Test Bank Ch 8-15 Flashcards
(332 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment?
A
b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
2
Q
A nauseated patient’s report of abdominal pain should be documented:
A
b. as a subjective finding.
3
Q
A patient tells you that he has been feeling “very weak” for the past three days. In regards to the SOAP charting format, this information would be included under what heading?
A
a. S
4
Q
You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather face mask. Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information concerning the oxygen administration?
A
c. T
5
Q
When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because “my chest is hurting.” He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain “feels just like my heart attack two years ago.” Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?
A
a. “My chest is hurting.”
6
Q
An intoxicated patient will not leave the oxygen mask on. You are aware that the acronym FACTUAL-OEC outlines the characteristics of good report writing. Based on these guidelines how would this best be documented on the prehospital care report (PCR)?
A
b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.
7
Q
A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):
A
a. subjective finding.
8
Q
When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left side of a patient’s face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in which of the following ways?
A
d. Draw a single line through the word “left” and write the word “right” next to it.
9
Q
Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?
A
b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.
10
Q
For which of the following patients must you provide care even if the patient refuses it?
A
d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is
11
Q
You are alone responding to an alert and oriented male with chest discomfort who refuses treatment. He is angry with his family for calling for help and will not sign the refusal form despite several requests. In addition to documenting that the patient understands and accepts the risks of refusing care, you would:
A
b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal.
12
Q
When getting a refusal from a patient who does not want treatment, it is critical that you do which of the following things?
A
a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.
13
Q
Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?
A
a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.
14
Q
The goal of effective communication is to:
A
b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.
15
Q
Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except:
A
c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents.
16
Q
Communication is defined as the process by which:
A
a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.
17
Q
The three forms of communication are:
A
c. oral, nonverbal, and written.
18
Q
Medical responders need to be proficient in which two types of medical communication?
A
d. Written documentation and oral communication
19
Q
You are the lead responder at a serious accident. After the accident you can provide patient care information to all of the following except:
A
a. a reporter who is writing a news story.
20
Q
After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?
A
b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
21
Q
The three types of written medical communication OEC Technicians may encounter are:
A
a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.
22
Q
In the CHEATED acronym, the letter T stands for:
A
d. treatment.
23
Q
You are completing your patient care report and are using the acronym CHEATED to guide you. In this acronym, the letter A indicates:
A
c. assessment.
24
Q
The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic FACTUAL-OEC. Some of these acronym letters stand for:
A
a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
25
The acronym FACTUAL-OEC helps OEC Technicians remember that good report writing should include which of the following groups of characteristics?
d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink
26
In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:
c. organized, error free, and checked.
27
When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:
d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
28
An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):
a. mandated reporter.
29
Among the injuries or crimes that must be reported to an appropriate state agency are:
c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.
30
Which of the following pairs are the best examples of the two main types of communication at which OEC Technicians must be proficient?
d. Radio communication and written communication
31
In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for:
b. sex.
32
You are caring for a patient that you realize will require ALS transport to the hospital. In the acronym SAILER, the letter that will assist you to remember to transmit this information during your radio call is:
d. R.
33
Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells?
b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
34
You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion?
d. Relaxation of the tongue
35
Which of the following patients has an actual or potential occlusion of the upper airway?
a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx
36
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of breathing?
c. “Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process.”
37
Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
A 27-year-old male with a suspected intravenous drug overdose and snoring respirations
38
How is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
39
Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct?
c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
40
The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated in a(n):
d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.
41
You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you:
a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward.
42
You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient’s mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would:
c. perform a finger sweep.
43
You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately:
b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
44
Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations?
c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
45
You have arrived in the lodge with your airway and trauma pack to care for a patient who reportedly had a seizure. Assessment reveals him to be apneic with vomitus in the airway. He has a radial pulse, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn him on his side and clean out the vomitus.
46
Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient’s face?
a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
47
Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask?
b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
48
While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide?
c. “ Let's slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath.”
49
You arrive to assist another rescuer with a patient in cardiac arrest. As you enter the room, a brand new OEC Technician informs you that he is having difficulty maintaining the mask seal to the patient’s face while ventilating with the BVM. Which one of the following responses shows that you understand and can help with the problem?
d. “Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.”
50
By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have:
b. kept the tongue away from the airway.
51
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how and when to use an oropharyngeal airway?
I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion.
52
For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated?
c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
53
You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?
a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
54
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker knows how to properly size an oral airway before its placement?
c. “The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.”
55
ou recognize that the an oropharyngeal airway has been appropriately inserted when:
d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.
56
If a patient gags while you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, you should:
a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
57
You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:
b. remove the airway.
58
You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:
c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.
59
Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen?
a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
60
You arrive at the aid room and note that portable oxygen tanks are now yellow instead of green as during your previous shift. As a knowledgeable OEC Technician you should:
a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder.
61
To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should:
d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
62
If while checking a size D oxygen tank you notice that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi, you should recognize that the tank is:
c. half full.
63
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has a correct understanding of the use of oxygen in a prehospital setting?
c. “Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath.”
64
Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?
d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.
65
Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask?
c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
66
Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a female patient with chest pain panics and states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the chest pain becomes. Your best course of action is to:
c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.
67
What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians?
b. A nonrebreather mask
68
When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which of the following observations warrants immediate intervention?
a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM
69
Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?
b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen.
70
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to suction patients properly in a field setting?
d. I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.”
