessively heavy menstrual flow
71
what is multipara
condition of having two or more pregnancies
72
what is nullipara
condition of first pregnancy
73
what is papanicolaou test
(pap test) painless test used to detect cervical cancer
74
what is a polyp
cervical polyp is bright red, soft, pedunculated growth emerging from os
75
what is rectocele
prolapse of rectum and its vaginal mucosa into vagina with straining or standing
76
what is rectouterine pouch
deep recess formed by the peritoneum between the rectum and cervix
77
what is salpingitis
inflammation of fallopian tubes
78
what is skene glands
paraurethral glands
79
what is vaginitis
inflammation of the vagina
80
what is the vulva
external genitalia of the female
81
what is agnosia
loss of ability to recognize importance of sensory impression
82
what is agraphia
loss of ability to express thoughts in writing
83
what is amnesia
loss of memory
84
what is analgesia
loss of pain sensory
85
what is aphasia
loss of power of expression by speech, writing, or signs, or loss of comprehension of spoken or written language
86
what is apraxia
loss of ability to perform purposeful movements in the absence of sensory or motor damage
87
what is ataxia
inability to perform coordinated movements
88
what is athetosis
bizarre, slow, twisting, writhing movements, resembling a snake or worm
89
what is chorea
sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movement involving limbs, trunks, or face
90
what is clonus
rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of a muscle in response to a stretch
91
what is a coma
state of profound unconsciousness from which person cannot be aroused
92
what is decerebrate rigidity
arms stiffly extended, adducted, internally rotated, legs extended, plantar-flexed
93
what is decorticate rigidity
arms adducted and flexed, wrists and fingers flexed; legs extended, internally rotated, plantar-flexed
94
what is dysarthria
imperfect articulation of speech due to problems of muscular control resulting from central or peripheral nervous system damage
95
what is extinction
disappearance of conditioned response
96
what is dysphasia
impairment in speech consisting of lock of coordination and inability to arrange words in their proper order
97
what is fasciculation
rapid continuous twitching of resting muscle without movement of limb
98
what is flaccidity
loss of muscle tone, limp
99
what is graphesthesia
ability to "read" a number by having it traced on the skin
100
what is hemiplegia
loss of motor power(paralysis) on one side of the body, usually cause by a stroke; paralysis occurs on opposite the lesion
101
what is lower motor neuron
motor neuron in the peripheral nervous system with its nerve fiber extending out to the muscle and only its cell body in the central nervous system
102
what is myoclonus
rapid sudden jerk of a muscle
103
what is nuchal rigidity
stiffness in cervical neck area
104
what is nystagmus
back and forth oscillation of the eyes
105
what is opisthotonos
prolonged arching of back, with head and heals bent backward and meningeal irritation
106
what is paralysis
decreased or loss of motor function due to problem with motor nerve or muscle fibers
107
what is paraplegia
impairment of loss of motor and/or sensory function in the lower half of the body
108
what is paresthesia
abnormal sensation (burning, numbness, tingling, prickling etc.)
109
what is point localization
ability of the person to discriminate exactly where on the body the skin has been touched
110
what is proprioception
sensory information concerning body movements and position of the body in space
111
what is spasticity
continuous resistance to stretching by a muscle due to abnormally increased tension, with increased deep tendon reflexes
112
what is sterognosis
ability to recognize objects by feeling their form, size, and weight while the eyes are closed
113
what is a tic
a repetitive twitching of a muscle group at inappropriate times (wink, grimace)
114
what is a tremor
involuntary contraction of opposing muscle groups resulting in rhythmic movement of one or more joints
115
what is two point discrimination
ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin
116
what is upper motor neuron
nerve located entirely within the central nervous system
117
```
when examining a males patient's genital hair, which of the following is expected?
A. scant hair of the penis
B. thick hair on the scrotum
C. finer hair that that on the scalp
D. abundant hair in the pubic area
```
D. abundant hair in the pubis area
118
```
on examination of an uncircumcised patient's penis, which of the following is an expected finding?
A. phimosis
B. dry glans
C. erythematous glans
D. easily retracted foreskin
```
D. easily retracted foreskin
119
during scrotal inspection, which of the following is not an expected finding?
