Test Questions Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
When two aircraft’s are converging at approx the same altitude
A
The aircraft that has the other on the right shall give way
2
Q
Two aircraft’s are approaching head on or approx so and there is a danger of collision each pilot shall
A
Alter heading to the right
3
Q
When converging at approx the same altitude what type of aircraft shall give way
A
Aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons
4
Q
When two power driver heavier than air aircraft are converging at approx the same altitude who is right of way
A
The one on the right has right of way
5
Q
When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position at your altitude you should
A
Alter heading to the right
6
Q
Two aircraft’s are on approach to land the aircraft at the higher altitude shall
A
Give way
7
Q
Who has priority when an aircraft converging at aprox the same altitude ?
A
An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power driver heavier than air aircraft’s
8
Q
A series of flashing green lights at an aircraft means
A
Return for landing (in flight) cleared to taxi (on ground)
9
Q
A steady red light directed at an aircraft means
A
Give way to other aircraft (in flight), stop (on ground)
10
Q
A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means
A
Airport unsafe do not land (in flight), taxi clear of landing area in use (on ground)
11
Q
Blinking runway lights advices shucked and pedestrians
A
To vacate the runways immediately
12
Q
Chrome yellow and black stripes painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies
A
A fur farm
13
Q
A steady green light directed at an aircraft means
A
Cleaned to land, cleared for takeoff
14
Q
Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than
A
2000 ft AGL
15
Q
A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
A
Return to starting point in runway
16
Q
Pilot is cleared to taxi to runway in without hold short clearance, crossing one runway the pilot should
A
Taxi to the runway in use but further clearance is required to cross the other runway
17
Q
How should you cancel a distress message
A
The call sign of the air craft with mayday all stations, mayday all stations, mayday all stations
18
Q
When a clearance for immediate takeoff is issued
A
The pilot should taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement
19
Q
The APRX 2)3! Contained in a new or replacing Norma mean the Norma is valid
A
Until a cancelling NOTAM is issued
20
Q
Whenever practical pilots operating VFR in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor
A
126.7
21
Q
An initial call to Timmins FSS should be
A
TIMMIN RADIO THIS IS
22
Q
Pilots broadcasting on an MF where no ground stations is in operation should direct their transmissions to
A
Aero dome traffic
23
Q
The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the saftey of an aircraft which does not require immediate assistance is
A
PAN PAN PAN
24
Q
En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on
A
121.5 on the receiver
25
A departing flight will normally remains on tower frequency until
Clear of the control zone
26
Airport runways are assigned number based on what bearings
Magnetic (except for northern domestic airspace which is true)
27
In the case of parallel runways, how do you distinguish them?
The letter R for right and letter L for left. Assigned as per direction of approach
28
How far back should an aircraft hold short
200 ft
29
How to indicate a runway is not in use
Large yellow white cross at each end of the runway
30
How many wind indicators will a aerodrome have
2 (1 at each end of the runway if runway >4000 ft)
Or
1 (midway if runway <4000 ft)
31
At night how are landing and take off runways marked
Two parallel lines of white lights that are visible at least 2 miles in all directions
32
What must be present at the end of a runway operating at night
A fixed white light or strobe light
33
How to indicate runway threshold at night
Green lights which are red from the back
34
How to mark taxiways at night
Blue lights
35
Name and identify all parts of a circuit pattern
Crosswind, downwind , base leg, final, upwind
36
Where no Max is in use how can a pilot approach the traffic circuit
From the upwind side side of the runway and enter crosswind at circuit height
37
Where and is in use how to join traffic circuit
Approach straight in, 45 dev to downwind leg and join on bar or final
38
How should an airplane cross over corcuit pattern in order to join
At least 500 ft above circuit height
39
What is circuit height
1000 ft above elevation level (elevation 622 ft at Windsor)
40
When should you make your first transmission on an MF
5 mins before entering zone, state intentions, position, altitude and estimated time of landing
41
When can a NORDO aircraft enter an MF maneuvering area of an airport
A no radio aircraft can operate when prior notice of intentions has been given to FSS or CARS
42
What is the usual designated ATF when a ground station is present and when one is not
Aerodrome traffic frequency for ground stations are UNICOM 122.8 and for no ground station it is 123.2
43
What is the specified area for ATF
Aerodrome traffic frequency is 5 NM and 3000 ft AAE (above aerodrome elevation)
44
Cleared to circuit allows you to do what
Join the circuit on the downwind leg at circuit height
45
What happens if you are not given clearance to land
Request landing time form ATC again and if no clearance is given you must pull up and go around
46
An airport is
A certified aerodrome
47