71
The lower airway consists of which of the following structures?
c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
72
The most commonly used method for opening a patient’s mouth to suction the oropharynx, to perform a finger sweep, or to insert an oral airway is:
b. the crossed finger technique.
73
You have opened and cleared your patient’s airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to:
a. place the patient in the lateral recumbent (recovery) position.
74
Your patrol director has asked you to check the oxygen tanks and let her know how long they will last at an accident. To calculate this information you would use which of the following formulas?
a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM
75
A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is:
d. gravity.
76
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to properly store an oxygen tank after use?
d. “I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.”
77
You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last:
a. 8.5 minutes.
78
You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?
d. “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”
79
What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for?
b. Size
80
To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied:
b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time.
81
You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:
a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
82
Which of the following statements shows an understanding by the speaker of the use of a pocket mask?
b. “A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose.”
83
You hear a candidate OEC Technician explaining the use of a barrier shield to another candidate. Which of the following statements would indicate that he does not fully understand its purpose or how to use it?
a. “A barrier shield is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen.”
84
A patient in early shock informs you that he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Given this history, you would recognize the pathophysiology of the shock is probably related to:
d. the loss of plasma volume.
85
A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding is in shock. This type of shock is known as:
a. hypovolemic.
86
Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause of cardiogenic shock?
a. Myocardial infarction
87
The four major categories of shock are:
d. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.
88
Which of the following statements made by a patient’s family member would lead you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock?
b. “He cannot stop throwing up.”
89
The underlying cause of distributive shock is:
d. dilation of blood vessels.
90
Which of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock?
c. Blood clots in the lungs
91
A patient in shock with abdominal pain indicates he noticed lots of blood in the toilet after having a bowel movement this morning. You would recognize the possibility of what type of shock?
b. Hypovolemic
92
You are treating a patient with severe chest pain and believe she is in cardiogenic shock. One of your first treatments would be:
a. high-flow oxygen.
93
You approach a patient and notice a large amount of blood on the ground. The patient appears confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do first?
c. Ensure that the patient's airway is open and clear
94
Which of the following situations is occurring in the body of a person in shock?
d. The cells are not getting enough oxygen, and waste products are accumulating.
95
When performing a primary assessment, the first evidence that the body may be in shock is:
b. a radial pulse of 100 beats per minute.
96
Which of the following statements best indicates that the speaker has an understanding of the role of caring for a patient in shock in a prehospital setting?
d. “Because shock is best treated in the hospital, one should provide care to correct problems affecting ABCDs and then rapidly transport the patient.”
97
A 56-year-old female has struck a tree. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
d. Open and maintain her airway
98
A patient who sustained blunt trauma to the abdominal and pelvic areas in a very serious collision is probably in which type of shock?
d. Hypovolemic
99
Septic shock is caused by:
c. an infection
100
Which of the following lists of assessment findings indicates that a trauma patient may be in compensated shock?
a. Anxious, pulse 104, BP 134/88 mmHg, pale and cool skin
101
You are reassessing a patient who has sustained an open femoral shaft fracture, which has been appropriately treated with bandaging and a traction splint. It has been 10 minutes since the initial evaluation. Which of the following reassessment findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating and is in the decompensating phase of shock?
b. Blood pressure of 88/50
102
Which of the following statements about irreversible shock is correct?
a. Even with treatment, death will result.
103
Shock is defined as:
d. a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.
104
The cardiovascular system is composed of the:
c. heart, blood vessels, and blood.
105
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the heart?
b. It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary veins.
106
Which of the following statements correctly describes cardiac output?
a. It is the combination of stroke volume and heart rate.
107
The key components of blood are:
c. red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
108
The degree to which hemoglobin is full of oxygen is called:
b. oxygen saturation.
109
Hemorrhage can result in all of the following except:
a. decreased respirations.
110
In shock, the body’s reactions to a decreased amount of oxygen reaching the cells include:
b. increased stroke volume, increased heart rate, and increased peripheral resistance.
111
In decompensated shock, the failure of body systems in spite of the body’s attempt to oxygenate vital organs becomes apparent as:
c. increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure.
112
You are caring for a 55-year-old man with significant trauma. His medical history reveals high blood pressure for which he takes a beta blocker. You realize that this group of drugs may:
a. inhibit his heart’s ability to beat faster.
113
Which of the following factors must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding?
b. A person in poor health cannot tolerate the same amount of blood loss as a healthier person.
114
You get a call for a “serious” injury on the expert trail. As you are skiing up to the patient your first priority is:
c. assessing the scene for rescuer safety.
115
The smaller branches of the arterial tree that contain a muscular layer that enables changes in vessel diameter are called _______; these vessels ________.
a. resistance vessels; enable the body to control
116
In a healthy adult male, the hematocrit—the amount of red blood cells in the blood—should be:
d. 42–54 percent.
117
You are treating a 42-year-old female exhibiting signs of shock. You do not suspect a spinal injury. To try to improve blood flow to the heart, you should position the patient:
a. supine with her feet elevated 8–12 inches above the level of the heart.
118
When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, the priority of care is:
c. recognizing the signs of a stroke.
119
Which of the following is the best answer to the question, “Are all stroke patients paralyzed on one side of their bodies?”
d. “No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness on one side of their bodies.”
120
When assessing a patient for abnormal speech, you should:
b. ask the patient to repeat a common phrase.
121
When assessing a patient for a facial droop, you should:
c. ask the patient to show you his teeth or to smile.
