Test Bank Ch. 2, 4, 6, 9, 10 Flashcards
(154 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is an example of business-to-consumer electronic commerce?
A) Brenda files her income tax online.
B) Canchi, a shoe manufacturer, conducts business over the Web with its retailers.
C) Juan buys guitars for resale on Monsung.com.
D) Reuben buys a pair of shoes on Mysticshoes.com.
E) Neal places a bid for a mobile phone on the online auction site Feliciate.com.
A
D) Reuben buys a pair of shoes on Mysticshoes.com.
2
Q
Which of the following is an example of consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce?
A) Niobi makes an online deposit of $5,000 into her friend’s account.
B) Heath buys a gift for Vanessa on Aniocride.com.
C) Blanco, a manufacturer, conducts business over the Web with its retailers.
D) Ashley buys a new pair of shoes on Fequette.com.
E) Marty buys Lobsang’s mountaineering equipment on Chieoke.com.
A
E) Marty buys Lobsang’s mountaineering equipment on Chieoke.com.
3
Q
Identify a true statement about the Internet of things.
A) It enables companies to offer various innovative products and services that go beyond the initial purchase.
B) It defines a set of reachable and exploitable vulnerabilities present in a business model.
C) It contains rules and guidelines that describe how security is to be enforced during system operation.
D) It identifies the tasks that are critical within a business model and builds a network that depicts their interdependencies.
E) It is defined as the percentage of visitors who leave the Web site after viewing that page.
A
A) It enables companies to offer various innovative products and services that go beyond the initial purchase.
4
Q
In the context of GPS-enabled location-based services, the ability to see another person’s location is an example of ________ service.
A) reintegration B) navigation C) mapping D) disintegration E) tracking
A
E) tracking
5
Q
In e-business terminology, ________ companies are sometimes called “pure play companies.”
A) bricks-and-clicks B) click-and-mortar C) brick-and-mortar D) click-and-flip E) click-only
A
E) click-only
6
Q
In ________ pricing, companies set the prices that consumers pay for products.
A) viral B) top-up C) menu-driven D) reverse E) rafter bid
A
C) menu-driven
7
Q
How do comparison shopping sites generate revenue?
A) by charging a commission on transactions
B) by selling their products in physical stores as well
C) by charging a virtual shelf space fee to manufacturers
D) by increasing the click count on their sites
E) by charging distribution fees to consumers
A
A) by charging a commission on transactions
8
Q
EZBiz, the brainchild of three college friends, is a startup venture that plans to produce and market sports gear. The venture is still stuck in the planning phase as they have not been able to decide the suitable business strategy to opt for. They are currently trying to decide between a bricks-and-clicks strategy or a click-only strategy. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the decision to adopt a click-only strategy?
A) The company has limited access to funds and is looking to keep its costs low.
B) The public is wary of sharing confidential information after a recent spate of credit card scandals.
C) A competitor is facing severe backlash after inadvertently releasing sensitive data into the public domain.
D) Several companies who have switched from a brick-and-mortar strategy to a click-only strategy are experiencing severe channel conflicts.
E) Some click-only companies have been unable to achieve economies of scale and are subsequently unable to offer lower prices.
A
B) The public is wary of sharing confidential information after a recent spate of credit card scandals.
9
Q
With respect to e-tailing, ________ can initiate certain actions, such as making a phone call to a sales representative or sending a text message to a pre-specified number.
A) MaxiCodes B) CPC Binary Barcodes C) viral codes D) MSI barcodes E) QR codes
A
E) QR codes
10
Q
Identify a true statement about the function of Google’s Ad Words.
A) It ensures high-quality leads when a search is conducted online.
B) It presents a view of short-term technology integration.
C) It presents a view of long-term technology integration.
D) It redirects Web pages to different sites if the link fails.
E) It provides immediate communication to and receives feedback from customers.
A
A) It ensures high-quality leads when a search is conducted online.
11
Q
Which of the following characteristics of the Web deals with making the interaction with a Web site easier or more convenient?
A) representational delight B) cost compliance C) structural firmness D) disintermediation capacity E) functional convenience
A
E) functional convenience
12
Q
Which of the following explains Web analytics?
A) conducting online marketing research to improve product quality
B) analyzing Web sites in order to find the best one in a category
C) tracking all online purchasers to try and increase their frequency of visit to a particular Web site
D) analyzing Web surfers’ behavior in order to improve Web site performance
E) analyzing Web sites in order to find the best online business practices
A
D) analyzing Web surfers’ behavior in order to improve Web site performance
13
Q
A way to ensure that a company’s site is on the first page users see when looking for a specific term is using ________ advertising.
A) stealth B) viral C) buzz D) search E) affiliate
A
D) search
14
Q
Companies use ________ to move up their Web sites in the organic search engine results.
A) search engine image protection B) search engine optimization C) search engine keyword insertion D) search-oriented architecture E) domain stacking
A
B) search engine optimization
15
Q
A recent trend in display advertising has been ________ advertising, where the ads placed on a page are in some way related to the content of that page.
A) contextual B) buzz C) viral D) affiliate E) stealth
A
A) contextual
16
Q
The performance of a pay-per-click advertising model can be assessed by ________, which reflects the percentage of visitors who actually perform the marketer’s desired action such as making a purchase.
A) click fraud rate B) contextual search rate C) pop-up rate D) click-through rate E) conversion rate
A
E) conversion rate
17
Q
Click-through rate reflects ________.