A. small sebaceous glands
B. right side lower than the left
C. increased pendulousness with age
D. darker skin than elsewhere on the body
B. right side lower than the left
120
```
on the posterolateral surface of each testis, you should expect to palpate the:
A. epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. median sulcus
D. Cowper gland
```
A. epididymis
121
to palpate hernias, you should insert your finger in the lower part of the scrotum and follow along the
A. vas deferens into the inguinal canal
B. epididymis into the pampiniform plexus
C. posterior rectal wall into the median sulcus
A. the vas deferens into the inguinal canal
122
which of the following responses indicates an intact cremasteric reflex?
A. the testicle and scrotum rise of the same side as the stimulus
B. the testicle and scrotum descend on the same side as the stimulus
C. the testicle and scrotum rise of the opposite side from the stimulus
D. the testicle and scrotum descend on the opposite side of the stimulus
A. the testicle and scrotum rise on the same side as the stimulus
123
during anal inspection, which technique can help make abnormalities easier to see?
A. ask the patient to bear down
B. tell the patient to hold his breath
C. have the patient tighten his anal sphincter
D. reassure the patient that the examination is not painful
A. ask the patient to bear down
124
```
as part of the rectal examination, bi-digital palpation is particularly useful for detecting
A. an anal fistula
B. sphincter laxity
C. a perianal abscess
D. and enlarged prostate
```
C. perianal abscess
125
on palpation, the prostate gland should
A. be boggy or spongy
B. feel similar to a pencil eraser
C. measure approximately 6 cm in diameter
D. protrude at least 1 cm into the rectum
B. feel similar to a pencil eraser
126
```
the nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment and notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the pt is supine. These findings are most consistent with:
A. a scrotal hernia
B. a femoral hernia
C. a direct inguinal hernia
D. an indirect inguinal hernia
```
D. an indirect inguinal hernia
127
```
a painful prolonged erection of the penis without sexual stimulation is known as:
A. orchitis
B. stricture
C. phimosis
D. priapism
```
D. priapism
128
```
when assessing the scrotum, the presence of multiple firm, nontender, yellow, 1 cm nodules are noted. the nurse knows, that these nodules are most likely:
A. from urethritis
B. sebaceous cysts
C. subcutaneous plaques
D. from an inflamed epididymis
```
B. sebaceous cysts
129
an older male client is concerned about his sexual performance. in the absence of disease, decreases in erectile function may be related to
A. side effects of medications
B. decreased estrogen levels in the body
C. decreased sperm production
D. decreased penile size
A. side effects of medications
130
```
when performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. this finding is:
A. called hypospadias
B. a results of phimosis
C. probably due to stricture
D. often associated with aging
```
A. called hypospadias
131
```
a client complains of "pain in m bottom when I have a bowl movement, and sometimes there is itching in that area." The nurse should assess for which problem?
A. pinworms
B. hemorrhoids
C. colon cancer
D. fecal incontinence
```
B. hemorrhoids
132
```
the nurse knows that the most common position from which to examine the rectal are is:
A. lithotomy
B. left-lateral recumbent
C. prone
D. supine
```
B. left-lateral recumbent
133
during an assessment of a newborn, the nurse expects to see which finding when the anal area is slightly stroked:
A. jerking of the legs
B. flexion of the knees
C. quick contraction of the anal sphincter
D. relaxation of the external anal sphincter
C. quick contraction of the anal sphincter
134
a 70-year old man complains of difficulty passing urine and frequency, especially at night. He also complains of back pain and burning during urination. Considering this history, what examination findings should the nurse expect?
A. asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate gland
B. occult blood and perianal pain to palpation
C. symmetrically enlarged, soft, prostate
D. soft nodule protruding from the rectal mucosa
A. asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate glands
135
the nurse is caring for a newborn infant. thirty hours after birth, the infant passes a dark green meconium stool. the nurse recognizes that this is important because the:
A. stool indicates anal patency
B. dark green color indicates occult blood in the stool
C. meconium stool can be reflective of distress in the newborn
D. newborns should have their first stool within 2 hours of birth
A. stool indicates anal patency
136
```
during examination, the nurse asks the patient to perform the valsalva maneuver and notices that the patient has a moist, doughnut-shaped protrusion from the anus. The nurse knows that this finding is consistent with:
A. rectal polyp
B. hemorrhoid
C. rectal fissure
D. rectal prolapse
```
D. rectal prolapse
137
in performing a breast exam, you know that it is especially important to exam the upper outer quadrant of the breast because:
A. the upper outer quadrant is the largest quadrant of the breast
B. the upper outer quadrant is the location of most breast tumors
C. the upper outer quadrant is where most of the suspensory ligaments attach
D. the upper outer quadrant is more prone to injury and calcifications than other locations in the breast
B. the upper outer quadrant is the location of most breast tumors
138
in performing an assessment of a woman's axillary lymph system, you will assess:
A. central, axillary, lateral, and sternal nodes
B. pectoral, lateral, anterior, and sternal nodes
C. central, lateral, pectoral, and subscapular nodes
D. lateral, pectoral, axillary, and suprascapular nodes
C. central, lateral, pectoral, and subscapular nodes
139
a mother contacts you and states that she is worried about her 10 year old daughter having breast cancer. she describes a unilateral enlargement of the right breast with associated tenderness. she is worried because the left breast is not enlarged. What would be the best response:
A. tell the mother that breast development is usually fairly symmetric and her daughter should be examined right away
B. tell the mother that breast cancer is common in pre-adolescent girls; therefore her daughter should be examined immediately
C. tell her that although you'd like to examine her daughter to rule out any problems, it is most likely normal breast development
D. tell her that it is unusual for developing breasts to feel tender and this is a concern
C. tell her that although you'd like to examine her daughter to rule out any problems, it is most likely normal breast development
140
while you are performing a breast health interview with a client, she states that she has noticed pain in her left breast. Your most appropriate response would be:
A. "don't worry about the pain, breast cancer is not painful"
B. "i would like some more information about the pain in your left breast"
C. "oh, i had pain like that after my son was born; it turned out to be a blocked milk duct"
D. "breast pain is almost always the result of fibrocystic breast tissue and so lets ignore it"
B. "i would like some more information about the pain in your left breast"
141
during you exam of a woman, you notice that her left breast is slightly larger that her right breast. Which of the following is true?
A. breasts should always be symmetric
B. this is probably due to breast-feeding and is nothing to worry about
C. this finding is not unusual, but you should verify that this is not a new finding or a recent change
D. this finding is very unusual and means she has an inflammation or growth
C. this finding is not unusual, but you should verify that this is not a new finding or a recent change
142
which statement best describes the proper order of examination for female genitalia?
A. bi-manual examination, speculum examination, rectovaginal examination
B. speculum examination, rectovaginal examination, bi-manual examination
C. speculum examination, bi-manual examination, rectovaginal examination
D. rectovaginal examination, bi-manual examination, speculum examination
C. speculum examination, bi-manual examination, rectovaginal examination
143
```
when performing the female genitalia exam, the examiner should have the client assume which position?
A. left side lying
B. sim's
C. prone
D. lithotomy
```
D. lithotomy
144
a patient calls you for instruction prior to having a pap smear, the most appropriate instructions are:
A. if you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina
B. avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina,or douching within 24 hours of your appointment
C. if you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you
D. we would like you to use a mild saline douche prior to your exam, you may pick this up at our office
B. avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina,or douching within 24 hours of your appointment
145
which of the following history questions is important to ask of the post-menopausal woman?
A. do you ever experience vaginal bleeding
B. are you sexually active
C. are you experiencing excessive vaginal wetness
D. what are you doing to protect yourself from pregnancy
A. do you ever experience vaginal bleeding
146
which of the following describes a normal finding on inspection of the female genitalia?
A. absence of hair
B. swollen, reddened labia
C. sticky, green/yellow vaginal discharge
D. dark, rugated vaginal wall
D. dark, rugated vaginal wall
147
during a pelvic exam, the examiner notes a bluish colored cervix. What is the significance of this finding?
A. it is know as chadwick's sign and is an early indication of pregnancy
B. it is known as cyanosis of the cervix and is consistent with HPV infection
C. it is a normal finding in older adults
D. it is known as Bartholin's condition and indicates a cervical cancer
A. it is know as chadwick's sign and is an early indication of pregnancy
148
which of the following are changes associated with menopause?