122
Which of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient describes the proper procedure for assessing an arm drift?
d. “Hold your arms straight out for 10 to 15 seconds.”
123
Which of the following questions is critical for establishing a window of treatment for a patient who is weak and dizzy and may have suffered a stroke?
b. “What time did the weakness and dizziness start?”
124
Which of the following pieces of information is assessed by the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
b. Presence or absence of facial droop
125
You have assessed a patient and found a patent airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. The patient is having no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. You should interpret these findings as:
d. suggestive that a stroke may be occurring.
126
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker has an accurate understanding of assessment findings related to stroke?
b. “If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected.”
127
The family of a 75-year-old man has called you to evaluate the patient's slurred speech and right arm weakness. When you arrive 10 minutes later, you find that the symptoms have completely resolved. What should you do next?
d. Strongly advise the patient to seek urgent medical attention in a hospital setting
128
Your assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. Which of the following would be your priority?
a. Suction the patient’s airway.
129
Which of the following events best describes an ischemic stroke?
d. A blood clot has obstructed a blood vessel in the brain.
130
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands hemorrhagic strokes?
b. “They occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures.”
131
The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA):
a. are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.
132
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker an accurate understanding of altered mental status?
a. “It describes any abnormal change in a person’s level of awareness.”
133
Your patient is a 78-year-old male who was found lying on the beginner slope. The patient is unresponsive with unequal pupils and vital signs as follows: pulse 78, respirations 20 and deep. The patient has a hematoma on the back of his head. Which one of the following would you do first?
c. Ensure an open airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
134
Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient’s family is most important in relation to the treatment of a possible stroke?
c. “We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m. last night.”
135
The benefit of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is that it:
d. helps you identify the probability that your patient is having a stroke.
136
You have been called for a seizure emergency. You find an adult female actively seizing with a bystander attempting to place a spoon between her teeth. The bystander tells you that he is trying to keep the person from biting her tongue. Which one of the following would be an appropriate response?
b. Turn the patient onto her side to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions.
137
A young boy tells you that his twin brother suffers from seizures and asks what he can do if he sees his brother convulsing. You should give him which one of the following instructions?
a. “Move any moveable objects and furniture away from him.”
138
As a general rule, a seizing patient should be transported in what position?
c. Lateral recumbent
139
After a delayed response, you arrive in the lodge and find a 62-year-old female is still seizing. Which one of the following should you do first?
a. Assess her airway and breathing.
140
You are called the lodge to assess a 3-year-old boy. The parents state that their son was playing with his brother and “blanked out” and “stared off into space” for several seconds. They deny any convulsing-like movement. Based on this description, you would suspect what type of seizure?
d. An absence seizure
141
When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs is most suggestive of a seizure?
b. A bitten tongue
142
You have been called to the lodge for a behavioral emergency. When you arrive, you find a disheveled male in his forties sitting up against a wall. He is confused and incontinent. Bystanders state that he suddenly began to stumble around and then fell to the ground and was grunting and shaking. From this description, you would be suspicious of what condition?
a. A generalized seizure
143
Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by:
a. the duration of the seizure.
144
During the initial part of a generalized seizure, some patients experience a(n):
b. aura.
145
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the danger posed by status epilepticus?
c. “The longer the seizure continues, the greater the likelihood of permanent brain damage.”
146
Which of the following statements concerning the pathophysiology of seizures is correct?
d. A seizure occurs when there is an electrical disturbance in the brain.
147
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the A stands for:
b. alcohol and acidosis.
148
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the E stands for:
a. epilepsy, environment, and electrolyte imbalance.
149
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the first I stands for:
c. insulin.
150
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the O stands for:
b. oxygen and overdose.
151
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the U stands for:
d. uremia.
152
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the T stands for:
b. trauma and tumors.
153
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the second I stands for:
d. infection.
154
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the P stands for:
d. poisoning and psychiatric conditions.
155
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the S stands for:
b. seizure, stroke, and syncope.
156
The part of the brain that is responsible for emotion, thought, speech, integration, and memory is the:
c. cerebrum.
157
The part of the brain that controls basic functions necessary for life is the:
a. brain stem.
158
The part of the brain that controls balance and coordination is the:
b. cerebellum.
159
Insulin:
a. is a catalyst for driving glucose into cells.
160
The primary problem in Type II diabetes is that:
b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.
161
Which of the following actions may result in hypoglycemia in a diabetes patient?
c. Missing a meal
162
Hyperglycemia:
a. has a more gradual onset than hypoglycemia.
163
Glucose:
b. is an energy source for brain cells and other cells in the body.
164
Which of the following statements regarding poisonings is true?
a. A poison is any substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body.
165
Which of the following terms does not indicate a route of absorption in the body?
c. Distribution
166
A 44-year-old patient was found at home unresponsive. Based on his clinical presentation and the fact that he was burning a kerosene heater in an enclosed room, you determine that he is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning. Based on this information, which route of exposure would you recognize as responsible for the poisoning?
b. Inhalation
167
Distribution of a poisonous substance in the body occurs primarily through the:
b. circulatory system.
168
The process by which the body breaks down a substance is known as:
c. metabolism.
169
The speed at which a toxin is distributed in the body is affected by:
a. the heart rate.
170
Anything that has mass and occupies space is known as a:
d. substance.