A) the ratio of surfers who visit a Web site divided by the number of surfers who clicked on an ad
B) the ratio of surfers who click on an ad divided by the number of times it was displayed
C) the percentage of visitors who actually perform the marketer’s desired action
D) the ratio of surfers who click on an ad divided by the number of people who make a purchase
E) the ratio of surfers who visit a Web site divided by the number of people who make a purchase
A
B) the ratio of surfers who click on an ad divided by the number of times it was displayed
18
Q
How can the effectiveness of e-mail advertising campaigns be measured directly?
A) by reflecting the percentage of visitors who actually perform the marketer’s desired action
B) by reflecting the number of surfers who click on an ad divided by the number of times it was displayed
C) by creating use cases and business models to determine the ratio of the opened mails to the sent mails
D) by conducting online polls, starting online forums, and collecting user feedbacks
E) by including special links in the e-mail that allow tracking which e-mails the customers have opened or reacted to
A
E) by including special links in the e-mail that allow tracking which e-mails the customers have opened or reacted to
19
Q
In the context of GPS-enabled location-based services, the ability to determine the basic geographic position of a cell phone is an example of ________ service.
A) location B) mapping C) navigation D) tracking E) reintegration
A
A) location
20
Q
In the context of GPS-enabled location-based services, capturing specific locations to be viewed on the phone is an example of ________ service.
A) location B) mapping C) navigation D) tracking E) disintegration
A
B) mapping
21
Q
In the context of GPS-enabled location-based services, the ability to give route directions from one point to another is an example of ________ service.
A) mapping B) disintegration C) navigation D) reintegration E) tracking
A
C) navigation
22
Q
________ is used in consumer-to-business e-commerce to have small, well-defined tasks performed by a scalable ad hoc workforce of everyday people.
A) Nearshoring B) Insourcing C) Offshoring D) Crowdsourcing E) Homesourcing
A
D) Crowdsourcing
23
Q
________ is a three-digit code located on the back of a credit or debit card that is used for authorization by the card-issuing bank to combat fraud in online purchases.
A) Competitive Fraud Detector B) Card Verification Value C) Online Purchase Processor D) Card Detection Value E) Purchase Processing Value
A
B) Card Verification Value
24
Q
Responding to threats and opportunities and continuous planning are based on analyzing internal data primarily from the ________ level of an organization.
A) operational B) executive C) tactical D) business E) strategic
A
A) operational
25
When we consider entities as tables, each row is a ________.
```
A) field
B) record
C) bot
D) form
E) query
```
B) record
26
When we consider entities as tables, each column is a(n) ________.
```
A) attribute
B) record
C) form
D) applet
E) query
```
A) attribute
27
An attribute is also referred to as a ________.
```
A) form
B) record
C) field
D) query
E) bot
```
C) field
28
A ________ is a collection of related attributes about a single instance of an entity.
```
A) bot
B) form
C) query
D) field
E) record
```
E) record
29
In a database management system (DBMS), data are kept separate from the application's programming code. This means that ________.
A) an application cannot be changed without making changes to the database
B) an application's programming code needs to be updated continuously to keep up with the database
C) an application needs to be changed when the database is changed
D) the database does not need to be changed if a change is made to an application
E) the database needs to be changed when a change is made to an application
D) the database does not need to be changed if a change is made to an application
30
One of the advantages of a database approach is program-data independence. This means that it is ________.
A) easier to deploy and control data access using a centralized system
B) easier to evolve and alter software to changing business needs when data and programs are independent
C) a centralized system, thereby making it easier to enforce access restrictions
D) a centralized system, thereby making it much easier to enforce standards and rules for data creation, modification, naming, and deletion
E) useful for eliminating redundancy, thereby reducing the possibilities of inconsistency
B) easier to evolve and alter software to changing business needs when data and programs are independent
31
Identify an advantage when the database approach makes it easier to deploy and control data access.
```
A) improved data accessibility
B) improved data consistency
C) improved data quality
D) increased security
E) improved data sharing
```
A) improved data accessibility
32
Big Data is ________.
A) structured data which fit neatly into spreadsheets
B) semistructured data such as clickstream and sensor data
C) unstructured data such as audio and video
D) characterized based on its high velocity
E) organizational wide data
D) characterized based on its high velocity
33
Data type helps a database management system (DBMS) to ________.
```
A) present the data in a useful format
B) format data
C) allocate storage space
D) eliminate data duplication
E) retrieve information
```
C) allocate storage space
34
A data dictionary is also known as ________.
```
A) a data mart
B) a data warehouse
C) a metadata repository
D) ubiquitous computing
E) clickstream data
```
C) a metadata repository
35
Once the data model is created, the format of the data is documented in a data ________.
```
A) warehouse
B) entry
C) mart
D) domain
E) dictionary
```
E) dictionary
36
Business rules are captured by the designers of a database and included in a data dictionary to ________.
A) organize and sort the data, complete calculations, and allocate storage space
B) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
C) eliminate data duplication
D) make sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to an entity
E) capture the structure of the database
B) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
37
________ are used to capture data to be added, modified, or deleted from a database.
```
A) Forms
B) Reports
C) Queries
D) Bots
E) Layers
```
A) Forms
38
A(n) ________ is a compilation of data from a database that is organized and produced in printed format.
