Test #4 Flashcards
(205 cards)
1
Q
Which lung has more lobes?
A
The right
2
Q
Where does gas exchange take place?
A
Alveolar capillary membrane
3
Q
What is ventilation?
A
The movement of air in and out of the respiratory system
4
Q
What causes air to enter into the lungs?
A
Decreased intrathoracic pressure as the diaphragm increases the space in the lungs
5
Q
What is respiration?
A
The process of gas exchange at the alveolar level and the diffusion of gases in the blood
6
Q
What is the V/Q ratio?
A
Ventilation perfusion ratio
(Air flow to blood flow)
Normal is 4:5
7
Q
What causes a low V/Q ratio?
A
Shunting where perfusion exceeds ventilation
The oxygen and carbon dioxide are there but they cannot be exchanged
8
Q
What is perfusion?
A
Flow of blood to the capillaries
9
Q
What is tidal volume?
A
The volume of air taken in and out with each breath
10
Q
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
A
Additional air which can be inhaled after a normal inhalation
11
Q
What is expiratory reserve volume?
A
The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled
12
Q
What is vital capacity?
A
The maximum volume of air exhaled from a maximal inspiration
13
Q
What is forced expiratory volume?
A
Volume exhaled forcefully over time in seconds
14
Q
What is peak flow rate?
A
Maximal expiratory flow
15
Q
What is a normal pH?
A
7.35-7.45
16
Q
What is a normal PaCO2?
A
35-45
17
Q
What is a normal HCO3?
A
22-26
18
Q
What is a normal PaO2?
A
80-100
19
Q
How fast can the respiratory system effect change for the pH?
A
15-30 minutes
20
Q
How fast can the renal system effect change for the pH?
A
Hours to days
21
Q
What are the signs of respiratory acidosis?
A
- Hypoventilation
- Hypoxia (results from hypoventilation)
- Decreased BP
- Dyspnea
- Headache
- Hyperkalemia
- Dysrhythmias due to increased K
- Drowsiness, dizziness, disorientation (neurological changes)
22
Q
What are the signs of metabolic acidosis?
A
- Kussmaul’s to compensate (hyperventilation)
- Headache
- Decreased BP
- Hyperkalemia (watch for cardiac changes)
- Warm, flushed skin from vasodilation
- Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
- Changes in LOC
- Potential for seizures
23
Q
What are some causes of alkalosis?
A
Hyperventilation from:
- Anxiety
- Pulmonary embolism
- High altitude
- Pregnancy
- Overuse of antacids
- Loss of gastric juices
- Potassium wasting diuretics
24
Q
What are the signs of respiratory alkalosis?
A
- Seizures
- Rapid, deep breathing
- Hyperventilation
- Tachycardia
- Hypokalemia
- Numbness or tingling of extremities
- Lethargy and confusion
- Nausea, vomiting
25
What are the signs of metabolic alkalosis?
- Restlessness followed by lethargy
- Tachycardia
- Compensatory hypoventilation (bradypnea)
- Decreased LOC
- Tremors, muscle cramps, tingling, tetany
- Hypokalemia (watch for EKG changes)
26
Use of birth control pills increases change of what?
Blood clots and pulmonary embolisms
27
In alkalosis, the body dumps what to compensate for lack of hydrogen?
Body dumps potassium
28
What four processes result in metabolic acidosis?
- Overproduction of hydrogen ions (lactic acidosis, DKA)
- Under elimination of hydrogen ions (Kidney failure)
- Under production of bicarbonate (Kidney failure, impaired liver or pancreas)
- Over elimination/loss of bicarbonate (Vomiting and diarrhea)
29
What is the one underlying cause of respiratory acidosis?
What are some examples of causes (depress)?
Retention of CO2
D: Drugs, diseases of the neuromuscular system
E: Edema in the lungs
P: Pneumonia and excessive mucus production
R: Respiratory center of the brain is damaged
E: Emboli (can block branches of the lungs which means CO2 cannot get out and air cannot get in)
S: Spasm of bronchial tubes (asthma)
S: Sac elasticity (reduced in COPD)
30
What are the causes of respiratory alkalosis?
T: Temperature increase in body
A: Aspirin toxicity (causes body to hyperventilate)
C: Controlled mechanical ventilation
H: Hyperventilation
Y: Hysteria/anxiety
P: Pain, pregnancy
N: Neurological injury
E: Emboli
A: Asthma due to hyperventilation
31
What is the pathophysiology of respiratory alkalosis?
