Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NUR 239 > Test #6: Oxygenation > Flashcards

Test #6: Oxygenation Flashcards

(90 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

How long is a normal P wave?

A

0.06-0.12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you count small boxes (R to R), how much must the nurse divide by to get the heart rate?

A

1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If the nurse counts the large boxes (R to R), what must the nurse divide the count by to know the heart rate?

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the normal range of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?

A

less than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What common NSAID can worsen heart failure?

A

Ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is Atropine given and what does it do?

A

It is given for bradycardia and speeds up the HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is Adenosine given and what does it do?

A

Adenosine is given to treat SVT and/or convert a patient out of a irregular rhythm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the intrinsic heart rate of the sinoatrial node?

A

60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the intrinsic heart rate of the atrioventricular node?

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the intrinsic heart rate of the Purkinje fibers?

A

20-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first small upright wave seen on the EKG that represents contraction of the atrium?

A

P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What represents the travel of the electrical impulse between the atrium and the ventricles?

A

PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which wave indicates contraction of the ventricles?

A

QRS Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What measures the time between

depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles?

A

ST segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What portion of the EKG tracing signifies ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What measurement represents total activity of the ventricles?

A

QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which wave represents repolarization of the Purkinje fibers of the heart?

A

U wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where would the U wave be seen?

A

After the T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a “Thoracentesis”?

A

Thoracentesis is a procedure to remove fluid from the space between the lining of the outside of the lungs (pleura) and the wall of the chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How should a patient be positioned for a thoracentesis?

A

Have the patient sit on a bed or on the edge of a chair or bed and lean forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

A pneumothorax is an abnormal collection of air or gas in the pleural space that causes an uncoupling of the lung from the chest wall. (often called a collapsed lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

Pleural effusion is excess fluid that accumulates in the pleural cavity, the fluid-filled space that surrounds the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a “flail chest”?

A

when a segment of the thoracic cage is separated from the rest of the chest wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the classic symptom of flail chest?