```
A) form
B) attribute
C) field
D) entity
E) report
```
E) report
39
A query is used to ________.
A) organize and sort the data in a database
B) allocate storage space for a database
C) eliminate data duplication
D) retrieve data from a database
E) prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the database
D) retrieve data from a database
40
________ are the data that is deemed most important in the operation of a business.
```
A) Metadata
B) Master data
C) Reference data
D) Query data
E) Tactical data
```
B) Master data
41
Which of the following statements is true about an operational system?
A) Its primary purpose is to support managerial decision making.
B) It consists of historical or point-in-time data.
C) Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
D) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
E) It is primarily used by managers.
D) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
42
Which of the following statements is true about an information system?
A) Its primary purpose is to run the business on a current basis.
B) It is primarily used by online customers, clerks, salespersons, and administrators.
C) It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
D) Its design goal is to enhance performance.
E) Its design goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
E) Its design goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
43
The purpose of a data warehouse is to ________.
A) standardize the format of data retrieved from different systems
B) allow managers to run queries and reports themselves without having to know query languages or the structure of the underlying data
C) provide capabilities for discovering hidden predictive relationships in the data
D) put key business information into the hands of more decision makers
E) increase the complexity of the data to be analyzed
D) put key business information into the hands of more decision makers
44
Which of the following statements is true about a data mart?
A) It standardizes the format of data retrieved from different systems.
B) It contains selected data from a data warehouse.
C) It stores master data only.
D) It is a compilation of data from the database that is organized and produced in printed format.
E) It helps to eliminate data duplication.
B) It contains selected data from a data warehouse.
45
Which of the following is NOT a type of report generated by businesses?
```
A) Scheduled report
B) Business report
C) Drill-down report
D) Key-indicator report
E) Exception report
```
B) Business report
46
Select the correct statement below.
A) Artificial intelligence is the science of enabling humans to simulate machine thinking.
B) Predictive modeling helps build unexplained models.
C) Machine learning allows systems to learn by imitating humans.
D) Intelligent systems emulate and enhance human capabilities.
E) Intelligent agents (also called 'bots') are used by users to control how programs are opened.
D) Intelligent systems emulate and enhance human capabilities.
47
________ are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
```
A) Security reports
B) Exception reports
C) Drill-down reports
D) Scheduled reports
E) Key-indicator reports
```
D) Scheduled reports
48
Which of the following statements is true about exception reports?
A) They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
B) They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
C) They answer unplanned information requests to support a non-routine decision.
D) They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
E) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
E) They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
49
________ help in analyzing why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an exception occurred.
```
A) Activity reports
B) Exception reports
C) Drill-down reports
D) Scheduled reports
E) Key-indicator reports
```
C) Drill-down reports
50
Which of the following statements is true about an online analytical processing server?
A) It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
B) It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
D) It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E) It understands how data are organized in a database and has special functions for analyzing the data.
E) It understands how data are organized in a database and has special functions for analyzing the data.
51
How do online analytical processing systems improve performance?
A) They preaggregate data so that only the subset of the data necessary for the queries is extracted.
B) They use reasoning methods to outline how sensitive information will be handled, stored, transmitted, and destroyed.
C) They make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem.
D) They allow for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional table.
E) They provide capabilities for discovering hidden predictive relationships in the data.
A) They preaggregate data so that only the subset of the data necessary for the queries is extracted.
52
In online analytic processing systems, ________ are the values or numbers the user wants to analyze.
```
A) dimensions
B) forms
C) measures
D) queries
E) entities
```
C) measures
53
In online analytical processing systems, ________ provide a way to summarize the data.
```
A) forms
B) measures
C) facts
D) records
E) dimensions
```
E) dimensions
54
Data mining complements online analytical processing in that it ________.
A) finds associations or correlations among sets of items
B) provides capabilities for discovering hidden predictive relationships in the data
C) extracts textual information from Web documents
D) groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes
E) analyzes different dimensions of data beyond simple data summaries
B) provides capabilities for discovering hidden predictive relationships in the data
55
________ can be achieved by rolling up a data cube to the smallest level of aggregation needed, reducing the dimensionality, or dividing continuous measures into discrete intervals.
```
A) Data cleansing
B) Normalization
C) Clustering
D) Data reduction
E) Inferencing
```
D) Data reduction
56
Which of the following statements is true about association discovery?
A) It is a technique used to find correlations among sets of items.
B) It is the process of grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes.
C) It is the use of analytical techniques for extracting information from textual documents.
D) It is a type of intelligent system that uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E) It makes sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to an entity.
A) It is a technique used to find correlations among sets of items.
57
________ is the process of grouping related records together based on having similar values for attributes.
```
A) Normalization
B) Data mining
C) Clustering
D) Inferencing
E) Slicing and dicing
```
C) Clustering
58
Which of the following is used for Web content mining?
```
A) clustering
B) Web underlining
C) neural networks
D) Web crawler
E) data reduction
```
D) Web crawler
59
________ allows using approximations or subjective values to handle situations where information about a problem is incomplete.
```
A) Fuzzy logic
B) Normalization
C) Clustering
D) What-if analysis
E) Stickiness
```
A) Fuzzy logic
60
Which of the following is a role of monitoring and sensing agents?
A) keeping track of key data
B) sending a report at the first of the month automatically
C) assembling customized news
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user
E) finding the best price for a particular product a user wants to purchase
A) keeping track of key data
61
Which of the following is a role of data mining agents?
