Test #5 Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

For diagnosis in diabetes, what must the fasting plasma glucose be? random plasma glucose? oral glucose tolerance test?

A

greater than 126; greater than 200 with symptoms of diabetes; greater than 200 after 2h of glucose intake

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2
Q

How often should you monitor the A1 C

A

Every 3 to 6 months depending on previous value

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3
Q

In addition to high blood sugar what secondary disease should be corrected when treating diabetes

A

Hyperlipidemia

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4
Q

When are medications started in diabetic treatment

A

Upon diagnosis

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5
Q

What is included in step two of type II diabetes treatment

A

Add a second drug and consider a sulfonylurea for basal insulin if patient does not achieve goal with these drugs

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6
Q

What is included in step three of type II diabetes treatment

A

Progress to a three drug combination

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7
Q

What is included in step 4 of diabetes management

A

If a three drug combination therapy including insulin does not achieve treatment goals after 3 to 6 months, proceed to a combination injectable regimen including insulin and possibly a GLP 1 receptor agonist

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8
Q

What stuff do you start out if a patient has an A1 C of 9% or higher at the time of diagnosis

A

Step two, 2-drug therapy

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9
Q

What step do you start at if the patient has an A1 C of 10% or greater, has a fasting blood glucose of 300 or more, or is markedly symptomatic?

A

Start at step 4 - combination injectable therapy

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10
Q

What are the target values for a blood glucose before meals and at bedtime

A

before meals - 70-130

at bedtime - 100-140

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11
Q

The A1 C a should be measured every ___ months until the value drops below 7 percent in at least every ___ month thereafter

A

3,6

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12
Q

The presence of what in the blood indicates the pancreas is still producing some insulin of its own

A

The presence of C-peptide

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13
Q

Activation of beta2 adrenergic preceptors in the pancreas ___ secretion of insulin and activation of alpha-adrenergic preceptors in the pancreas ____ insulin release

A

promotes; inhibits

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14
Q

Insulin is responsible for what metabolic actions

A

Increased glucose uptake and storage, increased amino acid uptake and synthesis, and conversion of fatty acids into triglycerides

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15
Q

Stewart acting insulins must be used in conjunction with what in patients with type I diabetes

A

Intermediate or long acting insulin

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16
Q

What kind of insulin is insulin lispro and how long does it take for effects to begin and how long do they last

A

Rapid acting analog; 15 to 30 minutes; 3 to 6 hours

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17
Q

Which insulin is administered 30 to 60 minutes before a meal

A

Regular insulin

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18
Q

What is the onset time and the duration of insulin aspart

A

10 to 20 minutes and lasts 3 to 5 hours

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19
Q

How long does regular insulin last

A

Up to 10 hours

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20
Q

Which insulin is the only one suitable for mixing with short acting insulin

A

NPH

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21
Q

What is the onset and duration of lantus

A

70 minutes, 18 to 24 hours

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22
Q

In pregnancy, when are insulin needs increased and decreased

A

Increased after the first trimester and decreased during the first trimester

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23
Q

What is defined as hypoglycemia

A

Blood sugar less than 70

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24
Q

What does alcohol do to blood sugar

A

Lowers it

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25
What is a fatal complication of metformin
Lactic acidosis
26
does metformin stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas?
no
27
who shoudl you be cautious in prescribing metformin to? why?
renally impaired patients because it is excreted unchanged
28
What is the mechanism of action metformin
inhibits glucose production in the liver, reduces glucose absorption in the gut, and sensitizes insulin receptors in target tissues resulting in increased glucose uptake
29
Metformin decreases absorption of which two vitamins
Vitamin B 12 and folic acid
30
What are the early signs of lactic acidosis
Hyper ventilation, myalgia, malaise, and unusual somnolence
31
What are the two major side effects of sulfonylureas
Hypoglycemia and weight gain
32
With regard to sulfonylureas, hypoglycemic reactions are more common in which patients?
Liver and renally impaired
33
sulfonylureas are contraindicated in which patients
Pregnant and breast-feeding
34
What is the difference between sulfonylureas and meglitinides
The glinides are shorter acting and are taken with each meal
35
A patient who does not respond to a sulfonylurea will likely not respond to which other class
Glinides
36
It is imperative that patients eat no later than 30 minutes after taking which drug
glinides
37
How do TZDs work
Reduce glucose levels by decreasing insulin resistance
38
how does pioglitazone work
Enhances responses to insulin
39
What is the black box warning for Pioglitazone
Heart failure secondary to renal retention of fluid so discontinue or use in reduced dosage
40
Which antidiabetic medication has been associated with heart attack
rosiglitazone
41
Which antidiabetic medication can cause ovulation
pioglitazone
42
Which antidiabetic medication may causing an increased risk for bladder cancer
pioglitazone
43
Which antidiabetic medication can cause increased risk for fractures in women
pioglitazone
44
Monitor which labs with pioglitazone admin?
liver function tests
45
Which antidiabetic medication delays the absorption of carbohydrates
a-glucosidase inhibitors
46
Which antidiabetic medication G.I. upset and a risk for anemia
Acarbose
47
When the patient is taking acarbose and develops hypoglycemia, the patient must receive what and not what?
Glucose and not sucrose
48
What labs should be monitored when acarbose is administered
lfts
49
Which antidiabetic medication enhances the actions of incretin hormones by preventing incretin breakdown
gliptins
50
which antidiabetic medication enhances the actions of incretin hormones by mimicking incretin actions
GLP-1 receptor agonists
51
Inform the patients taking which medication for diabetes about fatal pancreatitis and hypersensitivity reactions
sitagliptin
52
Which medication for diabetes is used only as adjunct therapy
sitagliptin
53
Which medication for diabetes reduces resorption of filtered glucose and causes all glucose to be excreted in the urine
canagliflozin
54
What are the most common side effects of canagliflozin?
Female genital fungal infections, urinary tract infections, and increased urination
55
What can happen if you combine rifampin, phenytoin, or phenobarbital with canagliflozin?
Decreased efficacy of canagliflozin
56
What will happen if you combine canagliflozin and a diuretic?
Risk for dehydration and hypotension
57
Which antidiabetic medication slows gastric emptying, stimulates glucose-dependent release of insulin, inhibit postprandial release of glucagon, and suppresses appetite– all to mimic the incretin actions?
Exenatide
58
hypoglycemia is common when exenatide is combined with what and not common when combined with what?
sulfonylurea; metformin
59
In addition to sitagliptin, which other antidiabetic medication carries a risk for pancreatitis and hypersensitivity reactions/
exenatide
60
exenatide can cause what? especially when what?
renal impairemnt; dehydration is present
61
exenatide and pregnancy?
dont do it