A.uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B. ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C. cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D. vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions and uterine hypertrophy
A.uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
149
a woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. the nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A. menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening
B. obstetric history because it is the most important information
C. urinary system history because thee may be problems in this area
D. sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first
A. menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening
150
```
when performing an external genitalia examination of a 10 year old girl, the nurse notes the following: no pubic hair, the mons and labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with which stage of sexual maturity, according to the sexual maturity rating scale:
A. stage 1
B: stage 2
C: stage 3
D: stage 4
```
A. stage 1
151
what is inflammation of the urinary bladder
cystitis
152
what is a non tender hard plaques on the surface of the penis, associated with painful bending of penis during erection
peyronie disease
153
what is blood in the stool called
melena
154
what is excessive fat in the stool, as in the gastrointestinal malabsorption of fat that occurs in liver dysfunction called
steatorrhea
155
what is a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation called
priapism
156
what is cystic fluid in the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testis
hydrocele
157
what is it called when the testes are undescended
cryptorchidism
158
what is dilated tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord called
varicocele
159
what is it called when the foreskin is retracted and fixed behind the glans penis
paraphimosis
160
what is the 1st cranial nerve
olfactory nerve
161
what is the 2nd cranial nerve
optic nerve
162
what is the 3rd cranial nerve
oculomotor nerve
163
what is the 4th cranial nerve
trochlear nerve
164
what is the 5th cranial nerve
trigeminal nerve
165
what is the 6th cranial nerve
abducens nerve
166
what is the 7th cranial nerve
facial nerve
167
what is the 8th cranial nerve
acoustic nerve
168
what is the 9th cranial nerve
glossopharyngeal nerve
169
what is the 10th cranial nerve
vagus nerve
170
what is the 11th cranial nerve
spinal accessory
171
what is the 12th cranial nerve
hypoglossal nerve
172
what is the function cranial nerve 1
smell
173
what is the function cranial nerve 2
vision
174
what is the function cranial nerve 3
opening of eyelids, pupil constriction
175
what is the function of cranial nerve 4
down and inward movement of the eye
176
what is the function of cranial nerve 5
muscles used to chew, sensation of the head
177
what is the function of cranial nerve 6
lateral movement of the eye
178
what is the function of cranial nerve 7
facial muscles, taste, saliva and tear secretion
179
what is the function of cranial nerve 8
hearing and equilibrium
180
what is the function of cranial nerve 9
swallowing, taste and gag reflex
181
what is the function of cranial nerve 10
talking and swallowing, general sensation from carotid body and sinus, carotid reflex
182
what is the function of cranial nerve 11
movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles
183
what is the function of cranial nerve 12
movement of the tongue
184
how do you test cranial nerve 1
smell in both nostrils
185
how do you test cranial nerve 2
visual fields and visual acuity
186
how do you test cranial nerve 3
PERRLA, cardinal positions of gaze
187
how do you test cranial nerve 4
cardinal positions of gaze
188
how do you test cranial nerve 5
superficial touch
189
how do you test cranial nerve 6
cardinal positions of gaze
190
how do you test cranial nerve 7
wrinkled forehead, close eyes tightly
191
how do you test cranial nerve 8
whispered voice test
192
how do you test cranial nerve 9
depress tongue, say "ahh", gag reflex
193
how do you test cranial nerve 10
gag reflex, swallowing, voice acuity
194
how do you test cranial nerve 11
rotate head and shrug shoulders against resistance
195
how do you test cranial nerve 12
stick out tongue, say "light, tight, dynamite"
196
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 1
sensory
197
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 2
sensory
198
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 3
mixed
199
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 4
motor
200
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 5
mixed
201
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 6
motor
202
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 7
mixed
203
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 8
sensory
204
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 9
mixed
205
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 10
mixed
206
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 11
motor
207
what type of nerve is cranial nerve 12
motor
208
what hormone stimulates breast changes
estrogen
209
when does the onset of breast development usually occur
between ages 8 and 9
210
what is the development of breast during embryonic life
ventral epidermal ridges, or milk lines are present and curve down from the axilla to the groin bilaterally
211
on the sexual maturity rating scale, what is the pre-adolescent stage
there is only a small elevated nipple
212
on the sexual maturity rating scale, what is the breast bud stage?