A

Asymetrical respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What causes a closed pneumothorax?
Rupture of small blebs on the viseral pleura
26
What increases the risk of closed/spontaneous pneumothorax?
Smoking
27
What is the emergency management of a open pneumothorax?
An occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
28
What is a common complication of tension pneumothorax?
Mediastinum shift and possible tracheal deviation
29
What is a "chylothorax"?
Lymph fluid in the pleural space
30
What are the symptoms of a small pneumothorax?
mild tachycardia and dyspnea
31
What are the symptoms of a large pneumothorax?
Respiratory distress, rapid, shallow respirations, dyspnea, air hunger and oygen desaturation
32
Which type of pneumo is considered most emergent?
Tension pneumo; if the tension is not relieved the patient is likely to die from inadequate cardiac output or severe hypoxemia
33
What is emergent treatment of a tension pneumo?
Insertion of a large bore needle into the anterior chest wall at the 4th or 5th intercostal space to release trapped air, then a chest tube
34
Why is it no longer recommended to clamp chest tubes for transport?
Because of possibly causing a tension pneumo
35
How much fluid is normally in the pleural space?
5-15 mL
36
What are common clinical manifestations of a pleural effusion?
Progressive dyspnea and decreased chest wall movement on the affected side
37
What is the clinical definition of Primary Pulmonary Hypertension?
Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 25 at rest
38
What is Epoprostanol?
A prostacyclin analog given for pulmonary hypertension
39
How must Epoprostanol be administered?
Via central line and continuous infusion
40
What is the half-life of Epoprostanol?
Less than 6 minutes
41
What is "hypoxemic respiratory failure"?
PaO2 less than 60mmHg when the patient is on oxygen at 60% (or more)
42
What is the normal range of PaO2?
80-100
43
What is "hypercapnic respiratory failure"?
PaCO2 greater than 48 in combination with acidosis (pH less than 7.35)
44
What is the normal range of PaCO2?
32-48
45
What causes hypercapnic respiratory failure?
The inability of the respiratory system to remove enough CO2 to maintain a normal range
46
Which patients are at an increased risk for hypercapnic respiratory failure?
Patients with COPD, asthma and cystic fybrosis
47
What kind of ventilation does intrapulmonary shunting require?
Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV) via Endotracheal tube or bipap
48
Who is at risk for oxygen toxicity?
Intubated patients on more than 60% for over 48 hours
49
Aduquate gas exchange depends on what?
Aduquate V/Q ration
50
What are common causes of V/Q mismatch?
Increased secretions, atelectasis, and pain
51
What is is first step to reverse hypoxemia caused by V/Q mismatch?
O2 therapy
52
What is diffusion limitation?
Diffusion limitation is when the alveolar membrane becomes thickened, damaged or destroyed
53
What test should be conducted to check for a suspected PE?
V/Q scan
54
What is ARDS?
ARDS is a sudden, progressive form of acute respiratory failure where the alveolar capillary membrane is damaged and more permeable.
55
Which is more likely to cause ARDS: aspiration or pneumonia?
Aspiration, because of the inflammatory response
56
What virus causes SARS?
The coronavirus
57
What is cardiomyopathy?
A disease of the heart muscle
58
What is the "classic" electrolyte imbalance that occurs in cardiomyopathy?
Sodium
59
What is the leading cause of heart transplant?
Cardiomyopathy
60
What type of cardiomyopathy follows infectious myocarditis?
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
61
What is "Takotsubo cardiomyopathy"?
It is a acute, stress-related syndrome that in
62
What is charateristic of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Dilated ventricle without hypertrophy
63
What is the leading cause of death with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Lethal dysrthymias
64
What test distinguishes dilated cardiomyopathy from other diseases?
Doppler Echocardiography: it help identify the structures and function of the heart ***
65
What is focus of interventions for dilated cardiomyopathy?
Focus on controlling heart failure--increased myocardial contractility and decrease afterload
66
Why are nitrates and diuretics given to manage HF (or dilated cardiomyopathy)?
To decrease preload ***
67
Why is it important to decrease preload?
Because it will ultimately decrease afterload
68
Why would ACE-inhibitors (i.e. captopril) be given to a patient with HF (or dilated cardiomyopathy)?
To decrease afterload: reduce hypertension/relax blood vessels ***
69
Why would a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy be given a beta-blocker?
To block the effects of epi and nor-epi/keep afterload low
70
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Left ventricular hypertrophy without ventricular dilation
71
Which cardiomyopathy is genetic?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; specifically autosomal dominant
72
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in an otherwise healthy individual?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
73
An apical pulse that is exaggerated and displaced laterally is indicative of what?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
74
How often and what should a patient with a ET tube be monitored?
Patient should be monitored q2-4 hours and placement should be verified
75
If a patient with an ET tube can make audible sounds, what does that mean?
The cuff is not inflated enough ***
76
Should vented patients be routinely suctioned?
NO! ***
77
What is the 1st thing to do before suctioning a patient?
Assess lungs sounds and pulse oximetry *** (even before hyperoxygenation)
78
What O2% indicates need to suction the ET tube?
92% or less
79
Which indicates the need to suction the ET tube: RR of 32 or O2 stat of 93%?
the RR
80
What is a benefit of a closed suctioning system?
It decreases hypoxemia
81
How often should the ET tube be repositioned and re-taped?
Every 24hours (once a day)
82
The nurse is caring for a patient and hears the vent alarming, upon entering the room it is seen that the patient self-extubated. What is the nurse's first action?
Manually ventilate the patient
83
What are the two groups of positive ventilation?
Volume and pressure
84
What is "assist-control" ventilation?
The vent delivers a preset tidal volume at a preset frequency; patient initiates breath and then a preset volume is delivered (pt can breathe faster than setting, but not slower)
85
What is SIMV?
Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation; the vent delivers a preset tidal volume at a preset frequency inconjunction with pt's breathing
86
What is the difference between "assist-control" and SIMV?
The volume varies on voluntary breaths in SIMV
87
What is pressure support mode of a vent?
Positive pressure is applied during inspiration only
88
What is PEEP?
Positive End Expiration Pressure; keeps alveoli open
89
What is CPAP?
Continuous Positve Airway Pressure; similar to PEEP but it is delivered continuously during spontaneous breathing
90
When preparing to wean a patient from the vent, what is the most important thing for the nurse to have?
Baseline ABG levels

NUR 239 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions