Test Yourself Quizzes Flashcards
(137 cards)
1
Q
Proximal norms describe the influence of
A
Close friends and family
2
Q
Describe what is meant by stimulus control intervention.
A
Based on classical conditioning principles, stimulus control principles involve reducing or removing a behavioural stimulus that elicits a conditioned response and prompts an undesirable behaviour.
3
Q
Promoting health behaviour to reduce disease risk is called?
A
Primary prevention
4
Q
Behavioural antecedents can also be referred to as
A
Stimuli
5
Q
Describe what is meant by a behaviour modification intervention based on response contingencies.
A
Based on operant conditioning principles, behaviour modification interventions involve setting up, or changing the behaviours that earn reinforcement. Behaviours with positive consequences are more likely to recur, those with negative consequences are not.
6
Q
How could physical activity be promoted at each level of the ecological model?
A
Level 1. Reinforcing physical activity as part of individual behaviour modification.
Level 2. Peer-led interventions in workplaces or schools, engaging with families.
Level 3. Provision of green space, walking trails and bike lanes.
Level 4. A mass media campaign encouraging leisure activities such as playing team sports.
7
Q
What does the ABC approach refer to in the behaviour change literature?
A
It refers to to antecedents (A), behaviour (B), and consequences (C). To understand how to change behaviour, we first must understand the cues or stimuli that come before the behaviour (antecedents), and the reinforcing factors that come after behaviour (consequences).
8
Q
When graphing behaviour over time, if I want to highlight to the reader that there has been a reduction in the variability in the behaviour post-intervention, I might use
A
Range bars
9
Q
Why do health psychologists promote health behaviours?
A
Health behaviours reduce the risk of chronic disease in the population. This reduces the financial burden of disease and increases people’s quality of life by improving their physical, emotional and social well-being.
10
Q
In Single Systems Designs, why is it necessary to understand the way in which data is trending in the baseline phase(s) before evaluating whether a change has occurred following an intervention?
A
If data are already trending in a certain direction prior to the intervention, any observations post-intervention may be the result of pre-existing drift rather than the intervention itself. That is, it can appear as though the intervention has made a difference, when in fact it has not.
11
Q
When making behaviour measurable, the “interval” refers to
A
The length of time between observations of the target behaviour.
12
Q
In Single Systems Design, an ABA structure refers to
A
Baseline, intervention, baseline
13
Q
According to Rogers’ diffusion of innovations model, the adoption of new ideas or behaviours is
A
Initially slow followed by a steep increase in adoption
14
Q
Increasing the availability of shade in a school playground in order to reduce skin cancer risk is an example of
A
An environmental manipulation
15
Q
How can social network interventions influence a broad number of people’s behaviour?
A
Changes in one individual in the social network may influence the behaviour of others in their network. If the individual is central to the network or connects otherwise disconnected groups, they have the potential to share information or behaviour change with others. Therefore, change may be occurring in individuals who were not directly involved in the intervention.
16
Q
Explain what is meant by Single Systems Designs, describing the most important characteristics of these designs.
A
The behaviour of an individual, or group is measured before and after an intervention designed to elicit behavioural change. The target behaviour is defined, the intervention is developed and implemented, and change is evaluated. The most basic design is AB, with a single baseline (A) and intervention phase (B).
17
Q
When testing for significance in behaviour change, the Proportion/Frequency approach
A
assesses departures from “typical behaviour” in the desired direction.
18
Q
The introduction of legislation making it compulsory to wear a seat belt is an example of
A
A societal influence on health behaviour.
19
Q
Terry has undergone an intervention to reduce his sugar intake (measured in grams/day) with a simple, 2-week, AB design, recording his behaviour throughout using a diary. From looking at the graph, you think there may have been a change in level, and a change in rate in the intervention period compared to the baseline period. Which graphical tools will you use to help the reader notice the same patterns that you do?
A
Mean bars could be used to illustrate a change in level.
Trend lines could be used to illustrate a change in rate.
Trend lines could be added using the Nugent (2001) method, superimposing a straight line that connects the first and last points in each phase.
20
Q
Explain the principle of graduated reduction.
A
Sometimes, it is difficult to make the desired behaviour change in a single step. Graduated reduction is consistent with goal setting principles, where smaller, manageable targets can be set and reached, improving feelings of success and mastery to reach the ultimate behavioural goal.
21
Q
How do Australians have to change their diet to maximise health outcomes according to the National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC)? Explain how the change you suggest might improve health outcomes. Consider the different nutrition subsections.
A
Increase fruit and vegetable intake to reduce the risk of cancer and CVD.
Increase fibre consumption to reduce the risk of CVD, obesity, and T2D.
Increase fish consumption to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and dementia.
Reduce fast-food and sugar-sweetened beverage consumption to reduce the risk of obesity and fatigue.
22
Q
Increased consumption of fibre has been associated with
A
Lower risk of T2D, cancer and CVD.
23
Q
Discuss some of the problems associated with treating eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bullimia nervosa.
A
There is limited support for the efficacy of treatments for eating disorders and treatments are further complicated as eating disorders are frequently co-morbid with obsessive-compulsive disorders, social phobias, and anxiety disorders. Furthermore, for patients under the age of 30 the later they seek treatment the higher the risk of mortality.
24
Q
Exercise can be beneficial for
A
Mental and physical health.
25
Which of the following is generally true for anorexia sufferers?
a. Mortality rates are higher than for the general population and they are very unlikely to suffer from another mental health issue such as anxiety.
b. Mortality rates are lower than for the general population if anorexia sufferers are young (<15 years of age) and they are more likely than not to suffer from another mental health issue such as anxiety.
c. Mortality rates are higher than for the general population and they are more likely than not to suffer from another mental health issue such as anxiety.
d. Mortality rates are lower than for the general population and they are very unlikely to suffer from another mental health issue such as anxiety.
c. Mortality rates are higher than for the general population and they are more likely than not to suffer from another mental health issue such as anxiety.
26
We need to promote exercise because:
After we turn 10, our physical activity levels appear to drop from year to year while screen time increases.
27
The consumption of fruit and vegetables in Australia is:
Considered to be too low for both fruit and vegetables.
28
Saturated fat intake has generally been thought to increase the risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) and cardiovascular disease (CVD). Which of the following statements is true?
a. A recent meta-analysis found that saturated fat intake was not associated with an increased risk of CHD and /or CVD.
b. A recent meta-analysis found that saturated fat intake was strongly associated with an increased risk of CHD and/or CVD (ie. increased saturated fat increases the risk of CHD and /or CVD).
c. A recent meta-analysis found that saturated fat intake was moderately associated with an increased risk of CHD and/or CVD (ie. increased saturated fat increases the risk of CHD and/or CVD).
d. A recent meta-analysis found that saturated fat intake had a strong negative association with an increased risk of CHD and/or CVD (ie. increased saturated fat decreases the risk of CHD and/or CVD).
A. A recent meta-analysis found that saturated fat intake was not associated with an increased risk of CHD and/or CVD.
29
How do we increase physical activity and break down barriers that seem to hinder increased physical activity?
Enable people to enjoy being physically active by incorporating enjoyable physical activity into their daily life. For example, by incorporating a physically active hobby into their daily life such as gardening and walking the dog and by improving social support for being active.
30
What does the research into sugar-sweetened beverages suggest about the health effects of these beverages? (Consider conflicting evidence and explanations for conflicting evidence).
Sugar-sweetened beverages are associated with weight gain in adults and children, increased risk of T2D, and worse bone strength and dental health. Sugar may be addictive to some extent. The funding body of particular research can affect the outcome of the given research.
31
What is the status of physical activity level among Australians? Consider both active (e.g. exercise) and inactive (e.g. watching TV) behaviour.