a small mound of breast and nipple develops; the areola widens
213
on the sexual maturity rating scale, what is the 3 part
the breast and areola enlarge, the nipple is flush with the breast surface
214
on the sexual maturity rating scale, what is the 4 part
the areola and nipple form a second mound over the breast
215
on the sexual maturity rating scale, what is the mature breast
only the nipple protrudes; the areola is flush with the breast contour
216
what happens to the breasts during pregnancy
the breasts enlarge and feel more nodular, the nipples grow larger and a darker brown
217
what happens to the breasts in an aging woman
the glandular tissue begins to atrophy, the breasts decrease in size, the elasticity decreases so the breasts droop and sag
218
how does the male breast differ from a female breast
the nipple is smaller
219
how is the timing of puberty influenced
by genetic and environmental factors
220
when do girls tend to get their first period
average of age 12.6 for black girls and 13 for white girls
221
how does inheriting BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 affect your risk of getting breast cancer
increased risk for developing breast and ovarian cancer
222
when should annual mammopraphy screening start
40
223
if you notice a lump what do you note
location, size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness
224
what are signs of retraction and inflammation
dimpling, edema, nipple retraction, fixation, deviation in nipple pointing
225
what is a plugged duct
common when milk is not removed completely because of poor latching, ineffective suckling, infrequent nursing, tender lump that may be reddened and warm to the touch
226
what is a breast abscess
rare complication of generalized infection if untreated, pocket of puss that feels hard, looks red, and is quite tender
227
what is mastitis
inflammatory mass before abscess formation, area is red, swollen, tender, very hot, and hard
228
what is carcinoma
bloody nipple discharge that is unilateral and from a single duct requires further investigation
229
what is intrductal papilloma
discrete benign tumors that arise in a single or multiple papillary ducts, palpable nodule
230
what is paget's disease
early lesion has unilateral, clear, yellow discharge and dry scaling crusts, later lesions show nipple redness, ulcerated with bloody discharge and erythematous plaque
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how many pairs of spinal nerves are there
31
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what is the basal ganglia
large bands of gray matter in two cerebral hemispheres that form subcortical associated motor system
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what does the basal ganglia do
initiate and coordinate movement and control automatic associated movements of body
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what is the thalamus
the main relay station where sensory pathways of spinal cord, cerebellum and brain stem form synapses
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what does the hypothalamus do
major respiratory center with many basic function(appetite, sex drive, temperature, heart rate, blood pressure)
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what does the hypothalamus do
major respiratory center with many basic function(appetite, sex drive, temperature, heart rate, blood pressure)
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what is the cerebellum
coiled structure located under the occipital love
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what does the cerebellum do
helps with coordination of voluntary movements, equilibrium, and muscle tone
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what is the midbrain
most anterior part of the brain stem, merges into the hypothalamus, and thalamus
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what is the pons
enlarged area containing ascending sensory and descending motor tracts
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what is the medulla
continuation of spinal cord in the brain, has vital autonomic centers
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what is the reflexes
basic defense mechanisms
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describe decorticate
arms like "C's" moves toward the cord, problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere
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describe decerebrate
arms like "e's" problems with midbrain or pons
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what does it mean if a person has a spastic hemiparesis
stroke or trauma,
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describe spastic hemiparesis
arm is immobile against the body, arms does not swing freely, leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step
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what does it mean if someone has a cerebellar ataxia gait
alcohol or barbiturate effect on cerebellum, cerebellar tumor, multiple sclerosis
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describe cerebellar ataxia gait
staggering, wide based gait, difficulty with turns, uncoordinated movement with positive Romberg sign
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what is the gait a person with parkinsons
posture is stooped, trunk is pitched forward, elbows, knees, and hips are flexed
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what is a scissor gate
knees cross or are in contact, like holding an orange between thighs
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what does is mean is you have a scissor gate
paraparesis of legs, multiple sclerosis
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what is a foot drop gate
lifts knee and foot up high and slaps it down hard and flat to compensate for footdrop
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what is a foot drop gate
lifts knee and foot up high and slaps it down hard and flat to compensate for footdrop
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what does it mean if someone has a foot drop
weakness of peroneal and anterior tibial muscles, LMN lesion at the spinal cord
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what is a waddling gait
when a person takes a step the opposite hip drops
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what causes a waddling gait
hip girdle muscle weakness caused by muscular dystrophy
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what is a short leg gait
leg length discrepancy,
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what causes a short leg gait
