Test Prep Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

How many steps in the ORM process?

A

5

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2
Q

3rd step in the ORM process?

A

Making Risk Decisions

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3
Q

EAP:
Reviewed?
Exercised?

A

Quarterly

Annually

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4
Q

Safety stand down should be conducted at least _______ and also following mishaps?

A

Annually

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5
Q

A ____ course is training that a sailor has voluntarily enrolled and has the ability to DOR and return to his/her original rating.

A

Voluntary

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6
Q

Report and record all training related mishaps and injuries per reference OPNAVINST _____.

A

5102.1D

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7
Q

The purpose of the ______ is to ensure a systematic approach for determining what to train and how best to accomplish that training.

A

Navy Training System

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8
Q

Which learning style as described by David Kolb prefers a theory based analytical approach to learning?

A

Abstract

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9
Q

The two types of performance tests are ____ and _____.

A

Product and process

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10
Q

List the 4 principles of John Kellers model of motivational theory.

A

Attention
Relevance
Confidence
Satisfaction

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11
Q

______ motivates trainees by connecting what they will be learning to what they will be doing on the job.

A

Relevance

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12
Q

The _____ is the most essential link in the training chain.

A

Instructor

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13
Q

The law of ______ states that people can learn when they are physically and mentally ready.

A

Readiness

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14
Q

Which way of learning is sometimes referred to as discovery learning?

A

Trial and error

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15
Q

The 2 methods of testing are knowledge tests and _____ tests.

A

Performance

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16
Q

Which of the following elements of a learning objective defines what a learner should be able to accomplish as a result of training?

A

Behavior

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17
Q

3 qualities of an efficient and effective instructor. (KAP)

A

Knowledge
Attitude
Personality

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18
Q

6 laws of learning. (REEPIR)

A
Readiness
Exercise
Effect
Primary
Intensity
Recency
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19
Q

Principles of applying motivational theory. (NAAVII)

A
Needs and drives
Attitudes
Achievements
Values
Interests
Incentives
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20
Q

5 ways of learning. (ATITI)

A
Association
Trial and error
Imitation
 Transfer
Insight
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21
Q

Types of sensory learners. (VAK)

A

Visual
Auditory
Kinesthetic

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22
Q

4 basic learning styles. (CARA)

A

Concrete
Abstract
Reflective
Abstract

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23
Q

6 factors considered in planning instructional delivery. (FAGRIP)

A
Force
Articulation
 Grammar
Rate of speech
Inflection
Pauses
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24
Q

4 purposes of oral questioning? (FADS)