171
A 15-year-old admits to taking “a bunch” of extra strength Tylenol tablets. Her mother states it’s nothing to worry about because it was just Tylenol. Based on your training you recognize that this ingestion could have serious consequences. It is because toxic amounts acetaminophen can cause irreversible:
a. liver damage.
172
You are visiting a friend’s home and suddenly hear a child crying out in the kitchen. As you assess the scene you note kitchen cabinets are open with bottles tossed around. The child is holding her hand to her mouth. Your friend tells you that the child must have tasted something that she didn’t like. Based on your scene assessment, you would:
c. call 911 and try to identify which bottle the child may have been drinking from.
173
You are assisting a paramedic in the aid room to care for a patient who has ingested a toxin. The paramedic states she wants to give the patient activated charcoal. Based on your training you recall that there are specific criteria that should be met before charcoal is administered. Which of the following criteria is not one of the criteria for administering activated charcoal?
a. The patient ingested the poison less than three hours ago.
174
It is late Friday evening and you are joining your friends at a cabin for a winter weekend camping trip. When you open the door you notice how nice and warm it is inside. Your friends though are not very welcoming. They tell you they are not feeling well and complain of being lightheaded and nauseated. Based on their symptoms, you are concerned they may be suffering from:
d. carbon monoxide poisoning.
175
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands inhalation poisonings?
a. “They can occur from inhaling common household products.”
176
You are driving on the highway and see an overturned tanker. A fluid is spilling from the tanker rapidly covering the ground around the driver’s door. The driver appears to be unresponsive. The only marking on the tanker seems to be the name of the tanker company and hazard symbol. Your initial action should be:
c. remain at a safe distance while calling 911 for assistance.
177
You are helping a friend change the battery in his truck when acid from the old battery splashes in his eye. He is complaining of pain in his right eye and is having a hard time keeping it open. He has no problems with airway, breathing, or circulation. What should you do?
d. Immediately irrigate the eye with copious amounts of water.
178
You are at a party and are called to assist a young female college student who is unresponsive. Friends say that she is not a heavy drinker, but tonight she drank an excessive amount of alcohol. She responds only to painful stimuli and has snoring respirations. Her respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and her radial pulse is weak. Based on your OEC training your first action would be would be:
c. perform the jaw thrust-head tilt maneuver.
179
You are teaching a class about drug-related emergencies, specifically opiate overdose. Which of the following statements made by students indicates an understanding of possible signs of opiate overdose?
b. “When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression.”
180
Agitation, elevated heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are signs of intoxication with which of the following types of substances?
a. Cocaine and hallucinogens
181
Substance abuse is defined as:
d. the intentional misuse of a substance that results in significant impairment or distress.
182
A patient in the third day of withdrawal from alcohol could develop all of the following conditions except:
a. rash.
183
Which of the following parts of the body is least often affected by substances?
c. The lymphatic vessels
184
A poisonous substance that comes from a living organism is known as a(n):
b. toxin.
185
As a whole, the least toxic of all accidental ingestion-related poisonings involve:
c. toxic plants.
186
For children, the three deadliest poisons are:
b. aspirin, acetaminophen, and iron.
187
The most commonly abused drug in the world is:
d. alcohol.
188
In the United States, poison-related information is available 24 hours a day by contacting the:
c. National Poison Center at 1-800-222-1222.
189
he mnemonic DUMBELS and the acronym SLUDGE can help identify specific signs and symptoms associated with:
a. exposure to nerve agents.
190
A passive process whereby compounds move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
a. diffusion.
191
Which of the following lists best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs once it passes the pharynx?
d. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
192
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which of the following events occurs?
d. Exhalation
193
The most important muscle of respiration is the:
c. diaphragm.
194
Which of the following actions causes an individual to inhale?
c. The diaphragm contracts and flattens.
195
A tachypneic patient is breathing:
c. more rapidly than normal.
196
During a scene size-up, which of the following observations most strongly suggests that your adult patient is suffering from an acute respiratory emergency?
b. The patient is in the tripod position.
197
In an adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is:
a. the tongue.
198
When using a metered-dose inhaler, it is important that right after inhaling patients:
d. hold their breath for 10 seconds.
199
What is the minimum time a patient should wait before taking a second dose from a metered-dose inhaler?
a. 30 seconds
200
A patient whose lungs alveoli are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia is at risk of:
c. decreased absorption of oxygen into the body.
201
Your friend tells you that his doctor just prescribed medication for him that he takes with a metered dose inhaler. He says he was nervous and is not sure he remembers his physician’s directions. Which one of the following statements would be correct?
d. “Call your doctor and ask her again how you should use it.”
202
Involuntary breathing is controlled by:
a. the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood.
203
You are documenting your assessment of the patient who just left in an ambulance. The patient told you that he felt short of breath. You would document this as:
c. dyspnea.
204
Which of the following conditions is responsible for a finding of wheezing accompanying shortness of breath?
b. Bronchiole constriction
205
The normal range for respiratory rate in children is:
b. 15–20 breaths per minute.
206
You receive a call that there is an infant in the lodge who seems to be having difficulty breathing. As you are approaching the scene with a new candidate patroller, you ask him what is the normal respiratory rate for an infant. The candidate would be correct if he told you the rate should be:
c. 25–50 breaths per minute.
207
You and your OEC candidate are evaluating a 67-year-old patient with respiratory distress. You tell the candidate to document that the patient complains of dyspnea. The candidate asks you what “dyspnea” means. You explain that dyspnea is:
b. a subjective complaint of shortness of breath.
