TEST - in general from PRODIGY Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

MILLILITER dose range for LA dosing for caudal anesthesia

A

0.5-1.0mL / kg

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2
Q

define ‘field block’

A

injection of large amount of LA into SQ to block cutaneous nerves

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3
Q

popliteal blocks disrupt transmission in the _____ n.

A

sciatic

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4
Q

popliteal block and ______ n. blocks will provide complete anesthesia below knee.

A

saphenous

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5
Q

After spinal, pt. has RR 16bpm, SpO2 100%, c/o dyspnea… where is block level?

A

T2-T4 blocks indicate sensory loss to chest wall movement = dyspnea despite WNL RR… C2-C3 will result in denervation to phrenic nerve and intercostal muscles = hypoxia, hypercarbia, respiratory arrest

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6
Q

spinal epidurals occur in this order: the _______ is inserted first then the ________ is performed 2 interspaces below

A

epidural, spinal

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7
Q

ANTERIOR border of epidural space? POSTERIORLY?

A

believe it or not, ANT. is posterior longitudinal segment and POS. is vertebral lamina and ligamentum flavum

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8
Q

lumbar spinal peaks at which interspace?

A

L3

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9
Q

INJECTION of hyperbaric spinal @ L3 means the drug will spread which direction?

A

caudal and cephalad since L3 is the peak

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10
Q

what nerve fibers/ spinal column level innervate urinary bladder tone

A

S2-S4

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11
Q

caudal anesthesia is good below whiche level?

A

level of umbilicus

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12
Q

spinal-epidural rationale for labor pain… which is first?

A

spinal for early, epidural for active labor

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13
Q

what cardiac condition is C.I. for neuraxial anesthesia

A

aortic stenosis

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14
Q

pregnant patients receive what fraction of spinal anesthetic than non-pregnant patients?

A

1/3 less

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15
Q

epidural blood patch: how much autologous blood and where?

A

15mL one interspace below level of dural puncture

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16
Q

epidural opioids exert effects on receptors at which LAMINA (2) aka the ___________ ___________.

A

II and III aka substantia gelatinosa

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17
Q

epinephrine, clonidine, and phenylephrine dosing to prolong spinal

A
epi = 0.1-0.2ml 1:1000 
clonidine = 75-100mcg
phenylephrine = 2-5mg (no way but this is from PRODIGY)
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18
Q

appropriate opioid dosing for morphine, fentanyl and sufenta in spinal blocks

A

FENTANYL = 10-25 mcg
SUFENTA = 10mcg
preservative free MORPHINE = 250mcg

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19
Q

epidural catheter needle placement (BL and unilateral)

A

cephalad for BL, 45 towards side you wish to blck

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20
Q

epidural DC’d ___ hours prior LMWH dosing

A

2

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21
Q

SAS (subarachnoid space) extends to __-___ in adults and __-___ in kiddos

A

S2-S3, L1-L3

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22
Q

SPINAL-epidural blocks: injection of epidural anesthetic does what to your previously doses spinal anesthetic?

A

increases block height

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23
Q

which areas/level of spinal column are MOST dependent when supine

A

T4-T8

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24
Q

SCIATIC nerves divides into which two n.? Superior or inferior to popliteal fossa?