- Expelling too much CO2 due to tachypnea (hyperventilation)
- Kidneys excrete excess bicarbonate
32
What are the signs of respiratory alkalosis?
- Fast respiratory rate
- Neurological changes, tired
- Increased heart rate from working so hard
- Tetany, EKG changes, muscle cramps, positive chvostek's sign
- Hypokalemia
33
What are the causes of metabolic acidosis (acidotic)?
A: Aspirin toxicity
C: Carbohydrates not metabolized
I: Insufficiency of kidneys
D: Diarrhea (body fluids are rich in bicarb), DKA
O: Ostomy drainage
T: Fistula
I: Intake of too much fat
C: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
34
What is the pathophysiology of metabolic alkalosis?
- Body has lost an excessive amount of hydrogen ions or body has increased bicarb production
- Lungs start trying to compensate and cause hypoventilation
35
What are the causes of metabolic alkalosis?
A: Excessive aldosterone (causes body to keep sodium which offloads hydrogen and potassium)
L: Loop diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide), causes you to pee of hydrogen ions
K: Alkali ingestion (baking soda, antacids, milk)
A: Anticoagulant (citrate), if you get a massive transfusion
L: Loss of fluids (severe vomiting, NG suction)
I: Increased bicarb administration
36
What is the pathophysiology of anemia?
Decreased red blood cell production (or increased destruction) leads to decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
37
Which two things can cause decreased red blood cell production?
1) Bone marrow deficiency (aplastic anemia, cancer)
2) Nutritional deficiency: iron, folate, B12, copper, chronic blood loss
38
What are the symptoms of decreased red blood cell production?
Pallor, tachycardia, headache, fatigue, shortness of breath, weakness, murmur
39
What are the symptoms of anemia from blood loss?
Pallor, fatigue, headache, weakness, cool skin, tachycardia, decreased peripheral pulses, low blood pressure
40
What are the symptoms of anemia from increased red blood cell destruction?
Yellow sclera, pallor, fatigue, headache, dark urine, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
41
What is the most common type of anemia in children and how is it usually treated?
Iron-deficiency
Usually from excessive intake of cow's milk and low iron
Vitamin C needed to absorb iron
42
What are the clinical features of sickle-cell anemia?
- Obstruction caused by sickled red blood cells (causes local hypoxia)
- Vascular inflammation
- Increased red blood cell destruction
43
What medication can we give for sickle cell anemia?
Hydroxyurea: causes red blood cells to be bigger and rounder
L-glutamate therapy increases the amount of free glutamate to reduce oxidative stress
44
What are some nursing considerations for patients with sickle cell anemia?
- Preventative antibiotics
- Avoid contact sports
- Give pain medications
- Promote rest
- Do not use ice
- Avoid aspirin
- Avoid skin puncture
45
What is the pertinent family education for patients with sickle cell anemia?
- Seek early intervention
- Recognize signs of stroke!
These children are prone to clotting
46
What is the first organ affected in a vaso-occlusive crisis?
Spleen
47
What will labs look like in iron deficiency anemia?
Low red blood cells, hematocrit, and hemoglobin
48
What is the physical presentation of sickle cell anemia?
Pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, pallor, jaundice (due to RBC breakdown)
49
What will labs look like in sickle cell anemia?
Decreased hemoglobin, increased white blood cells, elevated bilirubin
50
What are the characteristics of beta thalassemia?
Inherited genetic disorder which causes defective synthesis of hemoglobin, structural impairment of red blood cells, shorted red blood cell lifespan
51
What are the symptoms of beta thalassemia?
Pallor, fatigue, heart failure, cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly
52
How is beta thalassemia treated?
Blood transfusion
Stem cell transplant
Bone marrow transplant
53
What is aplastic anemia?
When all components of the bone marrow are suppressed (RBC, WBC, platelets)
Can be primary or accquired
54
How is primary aplastic anemia treated?
Bone marrow suppression, transplantation
55
What are the symptoms of aplastic anemia?
Infection, fatigue, fever, tachycardia, petechiae, purpura, bloody stools, weakness, neutropenia can lead to infection
56
What neutrophil count qualifies for neutropenia?
Less than 1500
57
What is hemophelia?
An X linked inherited bleeding disorder that impairs clotting
Hemophilia A: Factor 8 (VIII)
Hemophilia B: Factor 9 (IX)
58
Female carriers have what chance of passing hemophilia to son's?