A) tracking inventory levels
B) sending a report at the first of the month automatically
C) assembling customized news
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user
E) finding the best price for a particular product a user wants to purchase
D) analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed important by a user
62
Which of the following statements is true about an explicit knowledge asset?
A) It reflects the processes and procedures that are located in a person's mind on how to effectively perform a particular task.
B) It reflects a person's ability to effectively solve a problem without external help.
C) It reflects knowledge that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of information systems.
D) It reflects an individual's special knowledge about a new-to-the-world product.
E) It reflects the strategies that can be applied to an enterprise resource planning system.
C) It reflects knowledge that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of information systems.
63
Identify the primary goal for deploying a knowledge management system.
A) identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage tacit knowledge
B) presenting a view of long-term technology integration
C) grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for attributes
D) allowing hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem and having tacit knowledge on how these changes influence the results
E) linking Web sites to corporate databases to provide real-time access to personalized information
A) identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage tacit knowledge
64
________ refers to the display of complex data relationships using a variety of graphical methods.
```
A) Normalization
B) Visualization
C) Clustering
D) Inferencing
E) Textual mining
```
B) Visualization
65
While using digital dashboards, pull reporting is conducted to ________.
A) alert the user of any items that require immediate attention
B) provide the decision makers with a quick overview of key performance indicators
C) discover hidden predictive relationships in the data
D) analyze the root causes of an exception
E) extract textual information from Web documents
D) analyze the root causes of an exception
66
Digital dashboards provide the decision makers with a quick overview of key performance indicators and other key operational statistics and trends. This usage model is known as ________ reporting.
```
A) exception
B) pull
C) ad hoc
D) drill-down
E) push
```
E) push
67
Which of the following statements is true about a GIS?
A) A GIS is a system for creating, storing, analyzing, and managing abstract data.
B) A GIS can be used to track user input.
C) A GIS works behind the scenes to create a knowledge management system.
D) A GIS can link the square footage of commercial real estate to its exact location in terms of latitude and longitude.
E) A GIS cannot be used to create a thematic map.
D) A GIS can link the square footage of commercial real estate to its exact location in terms of latitude and longitude.
68
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Explicit knowledge assets reflect knowledge that cannot be documented.
B) Tacit knowledge assets reflect the processes and procedures that are located in a person's mind on how to effectively perform a particular task.
C) A knowledge management system is based on a single technology to codify a database.
D) The successful deployment of a knowledge management system should be linked to numerous business objectives.
E) Knowledge management systems are extremely hard to use especially when entering and retrieving data.
B) Tacit knowledge assets reflect the processes and procedures that are located in a person's mind on how to effectively perform a particular task.
69
________ refers to the process of identifying, quantifying, and presenting the value provided by a system.
```
A) Making a business case
B) Testing a process
C) Making a prototype
D) Deploying a software product
E) Refining a prototype
```
A) Making a business case
70
Business case arguments based on ________ focus on beliefs about organizational strategy, competitive advantage, industry forces, customer perceptions, market share, and so on.
```
A) faith
B) fear
C) facts
D) fiction
E) fallacy
```
A) faith
71
Which of the following is an example of recurring costs associated with an information system?
```
A) installation charges
B) cost of hosting Web servers
C) employee salaries
D) technology purchases
E) cost of system acquisition
```
C) employee salaries
72
Which of the following is an example of an intangible cost for a system?
```
A) cost of losing customers
B) employee salaries
C) cost of installation and maintenance
D) cost of employee recruitment and retention
E) customer support costs
```
A) cost of losing customers
73
A company is conducting a cost-benefit analysis for its information system (IS) department. In this, the salary of an employee is an example of a(n) ________ cost.
```
A) intangible and tangible
B) tangible and recurring
C) intangible and recurring
D) tangible and non-recurring
E) recurring and non-recurring
```
B) tangible and recurring
74
Which of the following is true for tangible costs?
```
A) They are recurring costs.
B) They are always non-recurring costs.
C) They are relatively easy to quantify.
D) They are the same as intangible benefits.
E) They are always fixed costs.
```
C) They are relatively easy to quantify.
75
A company implements a new information system and observes a 5 percent increase in its monthly sales. This is a(n) ________ of the system.
```
A) intangible benefit
B) tangible cost
C) tangible benefit
D) recurring cost
E) non-recurring cost
```
C) tangible benefit
76
Which of the following is an example of an intangible benefit for a firm?
A) lower transport and operational costs
B) a significant increase in sales
C) a reduction in operational errors
D) cost reductions as compared to previous data
E) improved customer perceptions of the firm
E) improved customer perceptions of the firm
77
An example of an agile methodology approach is ________.
```
A) Patch management
B) Object VxP Programming
C) eXtreme Programming
D) SQL Extreme
E) Technet Extreme Programming
```
C) eXtreme Programming
78
Requirements collection takes place during the systems ________ phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC).
```
A) design
B) implementation
C) analysis
D) maintenance
E) operation
```
C) analysis
79
________ is the process of gathering and organizing information from users, managers, customers, business processes, and documents to understand how a proposed information system should function.
