Test Prep Week 1 Chapter 1-5 Flashcards
(179 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
A
A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
2
Q
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
A
state office of EMS
3
Q
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
A
paramedic
4
Q
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
A
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
5
Q
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
A
paramedic
6
Q
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
A
contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.
7
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
A
The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
8
Q
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:
A
medical director approval.
9
Q
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to:
A
insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.
10
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
A
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
11
Q
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?
A
A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
12
Q
Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS?
A
Bleeding control using a tourniquet
13
Q
EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because:
A
they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs.
14
Q
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:
A
medical director.
15
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT’s scope of practice is correct?
A
An EMT’s scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
16
Q
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
A
Off-line
17
Q
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
A
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
18
Q
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
A
maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills.
19
Q
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A
individual EMT.
20
Q
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
21
Q
The EMT certification exam is designed to:
A
ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
22
Q
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:
A
Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
23
Q
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm.
A
Distal
24
Q
A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:
A
distal humerus fracture.
25
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:
Medial
26
The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:
inferior
27
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
Proximal
28
In relation to the chest, the back is:
Posterior
29
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"?
Posterior
30
A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?
Plantar
31
The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.
Apex
32
Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:
Abduction
33
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
Bilateral
34
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?
Prone
35
The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means:
a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.
36
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:
she has excessive vomiting.
37
A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position.
Fowler
38
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:
is excessively thirsty
39
The term "pericardiocentesis" means:
the removal of fluid from around the heart.
40
Enlargement of the liver is called
hepatomegaly
41
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called:
hemostasis
42
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:
medial
43
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:
only one side of his chest rises when he inhales
44
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe?
Indirect contact
45
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects.
46
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
Wash yo hands
47
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.
48
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:
when performing endotracheal intubation.
49
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
Offer little to no eye protection
50
You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should:
apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself.
51
After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:
report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
52
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
careless handling of sharps
53
If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:
clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.
54
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
55
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?
Immunity
56
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct?
OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge.
57
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to TB
58
If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to:
transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider.
59
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
60
Physiologic manifestations of stress include:
perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.
61
Which type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
Cumulative stress reaction
62
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
63
Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, except:
when patients are actively being assessed or treated.
64
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
65
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
Group of answer choices
72
66
As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress:
might not be obvious or present all the time.
67
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
Isolation from the rest of the crew
68
It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop non-adversarial relationships with their coworkers because they:
depend on one another for their safety.
69
While you are on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should:
tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.
70
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
substandard or inappropriate patient care.
71
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
The stages of the grieving process might occur simultaneously.
72
which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient?
Things will get better in time.
73
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:
acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her
74
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vechicle collision may include:
Increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.
75
You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. WHen the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should:
Let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.
76
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
Group of answer choices
carbon dioxide deficiency.
77
You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.
78
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:
Increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.
79
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should:
provide competent care the meets current standards
80
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment
81
Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old, mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
expressed
82
Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent?
An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
83
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
implied
84
You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should:
-ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care
85
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which of the following types of consent describes her agreement?
expressed
86
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
87
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?
Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
88
You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should:
provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once.
89
You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed-head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should:
proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary
90
A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:
assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.
91
Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct?
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.
92
Your best protection against legal liability when a patient with decision-making capacity refuses EMS care and transport is to:
thoroughly document the entire event
93
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?
Protecting patient privacy
94
All of the following are considered to be protected health information (PHI), except:
location of the call.
95
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient's medical problem.
96
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:
begin resuscitation at once.
97
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious with slow, shallow breathing and a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should:
begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.
98
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
Dependent lividity
99
When is forcible restraint permitted?
When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
100
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
Medical director
101
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care.
102
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of
Another emt
103
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
104
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist?
A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change
105
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
106
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
107
While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should:
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash
108
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
109
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called
Assault
110
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?
Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
111
If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
it was not performed, according to the eyes of the law.
112
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
inadequate patient care was administered.
113
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to:
provide immediate patient care.
114
You are dispatched to an apartment complex to respond to a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should:
quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient
115
While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should:
contact medical control and notify them of the error.
116
When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:
begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible
117
You are dispatched to the residence of a person who frequently calls 911 for nonemergency care. You should
ask the dispatcher to send law enforcement before you respond.
118
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?
A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
119
A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:
assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.
120
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture
121
You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining
document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.
122
You are assessing a 75-year-old woman with mild shortness of breath. As you are asking her questions about her chief complaint and medical history, you progressively move closer and closer to her. In doing this, it is important to remember that:
as you physically get closer to the patient, a greater and greater sense of trust must be established.
123
A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the most appropriate to ask him?
"Do you have any heart problems or take any medications
124
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?
"It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow."
125
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
126
During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should
allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
127
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?
Calm and confident
128
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.
129
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
130
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct?
Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.
131
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
132
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
determine the degree of the patient's impairment.
133
You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an "ill person." When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should:
use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patient's complaint.
134
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
135
The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:
gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.
136
When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and:
Chief complaint
137
Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, except:
the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
138
The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
continuity of care
139
Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should
complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented.
140
Which of the following statements is not appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?
General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."
141
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
considered confidential.
142
After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:
draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.
143
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
an informed refusal.
144
Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?
A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.
145
Despite your numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that the patient has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should:
ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign.
146
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities?
Cardiac arrest
147
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:
Base station
148
Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct?
It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users.
149
At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should:
use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch
150
Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is least likely to be heard by the party being called?
Handheld portable radio
151
A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
repeater
152
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
Scanner
153
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication?
Simplex
154
Which of the following is not a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)?
Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance
155
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, except:
discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
156
After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, except:
the general geographic location of the incident.
157
Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should:
confirm with dispatch that you received the call information.
158
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
brief and easily understood.
159
You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. What is the most logical way of notifying the hospital?
Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.
160
General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, except:
using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
161
When communicating information over the radio, you should:
use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no."
162
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by:
not disclosing his or her name.
163
Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except:
a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.
164
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
Slander
165
When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is important to remember that:
the physician's instructions are based on the information you provide.
166
After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should:
repeat the order to medical control word for word.
167
Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should:
advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.
168
Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct?
Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible.
169
You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do?
Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.
170
After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should:
repeat the order to medical control word for word.
171
You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. What is the most logical way of notifying the hospital?
Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.
172
Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?
A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.
173
After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should
draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.
174
You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an "ill person." When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should:
use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patient's complaint.
175
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
176
Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except
preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.
177
Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model?
The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination
178
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?
Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
179
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:
O only one side of his chest rises when he inhales.