50%
59
What percentage of cases are caused by a new mutation?
30%
60
What are the clinical manifestations of hemophilia?
Hemarthrosis, bleeding
61
What are the treatments for hemophilia?
- Replace missing clotting factor
- Control bleeding
- Desmopressin shown to increase factor 8 (A)
- Gene therapy
62
What are the nursing considerations for patients with hemophelia?
- Limit invasive procedures
- Limit joint involvement
- Avoid aspirin
- Avoid IM injections, rectal temps, contact sports
63
What medication prevents transmission of HIV from mother to child?
HAART
64
How is severe combined immunodeficiency treated?
- Prevent infection
- Donor bone marrow, IVIG, prophylaxis
65
What are the chracteristics of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
- Thrombocytopenia (platelets less than 150,000)
- Eczema
- Immunodeficiency of B and T cells
- X linked recessive inheritance
66
What labs are consistent with hemophilia?
APTT, PT, Platelets
- APTT levels prolonged (normal: 30-40 seconds)
- PT normal (11-13 seconds)
- Platelets normal (150,000-450,000)
67
What are the characteristics of COPD?
A progressive condition which blocks air getting into the lungs and CO2 getting out
Either chronic bronchitis or emphysema
68
What are the characteristics of chronic bronchitis?
Chronic infection which is accompanied by mucus buildup impairs gas exchange
69
What is emphysema?
Lung damage caused by weakening or breaking of the alveoli
70
What is COPD usually caused by?
Long term exposure to irritants
71
What are the symptoms of COPD?
- Easily fatigued
- Frequent respiratory infections
- Use of accessory muscles
- Orthopnea
- Cord pulmonale (right sided heart failure)
- Wheezing
- Pursed lip breathing
- Chronic cough
- Barrel chest
- Prolonged expiratory time
- Digital clubbing
72
How is COPD treated?
- Smoking cessation
- Short-acting bronchodilators (albuterol)
- Long-acting bronchodilators (salmeterol)
- Inhaled steroids (budesonide, fluticasone)
73
What percentage of COPD exacerbations are viral and what percentage are bacterial?
50% viral, 50% bacterial
74
What are some non-infectious causes of a COPD exacerbation?
Allergies, smoking, pollution, stress, nonadherance
75
What is pneumonia?
Infection in the alveoli which causes inflammation and leakage of fluid into the air sacs
76
What does the fluid inside the air sacs do?
Blocks gas exchange
77
What are the symptoms of pneumonia?
Dyspnea, wet cough, fever, chest pain secondary to inflammation, clammy or blue skin, low BP, nausea, vomiting, hemoptysis
78
What is a pulmonary embolism?
A blood clot in the lungs
79
How is a PE diagnosed?
Elevated d-dimer, chest x ray, VQ scan
80
How do we treat a PE?
Anticoagulants and thrombolytics (streptokinase, alteplase)
81
What is the standard course of heparin therapy for a PE?
5-10 days
82
Where do you want the PTT for a patient on heparin?
1.5 - 2.5 x the patients control
83
What is the antidote for heparin?
Protamine sulfate
84
What is the standard course of coumadin for a PE?
3-6 months
85
What is the goal INR for a coumadin patient after a PE?
2.0-3.0
86
What is the antidote for coumadin?
Vitamin K
87
Which foods are high in vitamin K?
Leafy greens
88
Which foods are high in vitamin K?
Leafy greens
89
What is a pneumothorax?
The collapsing of a lung due to air accumulating in the pleural space
90
What are the causes of a pneumothorax?
Spontaneous, trauma to the chest, mechanical ventilation with PEEP
91
How is a pneumothorax diagnosed?
X-ray or CT scan
92
What is a closed penumothorax?
Air leaks into the pleural space without a chest wound
Fractured rib, spontaneous
93
What is an open pneumothorax and how do you treat it?
An open wound allows air to pass in and out of the lungs and bypass the trachea
Sucking chest wound
Place a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
94
What is a tension pneumothorax and why is it a medical emergency?
An opening creates a one way valve, which means air collects and cannot get out
A medical emergency due to mediastinal shift
95
Why is a tension pneumothorax a medical emergency?
Pressure is placed on the health lung and heart, and mediastinal shift will compress the vena cava which decreases venous return
96
What are the symptoms of a tension penumothorax?
Hypoxia, tachypnea, tachycardia, low blood pressure, reduced cardiac output, jugular venous distension, tracheal deviation, mediastinal shift
Patient is going into shock
97
What is acute respiratory failure?