No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft except in accordance with permission form
The operator of the airport
48
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered d
09
49
Expect for take off and landing an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than
2000 ft AGL
50
Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
A white or yellow X
51
A dry transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least
15kt
52
The maneuvering area of an airport the area
Used for taxiing, taking off and landing
53
Where taxiways holding positions have not been established, aircraft waitin to enter an entice runway should normally hold
200 ft from the edge of the runway
54
No person shall fly an aircraft for more than how long at which altitude unless their is an oxygen mask and supply of oxygen to each passenger and flight crew member
30 mins at 10,000-13,000 ft
55
CARs define infant passenger as
Under 2 years okd
56
The international VHF Emergency Frequecy is
121.5
57
Which flight instruments and equipment aware required on an power driver aircraft for day VFR in a controlled airspace
A direction indicating system, magnetic compass, and airspeed indicator, a sensitive altimeter and a time piece
58
What documents are necessary onboard an aircraft
Certificate of airworthiness/ flight permit, certificate of registration, crew licence, radio operators licence, aircraft journey logbook (unless otherwise stated), proof of liability insurance
59
What saftey equipment is required for any small aircraft landing or taking off on water for each passenger
Am approved life preserver
60
When PIC instructs seatbelts fastened and infant passenger
Must be held tightly in the arms of an adult passenger whose seatbelt is fastened
61
Private aeroplanes flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require
Specified emergency supplies be carried
62
No pilot shall take off or one from an aerodrome unless
The aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the minister
63
Unless oxygen and oxygen masks are available no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above
13,000 ft
64
A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft
Carrying passengers at night
65
A student pilot on a VFR flight has been given a radar vector by ATC ahead at a lower altitude is a skid overcast cloud condition the pilot should
Alter heading as necessary to remain VFR and advise ATC
66
Before setting out in any VFR flight a pilot is required Rob
Be familiar with all available info appropriate to the flight
67
An aircraft is cleared to the circuit where a left hand circuit is in effect without further approval from ATC a right turn may be made to
Join crosswind or partial right turn to join the downwind leg
68
The holder of a student pilot permit maubfor the sole purpose of the holder own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft
By day only
69
When an arriving aircraft is cleared to the circuit the pilot should interpret this to Emma join the circuit
In the downwind leg
70
The controller suggest a takeoff from a runway intersection, the pilot must judge
The remaining runway to be sufficient for takeoff
71
A pilot requests an intersection take off froM ATC IF AUTHORIZED
The pilot must be responsible for ensuring the remaining runway length is sufficient for takeoff
72
Unless ATC instructs, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ____ and code ____ when flying above that altitude
12,500 ASL and 1400 above
73
Any judgements about avoid obstacles like radio towers is the responsibility of
The pilot
74
A pilot has been advices by ATC to maintain a specific heading that in the pilots opinion with conflict with another aircraft the pilot should
After heading to avoid the other aircraft and advice ATC
75
A NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing info it should maintain
500 feet above circuit height (nordo is no radio)
76
When instructed to continue approach and no landing clearance has been given, what should the pilot do
Request clearance and if none is given pull up and around into circuit again
77
When the ceiling is 1000 overcast and visibility 3 miles the circuit height should be
500 ft below the cloud base
78
What is usual circuit height?
1000 Above aerodrome elevation
79
In what circumstances would an aircraft not be able to fly 1000 ft aae circuits?
Weather conditions (ceiling ), a straight in clearance, special NOTAM
80
When should a pilot activate ‘ident’ feature
I’m not when instructed to do so by ATC
81
If cleared for take off immediately following a low approach and overshoot of a large aircraft the pilot should
Decline clearance and inform ATC OF THE REASON
82
If a pilot is cleared to land and concerned about high crosswind component, the pilot should
Overshoot and request an into wind runway
83
Terminal airspace dimensions and VHF sector frequencies for certain high density traffic airports in Canada are shown
In the VFR terminal Area chart and the Canadian flight supplement
84
Pilots should not donate blood
48 hours before flying
85
After receieving an immunization a pilot
If feeling unwell should wait 24 hours before flying
86
When can a pregnant pilot no longer fly
At 30 weeks of the pregnancy
87
A pilot should wait ____ hours after having anesthesia to fly
24 hours
88
A pilot who has donated blood should not fly for
48 hours
89
A pilot who has had local anesthetic should not act as a flight crew member during the next
24 hours
90
Small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia (lack of sufficient oxygen) how does this tolerance change during a flight?