Our activity levels seem to steadily decrease after we turn 10 years of age while our screen time increases from year to year. Children (5 to 17 years) spend about 1.5 hours per day being physically active. At the same time, more than 2 hours per day were spent on activity that involved watching a screen.
32
Alcohol consumption is associated with:
a. traffic accidents
b. several different types of cancer
c. all responses are correct
d. domestic violence
c. all responses are correct
33
When it comes to fruit and vegetables an adult should consume
About 5 serves of vegetables and 2 of fruit per day.
34
What is the best treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents according to evaluations of the scientific evidence by the Australia Psychological Society?
Family treatment
35
The time of maximum sleepiness is referred to as the circadian:
a. nadir
b. all responses are correct
c. low
d. trough
b. all responses are correct
36
What is the SCN and what is its function?
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is the primary circadian pacemaker in the body. It keeps our circadian (24 hr) rhythms in functioning synchronised to each other and to the outside light/dark cycle - receiving light input through the eye via the retinohypothalamic tract.
37
To measure sleep, eye movements are tracked using:
EOG
38
Insomnia is:
a. not treated with drugs
b. often treated with a combination of approaches including cognitive behaviour therapy
c. only related to problems getting to sleep
d. all responses are correct
b. often treated with a combination of approaches including cognitive behaviour therapy.
39
How do we know when someone is in SWS, and why do we think SWS is important?
SWS, often referred to as deep sleep, is characterised by large delta waves in the EEG. People are difficult to wake from SWS. SWS has been implicated in growth and tissue repair due to the release of growth hormone during this time.
40
Obstructive sleep apnoea is:
a. always accompanied by snoring
b. often treated with CPAP
c. all responses are correct
d. more common among women
b. Often treated with CPAP
41
Which of the following statements is untrue?
a. Slow wave sleep is characterised by delta brainwaves
b. Growth hormone is released during slow wave sleep (SWS)
c. Most dreaming occurs in deep sleep
d. It is hard to wake someone out of deep sleep
c. Most dreaming occurs in deep sleep
42
Explain the potential of cycle impairment associated with obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
OSA can lead to sleepiness, performance impairment and depressed mood, which in turn, can lead to further health complications. Together, this can influence exercise levels and diet, which can lead to weight gain, which exacerbates OSA. Treatments are designed to break this cycle.
43
Why is a variable sleep schedule potentially damaging for sleep?
We sleep best when our circadian rhythms in all aspects of functioning, including sleep, are synchronised. Highly variable sleep schedules, such as those often experienced by shiftworkers, can lead to circadian disruption and sleep loss. Keeping a consistent bed and wake time helps to keep our rhythms synchronised and facilitates better sleep.
44
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The homeostatic drive decreases sleepiness across the day, while our circadian system helps to keep us awake.
b. The homeostatic drive increases sleepiness across the day, while our circadian system helps to keep us awake.
c. The homeostatic drive increases sleepiness across the day, while our circadian system promotes sleep.
d. The homeostatic drive increases wakefulness across the day, while our circadian system helps to keep us awake.
b. The homeostatic drive increases sleepiness across the day, while our circadian system helps to keep us awake.
45
Which of the following statements is untrue?
a. Muscle tone turns off during REM sleep to stop people acting out their dreams.
b. REM sleep has been called 'paradoxical sleep'
c. On a typical night, most REM sleep occurs during the first half of the sleep period.
d. REM sleep is named for its 'butterfly' eye movements.
c. On a typical night, most REM sleep occurs during the first half of the sleep period.
46
Sleep loss and circadian disruption during shiftwork are related to:
a. eating at night
b. all responses are correct
c. increased consumption of caffeine
d. social and domestic disruption
b. all responses are correct
47
Which of the following statements is untrue?
a. The main timekeeper in our body is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the brain.
b. Circadian rhythms are roughly 24-hour cycles in functioning
c. Circadian rhythms can be measured in performance, core body temperature and melatonin.
d. The primary time cue for the SCN is food.
d. The primary time cue for the SCN is food.