```
A) Data modeling
B) Requirements collection
C) Beta testing
D) End-user development
E) External acquisition
```
B) Requirements collection
80
________ is a group meeting-based process for requirements collection.
```
A) Joint application design
B) Computer-aided design
C) Human-computer interface
D) Reverse engineering
E) Total ownership
```
A) Joint application design
81
________ represents the way in which data are transformed.
```
A) Data parallelism
B) Processing logic
C) Data streaming
D) Process control
E) Transaction processing
```
B) Processing logic
82
Processing logic is often expressed in ________, which is independent of the actual programming language being used.
```
A) semantics encoding
B) prefix code
C) source code
D) semiotics
E) pseudocode
```
E) pseudocode
83
A ________ is a business document containing some predefined data, often including some areas where additional data can be filled in.
```
A) form
B) script
C) sheet
D) report
E) module
```
A) form
84
The processing and logic operations of an information system refer(s) to the ________.
A) procedures for entering data into a system
B) transfer of data across system components
C) procedures that transform raw data inputs into new or modified information
D) multiple points of contact between a system and its users
E) process of transforming the system design into a working computer system
C) procedures that transform raw data inputs into new or modified information
85
Software programming and testing takes place during the systems ________ stage of the systems development process.
```
A) planning
B) analysis
C) maintenance
D) implementation
E) design
```
D) implementation
86
________ testing focuses on testing the correctness of individual modules and the integration of multiple modules.
```
A) Developmental
B) Alpha
C) Beta
D) Destructive
E) Security
```
A) Developmental
87
________ testing is testing of the overall system to see whether it meets design requirements.
```
A) Developmental
B) Beta
C) Evolutionary
D) Alpha
E) Comparative
```
D) Alpha
88
A ________ is a business document containing only predefined data for online viewing or printing.
```
A) form
B) script
C) sheet
D) report
E) module
```
D) report
89
Jason has just made some changes to the information system at a company and wants to check if the system is working correctly. What should Jason do to conduct a beta test of the system?
A) He should ask other programmers to check the modules he changed.
B) He should check to see if the changed components are integrated well into the system.
C) He should ask users of the system to test it using actual data.
D) He should ask the software tester to test if the changed system meets design requirements.
E) He should test the changed modules for correctness.
C) He should ask users of the system to test it using actual data.
90
________ testing involves testing of the capabilities of the system in the user environment with actual data.
```
A) Developmental
B) Beta
C) Evolutionary
D) Alpha
E) Comparative
```
B) Beta
91
Developmental testing of an information system is performed by ________.
```
A) software testers
B) actual users
C) programmers
D) systems analysts
E) project managers
```
C) programmers
92
Which of the following can be considered beta testing?
A) A programmer at Linus Systems checks the integration of multiple modules of an information system.
B) Software testers compare the finished system against user requirements to see if it satisfies all necessary criteria.
C) Taro Inc. checks the correctness of the modules in its new information system.
D) System users at URP feed data into a new information system to test its capability.
E) MNP Inc. checks the system to ensure that it meets all the necessary design requirements.
D) System users at URP feed data into a new information system to test its capability.
93
Programming is the process of ________.
A) transforming the system design into a working computer system
B) testing the correctness of individual modules of a system
C) testing the integration of multiple modules of a system
D) transforming raw data inputs into new or modified information
E) gathering and organizing information from users and managers
A) transforming the system design into a working computer system
94
Which of the following is true of patch management?
A) It helps in testing the correctness of individual modules and the integration of multiple modules of a system.
B) It helps in the process of transforming the system design into a working computer system.
C) It helps in performing corrective or preventive maintenance for a system.
D) It helps in decommissioning the current system and installing the new system in the organization.
E) It helps to develop system documentation that details the inner workings of the system to ease future maintenance.
C) It helps in performing corrective or preventive maintenance for a system.
95
The final phase of the systems development life cycle is systems ________.
```
A) design
B) implementation
C) analysis
D) maintenance
E) operation
```
D) maintenance
96
A company has a five-member team in charge of the development and maintenance of its information systems. An information system is in place, and the team performs routine maintenance to keep it running smoothly. Which of the following scenarios is an example of perfective maintenance?
A) Jason notices a faulty component in the system and modifies the component.
B) Justin works on the system to make the user interface more user-friendly.
C) Sara knows that the company is migrating to a different operating environment next month, and makes changes to the system.
D) Dylan predicts that the company's old system may fail under new demands, and takes steps to avert it.
E) Kiera detects a fault in the coding, which is hampering system performance, and rectifies it.
B) Justin works on the system to make the user interface more user-friendly.
97
Which of the following is true of prototyping?
A) It is part of the fourth stage of the systems development life cycle.
B) It is synonymous with the adaptive maintenance of a system.
C) It does not consider user requirements for the system.
D) It uses a trial-and-error approach for discovering how a system should operate.
E) It is also known as end-user development.
D) It uses a trial-and-error approach for discovering how a system should operate.
98
Which of the following steps distinguishes external acquisition process from in-house development?
```
A) systems planning and selection
B) systems analysis
C) development of a request for proposal
D) proposal evaluation
E) vendor selection
```
C) development of a request for proposal
99
A(n) ________ license refers to a license primarily used for downloaded software that requires computer users to choose "I accept" before installing the software.
```
A) click-wrap
B) shareware
C) enterprise
D) volume
E) implied
```
A) click- wrap
100
An enterprise license is also known as a(n) ________ license.
```
A) shrink-wrap
B) volume
C) click-wrap
D) shareware
E) implied
```
B) volume
101
Which of the following is an example of a basic relationship between an outsourcing vendor and client?