A

tibial & common peroneal n. and superior to knee

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25
popliteal artery lateral to semiTENDONosis tendon? T or F
True dat
26
PDH relieved in which posish'
supine
27
is patient age a C.I. for spinal anesthesia?
nope
28
primary innervation of PENIS
PUDENDAL
29
SCIATIC nerve roots are
L4-S3
30
spinal anesthesia DURATION determined by
dose and LA chosen (opioids increase duration too)
31
caudal anesthesia: more likely to have intrathecal anesthesia in kiddos or adults? why?
kids, d/t epidural sac extension to S3 in kids
32
caudal anesthesia covers
procedures below diaphragm - rectal, inguinal, lower extremity surgery
33
sacral hiatus is insertion point for CAUDAL anesthesia... it's location is b/t
S4 and S5
34
epidural space is largest at what level of spinal column (general)
LUMBAR
35
PABA is? found in what LA?
PARA-aminobenzoic acid in ESTER local anesthetics
36
femoral n. block which is most lateral? n., artery, vein?
n.
37
first pop in spinal is? second?
ligamentum flavum, dura mater
38
cardiac arrest s/p spinal indicated by what symptoms? caused by a blockade of which fibers at T1-T5
bradycardia & hypotension, cardioacceleratory
39
things that increase likelihood of PDPH... list em'
young females, multiple attempts, large gauge needle use
40
insertion of needle 2cm medial and caudal to anterior iliac spine and injecting 10-15mL LA after entering fascia lata you are blocking which n.?
lat. femoral cutaneous n.
41
hyperbaric spinal is placed @ L3, which direction will it travel if patient remains sitting position? Caudal, cephalad, both?
caudal for a 'saddle block'
42
paramedian approach - which part of vertebrae would you likely encounter first? Pedicle? spinous process, lamina, or transverse process?
lamina
43
most common pediatric neuroaxial anesthetic?
caudal
44
most common SE of epidural anesthetics?
urinary retention
45
most common SE for morphine epidural anesthetic? bupivicaine?
MORPHINE - pruritis | BUPIVICAINE - hand weakness followed by hypotension
46
which n. prevents ADDUCTION of legs?
obturator
47
which position is best for a combined spinal/epidural technique? sitting, standing on head, lateral, prone?
SITTING
48
popliteal n. located __________ (in space) to popliteal artery?
laterally
49
which n. block in combo w/ popliteal fossa n. block would completely (when done right) would completely anesthetize the foot?
SAPHENOUS n. - remember, we are blocking the SCIATIC n. prior to jump off point of TIBIAL and PERONEAL branches... what remain is the terminal branch of the femoral n.
50
which spinal needle is a 'cutting' needle?
Quincke
51
**IMPORTANT PENIS INNERVATION STUFF B/C WE HAVE PENISES** : What n. block the penis?
pudendal, genitofemoral, and ilioinguinal
52
saphenous n. can be blocked posterior to to medial malleolus? TRUE or FALSE
FALSE - anterior
53
epidural segmental spread is directrly related to _______ (DOSE, POSITION, VOLUME, or BARICITY)
VOLUME - REMEMBER, spinals are DOSE dependent
54
how much epinephrine is in an epidural test dose lidocaine?
EPI - 15mcg lido - 45 mcg or 3ml of 1.5% lido (15mgml) and 1:200,000 epi
55
3 part question on spinal blockade sympathectomy. 1. What levels block cardioaccelatory fibers? 2. What does cardioaccelatory blockade cause? 3. A sensory block at T6 means autonomic (sym) block at T_ and motor at T_.
spinal anesthesia cause sympathomemectomy which causes venous pooling via dilation of venous capitance vessels (minimal arterial dilation) AKA: venodilation. Cardioaccelatory blockade occurs b/t T1-T4 - so watch out for BRADYcardia and decreased contractility. T4 and T8 respectively
56
SYMPATHECTOMY is results in
unopposed VAGAL activity (parasympathetic),
57
SLUDGE is the handy acronym for crazy PNS crap what does it mean?
Salivation: stimulation of the salivary glands Lacrimation: stimulation of the lacrimal glands Urination: relaxation of the internal sphincter muscle of urethra, and contraction of the detrusor muscles Defecation: relaxation of the internal anal sphincter Gastrointestinal upset: Smooth muscle tone changes causing gastrointestinal problems, including diarrhea Emesis: Vomiting
58
sympatholysis d/t neuroaxial anesthetics do what to the GI tract?
peristalsis = generalized constriction of bowel, increased bloodflow, increased intralumen pressure
59
Tip of the scapula (shoulder blade duh) corresponds w/ which thoracic vertebrae?
T7
60
most prominent cervical vertebrae is?
C7
61
tip of twelfth rib corresponds w/ which thoracic vertebrae?
L1
62
iliac crest corresponds w/ which thoracic vertebrae?
L4
63
sacral cornua, coccyx, and pos. sup. iliac spines are all good surface anatomy markers for?
caudal anesthesia
64
Caudal anesthesia: are paresthesias, and 'fullness' normal senstations w/ injection?
yep
65
What is the cause of APNEA w/ spinal anesthesia? treatment?
from the lack of perfusion to brainstem... corrected w/ hemodynamic resuscitation