208
Which of the following statements about respiratory accessory muscles is not correct?
d. They decrease negative internal chest pressure to draw more air into the lungs.
209
Which of the following signs would you recognize as an early sign of respiratory distress in a 7-year-old boy who complains of difficulty breathing?
b. Nasal flaring
210
You are having a hard time getting the medical history of a patient who is short of breath. Which one of the following pieces of information would lead you to believe that the patient has a history of a chronic lung disease such as chronic emphysema?
b. Her chest is barrel shaped.
211
A 71-year-old woman is complaining of the sudden onset of shortness of breath. She is cyanotic and appears somewhat panicked. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Her husband tells you that she had knee surgery about one week ago. Based on your assessment and the patient’s history, you suspect that the patient is suffering from:
d. a pulmonary embolus.
212
You are called to aid a 65-year-old man who is having difficulty breathing. When you arrive, you find that he is sitting upright in a chair and is in obvious respiratory distress. His airway is open and his respirations are 28 per minute. At this time you would:
a. provide him oxygen with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
213
A 30-year-old male arrives in the aid room complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following actions would you perform first?
b. Assess the adequacy of his breathing.
214
You are in the cafeteria and suddenly hear someone calling for help because her friend is choking. Which of the following signs would tell you that you need to intervene immediately?
b. The patient cannot speak.
215
You arrive on scene where an unresponsive patient is being treated. The OEC Technician on scene tells you that she thinks the patient may have had a stroke. You suggest to the patroller to first:
c. apply a nonrebreather mask and provide oxygen.
216
A 74-year-old male with a history of chronic emphysema is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. He appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Physical exam of the anterior chest wall reveals crepitus. Based on the patient’s history and physical exam, you would suspect which of the following conditions?
a. Spontaneous pneumothorax
217
You are assessing a 34-year-old man who is complaining of “not feeling well.” He is alert and pale. His respirations are regular at 20 per minute. Based on your training, you recognize that his respirations are:
a. normal for an adult.
218
Hyperventilation syndrome is a common psychological condition that:
d. results in abnormally low blood carbon dioxide levels.
219
Several abnormal lung sounds can be helpful in understanding what condition may be affecting a patient. One such sound is wheezing. Which of the following statements about wheezing is false?
d. It can be heard only with a stethoscope.
220
You are assessing a 24-year-old skier who is anxious and complaining of shortness of breath. She tells you that this sometimes happens when she is exercising. Her respirations are rapid and shallow. Based on this information, you suspect the patient is suffering from:
b. asthma.
221
You are called to assist a 16-year-old female who is reportedly having trouble breathing. Your assessment reveals an anxious female with rapid respirations who is complaining of pins and needles around her lips. Based on your training you suspect that:
b. these findings will disappear if she slows her rate of breathing.
222
Which of the following respiratory rates may signify significant respiratory issues in an adult?
a. Fewer than 8 respirations per minute
223
A patient tells you that he is allergic to poison ivy and that while burning it yesterday he accidentally inhaled some of the smoke. He awoke today to find a red rash on the back of his left hand and is concerned. Assessment reveals him to be alert and oriented, with easy respirations and a blood pressure of 128/70 mm/Hg. Which of the following actions should you take next?
c. Obtain a medical history using the SAMPLE acronym.
224
Which of the following statements best suggests that the speaker may be having a mild allergic reaction?
d. “I have a rash on my face and neck.”
225
A patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli is covered with hives. He has labored respirations and a weak and tachycardic pulse. His vital signs are pulse 128, respirations 24, and blood pressure 80/50 mmHg. Given this presentation, you would suspect:
b. an anaphylactic reaction.
226
During a primary assessment, which of the following findings would most lead you to suspect an allergic reaction?
a. Hives on the face and neck
227
A patient who is severely short of breath and covered with hives states that she is very allergic to crab. She admits to trying some seafood dip about 10 minutes ago. Which of the following questions should you ask her first?
d. “Do you have an epinephrine auto-injector?”
228
The patient has swollen lips and hives. Which of the following scene size-up observations supports your suspicion that the patient is having an allergic reaction?
b. He has a new container of antibiotics with only two pills missing.
229
The most severe form of an allergic reaction is called:
b. anaphylaxis.
230
When the respiratory effects of an allergic reaction are obvious within a few seconds to minutes:
a. the reaction tends to be more severe.
231
On scene you assisted a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector after he was stung multiple times by bees. You are now transporting him to the first aid room. As you reassess him, which of the following signs best indicates that the epinephrine is benefiting him?
c. Decreasing wheezing
232
A patient who is allergic to peanuts was just exposed to peanut butter. Assessment reveals her to be alert and oriented, with swollen lips and hives on her face. She states that she is lightly short of breath; her respiratory rate is 20 per minute. She has a heart rate of 82 and a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg. She states that she is nauseated and has a headache. Which of the following actions is your immediate treatment for this patient?
b. Provide oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
233
You have arrived by the side of a patient who is allergic to latex and was exposed to it when she spilled a latex-containing powder on her right hand. Assessment reveals her to be lethargic and panicked. She is able to speak only a few words with each breath. Her tongue is swollen and her respirations are rapid, labored, and noisy. Which of the following actions should be your priority?
b. Wash the latex powder off of the hand.