A

Focuses attention
Arouses interest
Drills students
Stimulates thinking

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25
Characteristics of a good oral question. (CLU)
Clarity of meaning Level of instruction Use of interrogatives
26
Types of oral questions. (MYCLIFT)
``` Multiple answer Yes/No Canvassing Leading Interest arousing Factual Thought provoking ```
27
5 steps of questioning technique
``` Ask Pause Pick Listen Emphasize ```
28
``` Different instructional (L3 DR TG) ```
``` Lecture Lecture with audio visuals Lesson Demonstration Role playing Team dimensional trainer Gaming and simulation ```
29
3 parts of a learning objective | BCS
Behavior Condition Standard
30
2 methods of testing
Knowledge | Performance
31
5 learning levels a knowledge test item may test | RACAR
``` Recognition Application Comprehension Analysis/Evaluation Recall ```
32
Different types of performance tests
Product Process Combination
33
Primary materials used in presenting instruction
Lesson plan Instruction sheets IMM/VMM
34
A ______ indicates student status in CETARS
Person Event Code
35
A ______ should always be conducted shortly before and in preparation of a TRR
Formal course review
36
Responsible for ensuring accuracy data in CETARS
Course supervisor
37
Who is responsible for maintaining a course audit trail and master record?
CCMM
38
Which acronym describe an alphanumeric combination that uniquely identifies a course in the training database?
Course Identification Number(CIN)
39
During an ARB, at least ______ members should be a certified instructor in the area the student is having difficulty in.
One
40
How many ARB outcomes are there?
3
41
For "A" and "C" schools, when can an ARB be convened?
Student average falls below minimum passing grade, student is unable to achieve objectives, and student performance is below expected academic progress.
42
_____ is a NAVEDTRA publication which contains information concerning all formal courses of instruction throughout the Navy
CANTRAC
43
The ____ is the 1st message drafted and released in preparation of a TRR.
Annual TRR schedule message
44
________ provides policy and guidance for TRR process implementation and execution.
NETC
45
A TRR should be completed on each CIN at a minimum of every ______ months.
36
46
True/False | OCCSTDS can be used to develop Navy wide Advancement Exams.
True
47
_______ reviews and approves OCCSTDS?
OPNAV
48
True/False | All E-4 and below OCCSTDS are taught in "A" school.
False
49
The _____ process establishes a repeatable and defendable job analysis process for developing and revising training content.
JDTA
50
A ______ JDTA can be performed to address new work requirements.
Targeted
51
A ______ is an external trigger to perform a JDTA.
TRR NTSP revision Direct Fleet Input Fleet performance Assessment
52
Internal triggers to perform a JDTA.
Revision to enlisted OCCSTDS Rating merger Establishment or revision of NEC
53
When is a FEA performed?
Typically performed after the JDTA has been conducted
54
Final authority of a finalized FEA?
CCA
55
A/An _____ is used to determine the cost of each training solution recommended by the ______.
BCA/FEA
56
Elements of a BCA
Executive summary Strategic alignment Analysis of alternatives
57
Internal approval of the TPP's is approved by_____.
CCA/CO
58
How many phases are involved in task based curriculum development?
6
59
What type of course that can be listed in a TPC is described as prerequisite training that provide basic technical knowledge and skills?
Background training
60
The _______ is a composite listing of all the materials needed to conduct training.
Resource Requirement List(RRL)
61
The _____ is the outline of the analyze phase of task based curriculum development.
CTTL
62
What is the COI that is found within a TCCD?
COI
63
How many stages involved in developing materials for PPP-based curriculum development?
5
64
What are the 2 types of training materials that can be provided within ILE?
IMI ILT Blended
65
The finalized CTTL completed in the analyze phase of task based curriculum development will contain a listing of all _____ a student must complete.
Duties and task
66
If a JDTA is not available as the primary course data when creating test items it is acceptance to use which of the following?
Combination of OCCSTDS CTTL PPP table COI
67
Which type of test may or may not be graded and its score is not used in calculation of the trainees final score?
Informal
68
How many sections are in the testing plan?
10
69
The primary course source data for creating test items it is acceptable to use which of the following?
JDTA OCCSTDS CTTL/PPP Table COI
70
Which skill profile my level is described as repetition?
SPL 2
71
Who approves test design and maintains master item blank?
CCMM
72
Which knowledge proficiency level is described as synthesis/evaluation?
Level 3
73
A ________ is a short test used by instructors to assess achievements of recently taught material?
Quiz
74
PQS are maintained and available for fleet use at ______?
NKO
75
OPNAVINST _______ is the PQS program.
3500.34
76
_________ provide commands the flexible to satisfy a specific qualification requirement where no PQS exists.
JQR
77
How many acquisition categories(ACAT) does NTSP govern?
Four
78
True/False The purpose of the Naval Training System requirements acquisition and management is to establish policy for planning, determining and documenting manpower, personnel and training requirements for Navy and integrated USN/USMC new and modified acquisition system across Navy.
True
79
ITCR condition_____ is a situation that can result in delayed classes.
Yellow
80
MTO data is gathered ______ and is sent via ______.
Weekly | Naval message
81
ITER condition ______ is a situation that will cancel or stop training entirely.
Red
82
Break out the acronym ITER as it pertains to training reporting.
Impaired training and education report
83
AIM or _____ is a government managed system used by the Navy to develop, update, manage and integrate training content.
Authoring instructional material
84
Which AIM tool supports Task Based Curriculum Development?
AIM II
85
Which AIM supports PPP based curriculum development?
AIM I
86
Which primary areas within CPM can a user review JDTA data?
JDTA Area Projects area Home area Reports
87
________ is an application used to document and map JDTA data to Navy learning content.
CDM
88
What process serves as the approval for NEL content administration?
GCAT
89
Which of the following is NOT a form of training method supplied by ILE?
Instructor Led Facilitated Computer Based
90
_________ accessed within CANTRAC provides sailors the means.
ENTRS
91
CCA
Curriculum Control Authority
92
IMI
Interactive Multimedia Instruction
93
CETARS
Corporate Enterprise Training Activity Resource System
94
NAVEDTRA ______ is the Navy school management manual.
135
95
TPS
Training Path System
96
Which NAVEDTRAS deal with curriculum development?
131 series
97
NAVEDTRA ______ is the Navy instructor manual.
134
98
CCMM
Course Curriculum Model Manager
99
NAVEDTRA _____ is the JDTA manual.
137
100
OCCSTDS
Occupational Standards
101
NAVEDTRA ________ is the Navy school testing program management manual.
132
102
NAVEDTRA ______ is the ILE manual.
136
103
IDP
Individual Development Plan
104
TTO
Training Time Out
105
NAVEDTRA _____ is the TRR.
133
106
CTTL
Course Training Task List
107
Which grading system is used with the designations of SAT/UNSAT?
Dichotomous
108
True/False | A TTP is required to cancel a course.
True
109
True/False | The cover page of a TPP will include the phrase "Training Project Program for"
True
110
Which section of a TPP covers the reasons for and anticipated benefits of the proposed program?
Justification
111
According to NAVEDTRA 132, _______ is defined as the ability to comprehend a learning objective.
Knowledge
112
When evaluating an instructor, how many sections are there to complete on the instructor evaluation checklist used in the NETCINST 1500.5?
7