A condition that occurs as a result of an underlying process
There is either insufficient O2 transferred to the blood or inadequate CO2 removed from the lungs
98
What are the two ways acute respiratory failure manifests?
Hypoxemia: low oxygen
Hypercapnia: high CO2
99
What are some examples of hypoxic respiratory failure?
ARDS, pneumonia, inhalation, PE
100
What are some examples of hypercapnic respiratory failure?
Asthma, COPD, cystic fibrosis, muscular dystrophy
101
What are some causes of acute respiratory failure?
Airway obstruction, respiratory diseases (COPD, asthma), neurological cause, chest wall injury, alveolar disorders (pneumonia, COPD)
102
What is the most common cause of acute respiratory failure?
COPD
103
What percentage of PE patients have no symptoms?
50%
104
What are some risk factors for PE?
Birth control use, history of DVT, sedentary lifestyle, obesity
105
What are early signs of ARF?
Dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, restlessness, confusion, increased BP, decreased O2, rise in CO2
106
What does hypercapnia cause and what are the symptoms?
Depressed central nervous system function and vasodilation
- Dyspnea
- Headache
- Peripheral vasodilation
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Slow respiration
- Respiratory acidosis
- Increasing CO2 no long stimulates breathing center
107
Why don't we want to give COPD patients too much oxygen?
They are desensitized to CO2 and rely on low oxygen to trigger their breathing, so if we give then too much oxygen they will stop breathing
108
How do we diagnose ARF?
ABG, chest x-ray, pulse ox, CBC, electrolytes, ECG, VQ scan
109
What is the usual oxygen flow for a COPD patient and what do you want to watch for?
1-2 L/minute and watch for changes in mental status
110
What is acute respiratory distress syndrome?
A severe, sudden form of acute respiratory failure
111
What happens during ARDS?
The alveolar capillary membrane is damaged and permeable to intravascular fluid
The alveoli fill with fluid which results in severe dyspnea and hypoxemia, refractory to O2 therapy
112
What is the main characteristic of ARDS?
Despite 100% oxygen, P/F ratio is less than 200 (normal is greater than 400)
113
What is FiO2?
The percent of O2 inspired or breathed
114
What is PaO2
Partial pressure of oxygen, does not reflect if it is being used by the hemoglobin
Normal is 80-100
115
What is an O2 sat?
Percent of hemoglobin bound to oxygen
116
What is the P/F ratio?
PaO2 to FiO2
A clinical indicator of hypoxemia
117
What are the specific characteristics of ARDS that separate it from ARF?
- Chest white out (bilateral and diffuse infiltrates)
- Lack of evidence for left ventricular dysfunction
- Rapid onset
- P/F ratio less than 200
118
What are some causes of ARDS?
Not a primary process but may result from the following:
- Infection
- Shock (hemorrhagic, septic)
- Inhalation injuries
- Drug overdose
- Trauma
119
What is the most common cause of ARDS?
Sepsis
120
What are the symptoms of ARDS?
- Rapid onset
- Tachypnea
- Anxiety
- Progressive respiratory distress with rising respiratory rate
- Intercostal retractions and accessory muscle use
- Cyanosis
- Initially clear breath sounds which worsen
- Agitation, confusion, lethargy
- Nasal flaring
121
What is CPAP?
Continuous positive airway pressure
122
What is PEEP?
Positive end expiratory pressure
123
What percentage of cancer deaths are related to lung cancer
28%
124
What is the five year survival rate for lung cancer?
15%
125
Which gender is more likely to develop lung cancer?
Women
126
What percentage of lung cancers are non-small cell lung cancers?
80%
127
What percentage of lung cancer patients have no symptoms?
25%
128
What are the symptoms of lung cancer?
Shortness of breath
Chest pain
Hemoptysis
Shoulder pain
Paralysis of vocal cords
Hoarseness
Dysphagia
Pneumonia
129
What are the subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell
Large cell
130
What are the characteristics of adenocarcinoma?
- Not related to smoking
- Most common
- Usually no signs until metastasis
- Does not respond well to chemotherapy
131
What are the characteristics of squamous cell?
- Almost always related to smoking or environmental carcinogens
- Earlier diagnosis because of constricted bronchioles
132
What are the characteristics of large cell?
- High correlation with smoking and exposure to carcinogens
- Least common form of NSCLC
- Surgery usually not successful due to high rate of metastasis
133
What are the characteristics of small cell lung cancer?