234
You are responding to a call for a patient with an allergic reaction. Your partner is a new OEC Technician, and this is his first call. Which of the following instructions to him about assessment and treatment of an allergic reaction would be correct?
c. “Our first priority is to treat the patient’s ABCDs.”
235
A patient informs you that any time she uses a particular soap, she experiences a mild allergic reaction. You recognize that:
a. the soap contains an allergen.
236
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands allergic reactions and anaphylaxis?
c. “Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that will lead to death without emergency care.”
237
Which of the following foods most commonly causes an allergic reaction?
c. Peanuts
238
You are called to the lodge to help a patient who has developed an allergic reaction after taking an antibiotic medication. You would describe this route of exposure as:
c. ingestion.
239
Which of the following statements explains why patients experiencing a moderate or severe allergic reaction have difficulty breathing?
c. The bronchioles constrict and are clogged by thick secretions.
240
Which of the following statements made by the patient after you assist him with his epinephrine auto-injector best indicates that the epinephrine is working and that the patient is improving?
a. “My breathing feels a lot easier.”
241
Five minutes after you assist a patient with her epinephrine auto-injector, she states that she feels much better and would like to refuse additional care. What of the following statements would be most appropriate given the situation?
b. “Now that you have taken your epinephrine, you should to go to the hospital for additional care.”
242
After assisting a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector, you note that his blood pressure has improved. You realize that this finding probably resulted from epinephrine’s ability to:
b. constrict blood vessels.
243
Your patient is having an allergic reaction and needs to use his epinephrine auto-injector. He is concerned that he does not recall the correct way to do it. Which of the following things would you tell him?
a. “Press the injector onto the outer thigh, push the tip against the thigh until the needle deploys, and wait for it to automatically inject.”
244
You are staffing a first-aid booth at a mountain bike event. A mother approaches you with her 15-year-old son and informs you that her son is severely allergic to bees. Although he hasn’t been stung, she is concerned about the auto-injector he carries. The mother states that it was prescribed when her son was 13 years old. She shows you the 0.15 mg auto-injector, and you note that it expired about 12 months ago. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate for you to make?
a. “Call your doctor’s office for a new prescription because this auto-injector is out of date.”
245
Which of the following findings would be a contraindication to the administration of epinephrine for a patient suffering an anaphylactic reaction?
c. The name on the injector is not the patient’s name.
246
When administering epinephrine to an infant or child, the injector should be placed at what location?
d. The lateral thigh
247
A patient experiencing an allergic reaction tells you that it is easier to breathe following administration of epinephrine. Which of the following effects is an effect of epinephrine that would be responsible for this improvement?
b. Dilation of the bronchioles
248
Which of the following findings is present in anaphylaxis but occurs much less frequently during a mild allergic reaction?
d. Hypotension
249
An acquired, abnormal immune response to a substance that does not normally cause a reaction is known as:
b. an allergy.
250
A foreign substance that triggers an allergic response in the body is known as:
a. an antigen.
251
A patient can have an allergic reaction caused by intramuscular administration of a medication. This method by which an allergen enters the body is called:
b. injection.
252
The overreaction of the immune system to a substance that is otherwise harmless is known as:
a. hypersensitivity.
253
Which of the following statements concerning allergies is true?
b. An allergic reaction to a substance can occur minutes, hours, or even days after exposure to the substance.
254
The approach allergists recommend to allergies is called “Triple A,” which refers to:
a. awareness, avoidance, and action.
255
You are teaching a class on cardiovascular disease and need to describe what atherosclerosis is. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate explanation?
c. “Cholesterol and lipid material accumulate within the walls of arteries.”
256
You are called to assist a 62-year-old female who is complaining of fatigue, jaw discomfort, and diaphoresis. When asked, she denies having chest pain or shortness of breath. She tells you that she has a history of hypertension and takes a blood pressure pill. She also has nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements made by your assistant would require intervention on your part?
b. “She is not short of breath, so we don't need to transport her.”
257
You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first?
a. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.
258
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction?
d. “Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they experience a sensation of ‘severe heartburn.’ ”
259
A patient with chest pain informs you that he has a bad heart. You think he may have congestive heart failure. When performing your secondary assessment, which of the following signs or symptoms does not indicate that the patient is in congestive heart failure?
b. Bradycardia
260
Aspirin may be used in a patient who has chest pain suggestive of a heart attack because aspirin may:
c. decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.
261
You are with a patient who is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his arm and neck. He is alert and oriented and has an open airway and adequate breathing. His pulse is strong and his skin is cool and slightly diaphoretic. His pulse is 84, his respirations are 18, and his blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg. Responses to SAMPLE questioning include a history of a previous heart attack and chronic lung disease; an allergy to aspirin; possession of nitroglycerin; and last ate about 6 hours ago. Based on this information, you would not:
a. assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.
262
You are caring for a patient with chest pain who has just taken his nitroglycerin. The patient’s chest pain has been alleviated. You understand that nitroglycerin is effective in treating chest pain because it:
c. dilates the arteries and veins, which decreases the workload on the heart.
263
When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is:
a. placed under the tongue.
264
Before nitroglycerin is administered, you should ensure that:
a. nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.
265
Which of the following medications, if taken in the last 24 hours, would be a contraindication to administering nitroglycerin?
c. Viagra
266
You are assisting a 67-year-old patient with chest pain. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets but his pain remains a 7 out of 10. He is diaphoretic; his respirations are 18 per minute and adequate; his pulse is 72; and his blood pressure 80/62 mmHg. He is on a nonrebreather mask at 15L per minute. You would:
c. reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.
267
Which of the following actions is most important before assisting a patient to take prescribed nitroglycerin?
b. Evaluate the patient’s blood pressure.
268
When obtaining a medical history, which of the following statement made by a patient is classic for a patient with stable angina?
b. “When I stopped exercising, the pain went away.”
269
You are in the first-aid area assisting a patient who just arrived with chest pain. He relates a history of angina that usually resolves with nitroglycerin. The patient states that the pain started when he was skiing through the bumps. Over the last 20 minutes, he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets and rested, but the pain has not gone away. Your next action would be to:
c. place him on high-flow oxygen.
270
An OEC Technician indicates that she understands the difference between stable angina and an acute myocardial infarction (MI) when she states:
d. “An acute myocardial infarction results in the death of cardiac tissue; stable angina causes ischemia to the heart muscle.”
271
Which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of right-sided congestive heart failure?
b. Edema in the legs and feet
272
An alert and oriented 65-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, noisy respirations, jugular vein distention, and edema in her feet and ankles. Her pulse is 132, her respirations are 24, and her blood pressure is 86/68. Based on these findings, you would suspect that the patient:
c. is undergoing right ventricular failure.
273
You have just arrived with an AED at a scene where fellow OEC Technicians are treating a patient in cardiac arrest. ALS has been contacted and is about 1 minute away. Which of the following actions would you take?
b. Apply and use the AED.
274
Which of the following statements made by a patient would cause you to suspect an aortic abdominal aneurysm?
a. “I have really bad belly pain that I also feel in my back.”
275
You are assessing a 68-year-old man who is complaining of severe abdominal pain that radiates to his back. He tells you that he has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Based on this history and his complaints, on your physical exam you would look for:
b. a pulsating mass in his abdomen.
276
Blood in the right ventricle is pumped into the:
b. pulmonary artery.
277
Which of the following statements concerning arteries is true?
a. They carry blood away from the heart.
278
Which of the following statements concerning the cardiovascular system is true?
c. An electrical impulse that starts in the right atrium stimulates contraction of the heart muscle.
279
The largest artery in the body is the:
c. aorta.
280
The walls of the capillaries are only one cell thick. This allows the exchange of nutrients and oxygen and waste products. The capillaries serve as the bridge between:
a. arterioles and venules.
281
Which of the following statements concerning the flow of blood to and through the right side of the heart is correct?
d. Poorly oxygenated blood reaches the right atrium from the venae cavae, is pumped through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is then pumped through the pulmonic valve and on to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries.
282
Which of the following structures help direct blood flow forward and prevent the backflow of blood within the heart?
c. The atrioventricular valves
283
The left side of the heart:
b. pumps oxygenated blood to the body.
284
A thickening and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls is known as:
a. arteriosclerosis.
285
A patient tells you that he has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease. You recognize this diagnosis to mean that the patient has:
d. narrowing of the small arteries that supply blood and oxygen to the heart.
286
You are preparing to teach a class on hypertension. Which of the following statements provides incorrect information that you would not include in your presentation?
b. There are no known treatable risk factors for hypertension.
287
Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease (CVD) is false?
c. Most cases of CVD are congenital and could be prevented with improved prenatal care.
288
One complication of an acute myocardial infarction may be cardiogenic shock. Based on your training, you would define cardiogenic shock as a(n):
a. condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart’s inability to adequately pump blood.
289
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled or distant heart tones in which the heartbeat is difficult to auscultate are hallmark signs of:
d. pericardial tamponade.
290
A 62-year-old man presents with a complaint of abdominal pain radiating to his groin. He also complains of dizziness. On examination, his abdomen is tender and you feel a large pulsatile mass. His signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
b. an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
291
Your neighbor tells you that he is concerned about his 70-year-old wife. She is at home recovering from a heart attack that occurred about 3 weeks ago. He explains that over the last few days her ankles and lower legs have been gradually swelling and are painful to touch. Today she seems to be a little short of breath. You recommend that your neighbor seek immediate medical attention because these findings are suggestive of:
a. congestive heart failure.
292
You are out shopping when a middle-aged man suddenly falls to the ground. You quickly run to assist him and note that he is not breathing and does not have a carotid pulse. You begin CPR because you know that prompt intervention with an AED is needed. Which of the following statements is not a reason that prompt intervention with an AED is needed?
c. Asystole, which can accompany an acute MI, is often reversed by the use of an AED.
293
When performing cardiac compressions on a 12-year-old child, you would:
a. administer cycles of 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths.
294
Which of the following is not a reason to stop CPR?
c. It has been 25 minutes, so brain damage has occurred.
295
In performing CPR on an infant:
a. place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.
296
Three commonly used cardiac medications are:
b. Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.
297
Which of the following actions is not an action you should take when using an AED?
c. Ascertain the patient’s age, because special cables are needed for anyone under age 8.
298
You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is tachypneic. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have:
a. pulmonary embolism.
299
After jogging with your friend for about 30 minutes, she stops and asks why your heart rate increases and your heart feels like it is pumping harder after you exercise for a while. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, your best response would be which of the following statements?
b. “Exercise makes your body need more nutrients and oxygen; your heart pumps harder and faster to deliver more blood containing those things to your muscles.”
300
Which statement about medical communication is NOT true?
Medical communication data flow has little or no effect on the safety of outdoor recreational activities.