A) STS Systems usually offers BelAir a discount on every purchase it makes.
B) BelAir sets its system preferences according to STS products.
C) BelAir buys a system from the vendor who offers the cheapest prices.
D) STS has a direct stake in the success of BelAir's performance.
E) STS modifies its product prices according to BelAir's requirements.
C) BelAir buys a system from the vendor who offers the cheapest prices.
102
Which of the following is one of the main federal laws against computer crimes in the United States?
A) Satellite Act of 1962
B) Trade Expansions Act of 1962
C) United States Information and Educational Exchange Act
D) Central Intelligence Agency Act
E) Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
E) Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
103
The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986 prohibits ________.
A) accessing company intranet and confidential information from public computers
B) stealing or compromising data about national defense, foreign relations, atomic energy, or other restricted information
C) the use of external devices to provide access and information to companies' confidential information
D) signing contracts with consultants outside the United States to process information
E) access to companies' extranets when outsourcing work to clients overseas
B) stealing or compromising data about national defense, foreign relations, atomic energy, or other restricted information
104
Which of the following U.S. laws amended the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act to allow investigators to easily access voice-related communications?
```
A) the Non-Detention Act
B) the Espionage Act
C) the Patriot Act
D) the Video Privacy Protection Act
E) the Clery Act
```
C) the Patriot Act
105
Violating data belonging to banks or other financial institutions is a crime in the United States. Which of the following legislations prohibits such violations?
A) the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
B) the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C) the Patriot Act
D) the Glass-Steagall Act
E) the Electronic Communications Privacy Act
B) the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
106
Identify a true statement about a vulnerability scanner.
A) It analyzes network traffic and captures unencrypted passwords.
B) It presents a view of long-term technology integration.
C) It tests targeted systems for weaknesses.
D) It presents a view of short-term technology integration.
E) It ensures high-quality leads when a search is conducted online.
C) It tests targeted systems for weaknesses.
107
________ targeted at networks is designed to spread by itself without the need for an infected host file to be shared.
```
A) Adware
B) Spyware
C) A worm
D) Spam
E) A logic bomb
```
C) A worm
108
Ronald downloads a movie from the Internet onto his company's computer. During this process, his system gets infected with a virus. The virus spreads rapidly in the company's network causing the server to crash. This type of virus is most likely to be ________.
```
A) adware
B) phishing mail
C) spam
D) a worm
E) a Trojan horse
```
D) a worm
109
When Shelly downloaded an arcade game from an unknown Internet Web site, an unauthorized connection unknown to Shelly was established with her computer. The arcade game is most likely to be ________.
```
A) spyware
B) a worm
C) adware
D) a Trojan horse
E) encryption
```
D) a Trojan horse
110
Identify a true statement about a packet sniffer.
A) It is used to analyze network traffic.
B) It is used to test targeted systems for weaknesses.
C) It is used to break passwords using a brute-force approach.
D) It is used to capture encrypted passwords.
E) It is used to redirect Web pages to different sites if any link fails.
A) It is used to analyze network traffic.
111
Which of the following terms refers to junk newsgroup postings used for the purpose of advertising for some product or service?
```
A) spam
B) adware
C) cookie
D) bot herder
E) Web filter
```
A) spam
112
When using Yahoo Messenger, Roger gets an unsolicited advertisement from a company. The advertisement contains a link to connect to the merchant's Web site. Which of the following is the most suitable way of describing this type of advertisement?
```
A) adware
B) cookie
C) Internet hoax
D) spam
E) cyber squatting
```
D) spam
113
________ contains spyware that collects information about a person's Web surfing behavior in order to customize Web site banner advertisements.
```
A) Adware
B) Malware
C) Firmware
D) A cookie
E) A honeypot
```
A) Adware
114
________ is the dubious practice of registering a domain name and then trying to sell the name for big bucks to the person, company, or organization most likely to want it.
```
A) Cybersquatting
B) Bot herding
C) Spear phishing
D) Logic bombing
E) Hacktivism
```
A) Cybersquatting
115
________ refers to offering stolen proprietary software for free over the Internet.
```
A) Bot herding
B) Warez peddling
C) Spam filtering
D) Viral marketing
E) Spear phishing
```
B) Warez peddling
116
Which of the following examples can be considered as a violation for a copyright?
```
A) Apple's multitouch technology
B) music by an existing band
C) Amazon's one-click buying
D) mobile phones
E) tablets
```
B) music by an existing band
117
________ by terrorists refers to the use of the vast amount of information available on the Internet regarding virtually any topic for planning, recruitment, and numerous other endeavors.
```
A) Data mining
B) Information dissemination
C) Location monitoring
D) Information sharing
E) Cybersquatting
```
A) Data mining
118
Ciscon Telecom is a mobile operator in the European Union. The company provides personalized services to its customers, and its databases contain valuable information about the customers. The loss of customer information that is used to decide services would be extremely harmful to the organization. Which of the following strategies adopted by Ciscon is an example of risk transference?
A) The company insures any possible data loss for a large sum.
B) The company forms a special team of top executives to monitor and correct the information policies.
C) It installs a corporate firewall to protect unauthorized access to information.
D) It enforces a strict employee data policy and prohibits employees from unauthorized access.
E) The company decides to absorb any damages that might occur.
A) The company insures any possible data loss for a large sum.