Deteriorates with increase of altitude
91
Crew meme bees who require decompression stops while scuba diving should not fly for
24 hours
92
How to treat hyperventilation below 8,000 ft
Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute
93
What drugs are safe to consume when flying
None except by advice if aviation medical examiner
94
How can you clear ears during a descent
Opening mouth widely or yawning, swallowing, a valsalva maneuver
95
Any pilot who has had general anesthetic should not fly until
Advised to by a doctor
96
Medical certificat for those ages below 40 is valid for
60 months
97
Medical certificate for those aged above 40 is valid for
24 months
98
How much fuel an oil is required on a helicopter
To fly to aerodrome (with any foreseen delays) plus 20 mins at normal cruising speed
99
Where a VFR has pan has been filed an arrival report must by files by the pilot by doing what?
Advising ATS unit
100
After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed the pilot shall report to ATS by when?
Within 60 minutes (or by search and rescue time indicated on flight plan)
101
With regards to a flight itinerary, the responsible person is someone who
Has agreed to report the aircraft over due
102
How is an intermediate stop indicated in the flight plan form for a VFR flight
By repeating the name of the intermediate stop and it’s duration in the route column
103
How much fuels should any propeller driver aeroplane have
Enough for flight including any foreseeable delays plus enough to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
104
What is in the total elapsed time calculated
Time to destination plus time at any intermediate stops
105
If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed
For flight proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin
106
When no search and rescue time is distinguished in a flight itinerary, when shall the person report to the responsible person
As soon as practicable after landing but no later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA
107
If there is a flight plan deviation ATC shall be notified when?
As soon as possible
108
If all or part of ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should
Refuse the clearance and inform ATC of the pilots intentions
109
An act clearance requires what
Compliance when accepted by PIC
110
An ATC clearance or instruction is predicted on know traffic only therefore when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction
The pilot is not received of the responsibility for traffic avoidance
111
After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding it cannot he complied with a pilot should
Take immediate action required and advise ATC as soon as possible
112
And ATC instruction must be
Complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized
113
A pilot after accepting clearance and finding that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with should
Comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advice ATC as soon as possible
114
What is the ground idle danger area and take of thrust danger area for a jumbo jet
600ft, 1600ft
115
What is the ground idle danger area and take off thrust danger area for a medium jet
450ft, 1200ft
116
What is the ground idle danger area and take off thrust danger area for an executive jet
200ft, 500ft
117
What is clean configuration?
Flaps extended, slats extended, landing gear retracted, speed brakes retracted
118
What is jet wash?
High speed steam of air expelled from the rear of a jet engine
119
Wing tip vortices usually settle where
Below and behind the aircrfat
120
Lateral movement of Wing tip vortices may do what ?
May place a vortex core over a parallel runway (even in no wind)
121
What can happen to wing tip vortex in a light cross wind
One vortex can remain stationary over the ground for some time
122
The pilot of a light aircraft in final approac behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach to land
Beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft
123
What kind of motion do wing tip vortices have
Circular and downward
124
Can wind tip vortices be carried by ambiant wind
Yes
125
What effect would a light cross wind have in the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off?
A light cross wind could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time
126
Wake turbulence is produced by
All fixed and rotary wing aircraft’s
127
To avoid wake turbulence if a larger plane taking off before a smaller plane, the pilot of the smaller airplane lane should
Become airborn before the rotation of the large aircraft and stage above its departure path or request a turn in order to avoid the departure path
128
How long after a plane takes off will wing tip vortices remain on the runway
Two minutes or more
129
Are the vortices produced by helicopter and aeroplanes of the same weight similar
Yes
130
When are wing tip vortices most severe
Following take off
131
Wake turbulence begins
With rotation
132
For what kind of plane and configuration is wake turbulence greatest
Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed
133
What can happen to an aircraft is they hit wing tip vortices
Can go out of control, sustain structural damage, continue to descend even when max power is applied
134
A helicopter in forward flight produces what kind of vortices
Similar to Wing tip vortices
135
VDF steers are intended to provide directional assistance to VFr flight when
In times of difficulty
136
You can check ELF is switched off by
Listening on 121.5 for a signal
137
At the request of the pilot, VHF direction finding stations normally provide a homing service
In a pre selected tower or FSS frequency
138
A 45kt blast area can be expected how many feet behind the propeller Sina a larger turbo prop aeroplane during taxi
60 ft
139
When confronted with an approaching thunder storm a take off or landing
Should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control
140
A test of an aircraft’s 121.5 MH ELT maybbe done for test purposes
In the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC
141
What is ADIZ
Air defence identification zone
142
What are the qualifications of a class A airspace
No VFR, for IFR transponder, radio, clearance required to enter
143
What are the qualifications of a class B airspace
Separation, SVFR, 250 kit below 10,000 MSL, 200kt below 3000 AGL, radio transponder and clearance required
144
What are the qualifications of a class C airspace
Conflict resolution upon request, traffic information, SVFR, height 200 or below 3000 AGL and within 19 NM of control zone, transponder, radio and clearance required
145
What are the qualifications of a class E airspace
Traffic info when workload permitting, SVFR, transponder required in designated areas, radio not required and clearance not required
146
What are the qualifications of class F airspace
Special - use airspace. Find info in DAH. Traffic must be approved by the user/controlling agency. Avoid flight within these spaces
147
What are the classifications of a class G airspace
Uncontrolled 200kt below 3000 AGL within 10 NM of controlled airport. Are provided flight info and alerting service
148
What to do in the event of an engine fire on start up?
Pull the fuel shut off valve, Keep cranking magnetos, mixture lean, throttle full open. Run.
149
What to do in the event of a wing fire
Fuel selector ok other wing or shutoff if possible, bank away from the fire. Shutoff electrical systems
150
A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in what airspace and conditions?
Within class F advisory aerospace when visibility is 3 miles or greater
151
Formatting flying is permitted only if such flights
Have been pre arranged by the pilots in command
152
No person shall fly a helicopter over a built up area at an altitude less than ____ with horizontal radius of ____
1000 ft, 500 ft
153
Flight through active class F airspace with the designator CYR is permitted
Only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency
154
When operating in accordance with VFR an aircraft shall be flown in what conditions
With visual reference to the surface
155
Except for balloons no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on any surface within the built up area of any city or town unless
That surface is an airport or military aerodrome
156
The appropriate cruising altitude is determined in southern domestic airspace in accordance with the
The magnetic track
157
The appropriate cruising altitude is determined in northern domestic airspace in accordance with the
True track
158
What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the cruising altitudes order
3000 ft
159
When should a pilot fly odd thousand + 500 ft?
000 - 179 degrees (east)
160
When should a pilot fly even thousand + 500 ft?
180-359 degrees
161
An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3000 ft AGL on track of 290*M should fly at what height
Even thousand + 500 ft
162
Pilots must present their licence when required to
Immigration officers, minister and “peace” officers
163
The selection of cruising altitude in the southern domestic airspace should be based on
Magnetic track
164
Day in Canada is defined as
The beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight
165
After consumption of alcohol no personal shall act as a crew member for ___hours
12 hours
166
Low level airspace is defined as
Airspace within the Canadian domestic airspace below 18,000 ft ASL
167
A control zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
The surface of the earth to 3000 ft
168
Night is defined as the period between
The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
169
Over no populous areas or over open water a pilot may not fly and aircraft at a distance less than ____ ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
500 ft
170
What is a general rule to follow with regards to advisory airspace ?
Non participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active period specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM
171
What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1000 fr AGL within an uncontrolled airspace ?
Clear of the cloud
172
What is ADIZ?
Air defence identification zone
173
Which aircraft’s do ADIZ rules normally apply?
To all aircraft’s
174
No personal shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight
That will cause hazard to a person or property
175
Normally a helicopter is an uncontrolled airspace at less than 1000 ft AGL May operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than
1/2 mile
176
vfR cross country pilot wishing to cross through any org of a class C control Zone should
Advise ATC if their intentions and obtain a clearance
177
When VfR flight within controlled airspace a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
500 ft vertically and 1 mile horizontally
178
When in VfR flight within a control zone a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
500 ft vertically and 1 mile horizontally
179
VFR flight within class B airspace is permitted
In accordance with an ATC clearance
180
ATC May authorize an aeroplane equipped with a functioning two way radio to transit a control zone under say special VFr provided the flight visibility and when reported ground visibility are each not less than
1 mile
181
An arriving VfR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower
Prior to entering a control zone
182
An aircraft flying in accordance with special VFR would be flying within
A control zone
183
The pilot of an arriving VFr flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace
Prior to entering the Control Zone
184
ATC May authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two way radio to transit a control zone under special VfR where the flight visibility and reported dg round visibility are each not less than
1/2 mile
185
The minimum flight visibility for VFr flight within a low level airway is
3 miles
186
Unless otherwise authorized a pilot in a VfR flight operating within a Class C terminal Controk Area must
Establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC unit
187
Controlled airspace means all airspace of defined dimensions within which
An ATC service is provided
188
Details on civil aviation reporting procedures can be found in the
tC AIM
189
The TSB considered a missing aircraft to be a
Reportable aviation accident
190
The primary objective of an aviation saftey investigation into an aircraft accident or aircraft incident is to
Prevent reoccurrences
191
When an aircraft accident occurs the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB When?
Asap and by quickest means available