congenital dislocated hip, acquired shortening from disease, trauma
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what is cerebral palsy
mixed group of paralytic neuromotor disorders of infancy and childhood, due to damage to cerebral cortex, from a developmental defect, intrauterine meningitis, encephalitis, birth trauma
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what is muscular dystrophy
chronic, progressive wasting of skeletal musculature, which produces weakness, contracture and in sever cases respiratory dysfunction and death
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what is hemiplegia
damage to the corticospinal tract
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what is parkinsonism
loss of dopamine-containing neurons in the basal ganglia with motor tract dysfunction, (resting tremor, loss of balance, cognitive decline
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what is cerebellar dysfunction
a lesion in one hemisphere produces motor abnormalities on the opposite side
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what is multiple sclerosis
chronic progressive, immune-mediated disease in which axons experience inflammation
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how do you check for a hernia
have person stand and strain down
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when should someone do a self testicular exam
in the shower, once a month,
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on the sexual maturity rating scale for males what is the first stage
no pubic hair, fine body hair on abdomen (pre adolescent) penis and scrotum size and proportion the same as childhood,
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on the sexual maturity for males what is the second stage
few straight, slightly darker hairs at base of the penis, his is long and downy; penis has little to no enlargement, scrotum begins to enlarge
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on the sexual maturity for males what is the third stage
sparse growth over entire pubis, hair is darker, coarser, and curly; penis begins to enlarge especially in length, scrotum in enlarged
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what is the fourth stage on the sexual maturity for males
thick growth over pubic area but not on thighs, hair is coarse and curly as in adult; penis grows in length and diameter with development of glans; tests almost fully grown
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what is the fourth stage on the sexual maturity rating for boys
hair growth is spread over the thighs, penis and scrotum is the adult size and shape,
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what is blue urine caused by
medication side effect, food, dye after prostate surgery
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what is dark gray urine caused by
melanin, melanuria
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what causes tea colored urine
liver disease, blood in urine
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what causes pink urine
with menses, some foods, some laxatives, kidney stones, UTI
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what is genital herpes
cluster of small vesicles with surrounding erythema, which are often painful and erupt on the glans, foreskin, or anus
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what is carcinoma on the male genital
begins as red, raised, warty growth or as an ulcer with watery discharge, may have slough on glans and inner lip
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what is a pilonidial cyst or sinus
hair containing cyst or sinus located in the mid lines over the coccyx or lower scrum
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what is an anorectal fistula
abnormal passage from inner anus or rectum out to skin
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what is a fissure
a longitudinal tear in the superficial mucosa at the anal margin
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what is rectal prolapse
complete rectal mucous membrane protrudes through the anus
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what is a pruritus ani
intense perianal itching is caused by pinworm infection
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what is a abscess
localized cavity of pus from infection in a pararectal space
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what is a rectal polyp
protruding growths from the rectal mucous membrane that is fairly common
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what is a nulliparous cervix
cervix before childbirth
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what parous cervix
cervix after childbirth
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what is pediculosis pubis
crab lice; severe perineal itching
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what is herpes simplex virus
episodes of local pain, dysuria, and fever, clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema, erupts of genital areas and inner thigh
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what is red rash or contact dermatitis
red, swollen vesicles, may have weeping lesions, crusts, scales, thickening of skin, excoriations from scratching
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what is syphilitc chancre
STI begins as a small, solitary silvery papule that erodes to a round, red superficial ulcer with a yellow serous discharge,
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what is the HPV virus
painless, warty growths, may be unnoticed by women, pink or flesh-colored, soft, pointed, moist, warty papules, cauliflower-like papules
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what is a abscess of Bartholin's gland
overlying skin red, shiny, and hot. posterior part of labia swollen; palpable fluctuant mass and tenderness
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what is cystocele
feeling of pressure in vagina, stress incontinence
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what is rectocele
feeling a pressure in vagina, constipation
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what is uterine prolapse
uterus protrudes into vagina
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what is erosion of the cervix
cervical lips inflamed and eroded
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what is diethylstilbestrol (DES) syndrom
prenatal exposure to DES causes rare tumor and cervical and vaginal abnormalities not apparent until adolescence