119
In ________, an attacker accesses the network, intercepts data from it, and even uses network services and/or sends attack instructions to it without having to enter the home, office, or organization that owns the network.
```
A) drive-by hacking
B) hacktivism
C) viral marketing
D) cybersquatting
E) denial-of-service
```
A) drive-by hacking
120
A(n) ________ is a network connection that is constructed dynamically within an existing network in order to connect users or nodes.
```
A) virtual private network
B) ambient network
C) cognitive network
D) collaborative service network
E) artificial network
```
A) virtual private network
121
Albitrex Systems is an Asian software consulting firm that develops solutions for companies in the United States and Europe. The company is heavily dependent on the Internet for transporting data. It wants to ensure that only authorized users access the data and that the data is not intercepted and compromised. Which of the following would be most helpful to the company in achieving this goal?
```
A) spam filtering
B) hot back up
C) tunneling
D) open transmitting
E) cloud storage
```
C) tunneling
122
Which of the following is a valid observation about encryption?
A) Encrypted messages cannot be deciphered without the decoding key.
B) Encryption is used for data enhancement rather than data protection.
C) Encryption is performed only after messages enter the network.
D) The encryption approach is not dependent on the type of data transmission.
E) Encryption implementation is expensive and needs authentication from a relevant authority.
A) Encrypted messages cannot be deciphered without the decoding key.
123
Implementing encryption on a large scale, such as on a busy Web site, requires a third party, called a(n) ________.
```
A) certificate authority
B) virtual private network
C) arbitrative authority
D) artificial network
E) buying center
```
A) certificate authority
124
The science of encryption is called ________.
```
A) cryptanalysis
B) cryptology
C) cryptography
D) cryptowall
E) cryptarithm
```
C) cryptography
125
A ________ is nothing more than an empty warehouse with all necessary connections for power and communication, but nothing else.
```
A) cold backup site
B) buying center
C) botnet
D) firewall
E) collocation facility
```
A) cold backup site
126
An organization builds a fully equipped backup facility, having everything from office chairs to a one-to-one replication of the most current data. This facility is called a ________.
```
A) buying center
B) firewall
C) hot backup site
D) botnet
E) collocation facility
```
C) hot backup site
127
Which of the following terms refers to a computer, data, or network site that is designed to be enticing to crackers so as to detect, deflect, or counteract illegal activity?
```
A) honeypot
B) firewall
C) bot herder
D) botnet
E) zombie computer
```
A) honeypot
128
Identify the policy that lists procedures for adding new users to systems and removing users who have left the organization.
```
A) information policy
B) use policy
C) incident handling procedures
D) disaster recovery plan
E) account management policy
```
E) account management policy
129
Which of the following types of plans describes how a business resumes operation after a disaster?
```
A) business continuity plan
B) internal operations plan
C) business unit plan
D) emergency operation plan
E) virtual private network plan
```
A) business continuity plan
130
Recovery point objectives of a recovery plan specify ________.
A) the maximum time allowed to recover from a catastrophic event
B) data structures and patterns of the data
C) the minimum time after which response should be allowed in a catastrophic event
D) how current the backup data should be
E) the capacity of backup servers in storing the necessary data
D) how current the backup data should be
131
Controls that are used to assess whether anything went wrong, such as unauthorized access attempts, are called ________ controls.
```
A) detective
B) preventive
C) corrective
D) adaptive
E) protective
```
A) detective
132
Which of the following laws makes it mandatory for organizations to demonstrate that there are controls in place to prevent misuse and detect any potential problems?
```
A) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
B) Trade Expansion Act of 1962
C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
D) Central Intelligence Agency Act
E) U.S.A. Patriot Act
```
A) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
133
________ level manager.
```
A) operational
B) tactical
C) strategic
D) managerial
E) executive
```
A) operational
134
________ decision making in an organization is referred to as semistructured decision making because solutions and problems are not clear-cut and often require judgment and expertise.
```
A) Illusive-level
B) Operational-level
C) Managerial-level
D) Executive-level
E) Strategic-level
```
C) Managerial-level
135
To assist ________ decision making, information systems are used to obtain aggregate summaries of trends and projections of the future.
```
A) managerial-level
B) functional-level
C) tactical-level
D) operational-level
E) executive-level
```
E) executive-level
136
Which of the following actions would an organization take if it decides to pursue a best-cost provider strategy?
A) offering the best prices in its industry on its goods and/or services
B) attempting to gain monopoly in the market by means of an unhealthy competition
C) offering products or services of reasonably good quality at competitive prices
D) providing high quality products at low prices in specific markets
E) offering low quality products at low prices with high quality after-sales services
C) offering products or services of reasonably good quality at competitive prices
137
Which of the following is an example of a best-cost provider strategy?
A) Different car manufacturers compete in the tiny super car category with prices starting at $150,000 and running as high as $600,000.
B) Aerodoungle's Eridla brand is considered a luxury car. Some of Eridla's models like the ES model, however, are in the midrange of prices for cars.
C) Global furniture retailer Rusicwood provides customers with affordable solutions for better living by offering home furnishings that combine good design, function, and quality with low prices.
D) Wild Hog builds motorcycles that target only the high end of the heavyweight market–the high–end premium cruiser market-with names such as Wolf, Mastiff, and Bulldog.
E) Streetsuit's everyday low prices (EDLP) strategy hinges upon its ability to obtain consumer goods at the cheapest possible price and pass these savings on to consumers.