- Associated with smoking and environmental exposure
- Most malignant form of lung cancer
- Associated with endocrine disturbance
- Causes bronchial constriction
- Average survival is 16 months
134
What are the characteristics of syndrome of inappropriate ADH?
- Edema
- Hyponatremia
- Coagulation abnormalities
135
What are some risk factors for TB?
- Exposure
- Immigration from high incidence country
- Injectable illegal drug use
- High risk settings
136
What are the symptoms of tuberculosis?
- Night sweats
- Hemoptysis
- Progressive fatigue
- Malaise
- Weight loss
- Chronic, productive cough
- Chest pain
- Low grade fever in the late afternoon
137
How does TB spread?
Airborne
138
What is the patient teaching for TB discharge?
- Dispose of secretions properly
- Take full regimen of medications (full six months)
139
A patient with TB is considered contagious until which criteria are met?
- 3 negative sputum cultures
- Improving symptoms
- On medication for 2+ weeks
140
What are the first line drugs for TB?
Isoniazid, Rifampin, Purazinamide
141
What are second line drugs for TB?
Streptomycin, cycloserine, p-aminsalicylic acid
142
How do you measure an oral pharygeal airway and which way do you put it in?
From the midpoint of the incisors to the angle of the mandible
Put it in upside down and turn
143
How do you measure a nasal pharyngeal airway?
From the lateral edge of the nostril to the tragus of the ear
144
What is peak airway pressure?
How much pressure is occuring in the lungs
145
Why are all the pressures in the lungs positive during mechanical ventilation?
Because all the air is pushed instead of pulled
146
What are the characteristics of asthma?
- Characterized by hyper-reactive and inflamed airways
- Excessive fluid, tightening of muscles, and overproduction of mucus
147
What is restrictive lung disease and what are some examples?
Lungs are not able to expand on inspiration, lungs become stiff, often arises from structural problems with the lungs
Scarring, muscle disease in chest wall, protein deposits in lungs
148
What is obstructive lung disease and what are some examples?
Lungs are not able to collapse back to normal size (problems with expiration), lungs stay expanded and CO2 cannot get out
Mucus plug, collapsed airway, COPD
149
What disease represent problems with exchange?
Fluid in alveoli, pneumonia, secretions, edema in lungs
150
What is one nursing consideration for ARDS?
Do not give steroids
151
True or false - ARDS always requires ventilation?
True
152
Where do lung cancers most commonly start?
The bronchi
153
What percent of TB infections are latent and why?
90% - granulomas form around bacteria
154
What does a peak flow meter do and how do you use it? What is normal value?
Measures lung capacity
Stand up straight, breath in, hold breath, position device, blow hard
Peak flow depends on height but should be above 400 for women and above 600 for men
155
What IQ number qualifies for intellectual disability?
Below 70
156
What are the characteristics of intellectual disabilities?
- IQ less than 70
- Limitations in communication skills, self care, home living, social skills, self-direction, academic work
157
What are some of the hereditary causes of intellectual disability?
Tay sachs, fragile x
158
What are the characteristics of autism spectrum disorder?
Pervasive, usually severe impairment of reciprocal social interaction skills, communication, and restricted stereotypical behavioral patterns
159
What are some autism spectrum disorders?
- Classic autism
- Rett's disorder
- Childhood disintegrative disorder
- Asperger's disorder
160
When does autism usually present?
18 months to 3 years
161
What are some of the characteristics of autistic behavior patterns?
Little eye contact, few facial expressions, limited communication, limited ability to relate to peers, inability to engage
162
What are the characteristics of tic disorder?
Rapid, sudden, recurrent, nonrhythmic motor movement or vocalization
163
How are tic disorders typically treated?
Atypical antipsychotics (olanzapine or risperidone)
164
What are the characteristics of Tourette's disorder?
Multiple motor tics, one or more vocal tics
165
What are the characteristics of learning disorders?
Achievement in reading, mathematics, and written expression is below the expected level for child's age
166
What is developmental coordination disorder and what does it often coexist with?
Marked impairment of coordination which interferes with ADLs or academic achievement
Often concurrent with a communication disorder
167
What are the characteristics of stereotypic movement disorder?
- Rhythmic, repetitive behavior
- Self inflicted injuries common, pain not a deterrent
168
What are the characteristics of communication disorders?
Communication deficit severe enough to hinder engagement, achievement, or ADLs
169
What are the types of communication disorders?