301
As an OEC technician you are more than likely considered a "mandated reporter." Below is a list of the injuries or crimes the law requires you to report except.
Verbal aggressiveness
302
Miscommunication can occur due to all but which of the following reasons?
Active listening with interactive feedback
303
Your handwriting and spelling are terrible. Which of the following would be the best method for you to complete an incident form or SOAP report?
Ask a colleague to scribe the information for you, then both of you date and sign the form
304
For which of the following could you be sued due to a HEPA violation?
Responding to a phone call from a patient's employer that a patient was indeed sent to a local hospital in the aftermath of an accident
305
An 18-year-old patient quietly tells you that she fears she may be pregnant, and you document this on the patient's SOAP form. When the patient's mother arrives, she demands to see the form, stating that she has a right to see it because she pays for her daughter's health insurance. Your best response to the mother would be to:
Explain to her that HEPA privacy laws forbid your sharing this information with her.
306
Shock can be described as a physiologic state in which:
The cells of all organs are not getting enough oxygen and waste products are accumulating.
307
In your evaluation of a patient with chest pain and hyptotension, you come to the conclusion that he is likely experiencing cardiogenic shock. He has a palpable carotid pulse. Your most appropriate immediate action would be to:
Administer high-flow oxygen.
308
A snowboarder has missed the correct landing area on a terrain feature and has impacted at high speed the flat runout zone from an estimated height of 25 feet. You cannot feel radial pulses, the carotid pulse is weakly palpable at 125 beats per minute, he is anxious, and the skin is pale and sweaty. His abdomen is exquisitely tender to palpation. What best describes this situation?
Hypovolemic shock from internal bleeding
309
A commonly used position in which to transport a postictal patient following a seizure is:
Lateral recumbent position.
310
Multiple family members are frantically and simultaneously telling you everything they think might be helpful as you evaluate your patient for unresponsiveness. Of the following, which nugget of history carries the most import?
He was acting oddly and was confused last night at 11 P.M. and then went to bedHe was acting oddly and was confused last night at 11 P.M. and then went to bed.
311
You have arrived on scene to care for an elderly woman who has fallen on the ice. She is now unresponsive. Her pupils are unequal, there is a palpable radial pulse at 74, and respirations are 14 with some grunting sounds with inspiration. What is your first action?
Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver
312
Which of the following lists the anatomical structures of the upper airway?
a. Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, larynx, epiglottis
313
Which one of the following best describes the path that carbon dioxide must travel to get from the lungs to the outside air?
a. Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, larynx, oropharynx
314
Correctly applied, what is the device most likely to deliver the maximum amount of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient?
Nonrebreather face mask
315
Administration of activated charcoal is useful in the management of ingested (swallowed) poisons because:
t binds many toxins to the charcoal, which is then eliminated in the stool.
316
The most important principle in the management of a suspected poisoning scene is:
Personal and team safety.
317
The most commonly abused drug in the world is:
alcohol
318
A Tylenol overdose primarily affects the:
liver
319
What is the most expedient way to obtain assistance from the nearest poison control center?
Dial 1-800-222-1222 or 9-1-1
320
Signs of opiate overdose can include all of the following EXCEPT:
Hypertension.
321
Signs and symptoms of an abdominal aortic aneurysm can include all of the following EXCEPT:
Blood pressure that is higher in the right arm than left.
322
You have assisted a patient with a history of stable angina to correctly take the third of three nitroglycerin tablets that he has been taking for chest pain over the last 15 minutes. Five minutes later his chest pain is unchanged. What do you think may be happening?
He may be experiencing a myocardial infarction
323
Two OECTs observe a skier collapse in the lift line, determine cardiac arrest, and begin correctly performing two-rescuer CPR. You arrive 3 minutes later with the AED and are informed by radio that there is an ALS unit less than 1 minute away. You should:
Apply and use the AED.
324
You are attending a 58-year-old overweight gentleman in the lodge cafeteria who is rubbing his left shoulder and complaining of a "squeezing" pain in his chest. He is sweating, has cool skin, and a palpable radial pulse at 82 beats per minute. Your first action should be to:
Administer oxygen with an NRB at 15 lpm.
325
What is an OECT's primary goal in the prehospital care of a chest pain patient?
To recognize that the pain may be due to a cardiac event and provide proper care
326
You find that you have made an error on a patient report form. How do you best handle this?
Draw a single line through the error, and then initial and date it
327
A spontaneously breathing patient has just had his airway opened and cleared. While waiting for additional equipment to arrive, an easy way to help maintain this airway is to:
Place the patient in the lateral recovery position.
328
A jaw-thrust maneuver would be best applied in which of the following circumstances?
An unresponsive patient with snoring sounds after falling from a ski lift.
329
You want to open your patient's mouth to check for obstruction with the cross-finger technique. Which of the following describes the best way to accomplish the cross-finger technique?
Place your index finger on the upper teeth and thumb on the lower teeth. Then spread your finger and thumb apart opening the mouth.
330
You have opened and cleared your unresponsive patient's airway and there is no evidence of head or spinal injury. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to put this patient into the recovery position. Which of the following best describe this position?
Place the patient onto his left side
331
Which of the following occurs during the proper application and use of a nasal cannula is true?
Patients often prefer a nasal cannula over a non-rebreather because it is less restrictive.
332
To clear an airway of fluid and debris:
Insert the tip of the suction catheter only as far as you can see