C) Global furniture retailer Rusicwood provides customers with affordable solutions for better living by offering home furnishings that combine good design, function, and quality with low prices.
138
Which of the following is an implication for firms that have a threat of new entrants into their market?
```
A) increased cost
B) reduced quality
C) increased demand for services
D) increased price
E) decreased market share
```
E) decreased market share
139
For a firm, reduced prices, need for increased quality, and demand for more services would result due to ________.
A) threat of substitute products from other industries
B) customers' bargaining power
C) high threat of new entrants into the market
D) traditional rivals within the industry
E) increase in suppliers' bargaining power
B) customers' bargaining power
140
Personnel forecasting is a functional area information system contained within the ________ department of an organization.
```
A) Accounting
B) Financial
C) Marketing
D) Human Resources
E) Operations
```
D) Human Resources
141
Inventory management is an application that is part of the ________ functional area.
```
A) Accounting
B) Financial
C) Marketing
D) Human Resources
E) Operations
```
E) Operations
142
Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's five primary forces?
A) Threat of flooding the industry with excellent products
B) Rivalry among competing sellers in an industry
C) Threat of potential new entrants in an industry
D) Bargaining power of suppliers in an industry
E) Substitute products from another industry
A) Threat of flooding the industry with excellent products
143
If the ABC company is losing customers on a regular basis, the force that would explain this is most likely to be ________.
A) the bargaining power of customers or the rivalry of sellers in the industry
B) the threat of new entrants or the bargaining power of customers
C) the threat of new entrants in an industry or the rivalry of sellers in the industry
D) the potential of substitute products or the bargaining power of customers
E) the threat of new entrants or the threat of substitute products
B) the threat of new entrants or the bargaining power of customers
144
________ reflect(s) the organization's specific assets that are utilized to achieve cost or product differentiation from its competitors.
```
A) Products
B) Goodwill
C) Technology
D) Resources
E) People
```
D) Resources
145
Value creation occurs when an organization can ________.
A) sell more products at the same price over a given period
B) create new products in an industry
C) provide products at a lower cost or with superior benefits to the customer
D) increase its customer base over time
E) increase capacity in production at the same per unit cost
C) provide products at a lower cost or with superior benefits to the customer
146
According to basic economics within a competitive marketplace, the price of a product is set by its ________.
```
A) opportunity cost
B) sunk cost
C) marginal cost
D) transaction cost
E) fixed cost
```
C) marginal cost
147
Which of the following defines marginal cost?
A) It is the cost of an alternative that must be forgone in order to pursue a certain action.
B) It is the cost of producing an additional unit of output.
C) It is the cost that is independent of the level of goods or services produced by the business.
D) It is the cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered.
E) It is the cost incurred in making an economic exchange.
AACSB: Analytical
B) It is the cost of producing an additional unit of output.
148
________ use(s) information systems to enhance a person's perception of reality by providing relevant information about the user's surroundings with the use of special glasses or other devices.
```
A) 3-D glasses
B) Teleport
C) Virtual reality
D) HoloLens
E) Augmented reality
```
E) Augmented reality
149
Which type of innovation is best described as using innovative ways to connect offerings with customers?
```
A) Process innovation
B) Channel innovation
C) Service innovation
D) Brand innovation
E) Structure innovation
```
B) Channel innovation
150
Which type of innovation is best described as using the company's talent and assets in innovative ways?
```
A) Process innovation
B) Channel innovation
C) Service innovation
D) Brand innovation
E) Structure innovation
```
E) Structure innovation
151
The steps (in order) in the disruptive innovation cycle is ________.
A) Matching, Choosing, Executing, and Assessing
B) Matching, Evaluating, Executing, and Assessing
C) Choosing, Matching, Executing, and Assessing
D) Choosing, Evaluating, Executing, and Assessing
E) Evaluating, Matching, Executing, and Assessing
C) Choosing, Matching, Executing, and Assessing
152
According to the disruptive growth engine, executive leadership will allow a firm to ________.
A) effectively identify and evaluate potential disruptive innovations
B) gain credibility and to bridge sustaining and disruptive product development
C) gain the greatest disruptive opportunities
D) build a disruptive team of expert innovators
E) educate those closest to customers and competitors in order to identify opportunities
B) gain credibility and to bridge sustaining and disruptive product development
153
Which of the following statements is true about the e-business innovation cycle?
A) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the life expectancy of a particular information technology and the horizontal dimension shows time.
B) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the extent to which an organization derives value from a particular information technology and the horizontal dimension shows time.
C) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the expected investments required for a particular information technology and the horizontal dimension shows time.
D) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the efficiency of a particular information technology and the horizontal dimension shows life expectancy of that information technology.
E) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the user-friendliness of a particular technology and the horizontal dimension shows the investment in that technology.
B) The vertical dimension of the cycle shows the extent to which an organization derives value from a particular information technology and the horizontal dimension shows time.
154
In an e-business innovation cycle, after an organization scans the environment for new emerging and enabling technologies, the next step is to ________.
A) create jobs, groups, and processes that are all devoted to scanning the environment
B) select the database and data storage advances
C) address the current opportunity to grab customers and market share
D) match the most promising new technologies with current economic opportunities
E) assess the value of the use of technology for customers and internal clients
D) match the most promising new technologies with current economic opportunities