- Expressive
- Mixed
- Receptive
- Phonologic: inability to correctly form the sounds of words
- Stuttering
170
What is encopresis?
Defecating in inappropriate places
Child must be at least four, can be intentional or involuntary
171
What is enuresis?
Repeated urination during the day or night in clothes or bed
Child must be at least 5, usually involuntary, intentional often associated with behavior disorder
172
What are the characteristics of ADHD?
- Inattentiveness, overactivity, impulsiveness
- Often diagnosed when starting school
- Inability to follow directions, fidgeting, noisy, disruptive
173
What are some common medications for ADHD?
Stimulants: Ritaliin, Adderall
Antidepressants
Non-stimulants: atomoxetine
Antihypertensives: Clonidine, guanfacine
174
What are the characteristics of disruptive behavior disorders?
Anger, hostility, and aggression directed towards people or property
Inability to manage own behavior according to social norms
175
What are the types of disruptive behavior disorders?
- Intermittent explosive disorder
- Oppositional defiant disorder
- Conduct disorder
- Kleptomania
- Pyromania
176
What is kleptomania?
Impulsive, repetitive theft of items not needed by the person
177
What is pyromania?
Repeated, intentional fire setting
178
What is the typical age of onset for intermittent explosive disorder and what does it involve?
Adolescent to young adult, but only diagnosed after 18 years of age
Aggression towards people or property
179
What is oppositional defiant disorder and when does it usually begin?
An enduring pattern of uncooperative, defiant, disobedient, and hostile behavior without antisocial violations
Usually directed at authority figures
Begins in adolescence
180
What percentage of people with oppositional defiant disorder develop conduct disorder and what percent will be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder?
25% diagnosed with conduct disorder
10% diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder
181
What are the major characteristics of oppositional defiant disorder?
Frequent, intense behavior which leads to issues with academics, social and work life
Impaired problem solving, decreased attention and inflexible thinking
Low self esteem
Limited insight into consequences of behavior
182
What is conduct disorder and what are the two subtypes?
Persistent antisocial behavior
Childhood - before age 10
Adolescent - after age 10
183
What is cognition?
The processes by which we gain knowledge and comprehension
184
What is a neurocognitive disorder?
A reduction or impairment of cognitive function in one of the following areas:
- perception
- defragmentation of concepts
- memory
- association and recall
Affects the person's ability to care for self
185
Neurocognitive disorders often occur after what?
Change in the brain resulting from things like neurological illness, mental illness, drug use, or brain injury
186
What are some examples of neurocognitive disorders?
Delirium, dementia, amnesia
187
What are the characteristics of delirium?
Acute, reversible, due to underlying cause
188
What are the symptoms of delirium?
- Alterations in level of consciousness
- Abrupt onset
- Disorganized thinking
- Poor executive function
- Disorientation
- Agitation, anxiety
- Poor memory
- Hallucinations
189
What is the most common pharmacological treatment for delirium and why?
Haldol
- Few anticholinergic side effects
- Smaller likelihood of causing hypotension or sedation
190
What are the characteristics of dementia?
- Stable level of consciousness
- Steady attentiveness
- Chronic
- Slow onset
- Undetermined cause
- Irreversible
191
What is the difference between major and minor dementia?
Major impacts ADLs, minor does not
192
What are some causes of dementia?
Genetics, infection (parkinsons, amniotic disorders), vascular insufficiency
193
What is the most common type of demetia?
Alzheimer's
194
What is the pathophysiology of alzheimer's?
- Plaques made of amyloid proteins accumulate in neurotransmitter synapses
- Tau protein strands interfere with neuronal transport
Lead to death of neurons
195
What is aphasia?
Disruption of ability to communicate
196
What is apraxia?
Inability to perform tasks of movement
197
What is agnosia?
Inability to process sensory information
198
What is amnesia?
Loss of memory
199
What is anomia?
Inability to recall names of everyday objects
200
What is Karsakoff's syndrome?
Disturbance in memory due to long term alcohol use
201
What is confabulation?
The fabrication of imaginary memories to compensate for memory loss
202
What is perseveration?
The repetition of a word, phrase, or behavior even though the original stimulus for the action has passed
203
What is echolalia?
Meaningless repetition of another person's words
204
What is palilalia?
A speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetition of one's own words or phrases
205
Can you identify these lung volumes?
A-E
A: inspiratory reserve volume
B: tidal volume
C: expiratory reserve volume
D: residual volume
E: vital capacity