48
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Exercising right before bed makes you sleep better.
b. Going to be at a different time each night is good for you.
c. Alcohol is good for sleep.
d. Screens should be kept out of the bedroom.
d. Screens should be kept out of the bedroom.
49
Explain why shiftwork is associated with increased accident risk
Our biology promotes daytime wakefulness and sleep at night. Shiftworkers often work when their bodies are primed for sleep, and sleep when their bodies are primed for wake. This disruption in circadian rhythms results in sleep of reduced duration and quality. Circadian disruption and sleep loss increase accident risk.
50
A central component of many individual treatments is readiness to change. Why have some argued that "waiting for the addict to be ready for treatment can be dangerous" (Clay, Allen and Parran, 2008, p1)?
Readiness to change becomes less likely as alcohol use disorder becomes more severe. Alcohol reduces the ability to engage in treatment through family/social damage, frontal lobe damage, loss of independence, negative interactions with healthcare professionals, interactions with other medications, and alcohol-related illness and injury.
51
Describe how family history of alcohol use disorders can increase risk of development
Studies have identified a genetic risk that is heritable. Studies also suggest that early family and social learning experience may enable the expression of related genes, and influence drinking behaviours into adulthood.
52
Individual interventions to reduce smoking are more likely to be effective if they consider:
a. Exposure to other smokers at home or work
b. Co-occurring addictive behaviours
c. All responses are correct
d. Cultural issues
c. All responses are correct
53
Smoking tobacco is NOT associated with
a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Cancer
c. Gout
d. Male sexual dysfunction
c. Gout
54
A reduction in the number of young people starting to smoke is likely due to
a. Quitline support services
b. The introduction of e-cigarettes
c. Mass media campaigns
d. Nicotine replacement therapy
c. Mass media campaigns
55
Which of the following statements about healthcare professionals is untrue?
a. those in areas with specialised drug and alcohol programs tend to have less positive attitudes to caring for people with alcohol use disorders.
b. Diagnosis and treatment of alcohol use disorders may not occur due to a focus on more immediate, life-threatening aspects of patient presentation.
c. Perceived barriers to caring for patients with alcohol use disorders include lack of training and time
d. There is a clear need for, and interest in, alcohol-related training among healthcare providers.
a. Those in areas with specialised drug and alcohol programs tend to have less positive attitudes to caring for people with alcohol use disorders.
56
Why is there concern about the use of e-cigarettes if they don't contain tobacco?
Although e-cigarettes do not contain tobacco, they sometimes contain nicotine, which is highly addictive. There is little evidence about the long-term health outcomes of smoking cigarettes. Finally, young people who use e-cigarettes may be more likely to smoke tobacco later on.
57
How does nicotine replacement therapy aim to reduce tobacco smoking?
Nicotine replacement therapy delivers nicotine to the body without smoking cigarettes. This reduces the cravings and withdrawal symptoms typically associated with smoking cessation in order to support smoking cessation.
58
Barriers to treatment of alcohol use disorders include:
a. All responses are correct
b. Frontal lobe damage
c. Stigma and social disapproval
d. Alcohol-related illness
a. All responses are correct
59
Which of the following groups is NOT at increased risk for smoking:
a. Indigenous populations
b. Lower socio-economic groups
c. People with a mental illness
d. Adolescents and young adults
d. Adolescents and young adults
60
Alcohol use disorders are associated with:
a. All responses are correct
b. Brain damage
c. Depressive disorders
d. Thiamine deficiency
a. All responses are correct
61
Why is alcohol-related frontal lobe damage a barrier to engaging in treatment?
Frontal lobe damage can result in the inability to perceive risk and to make decisions, as well as apathy and difficulties maintaining attention and motivation. It can also result in changes in emotion, shallowness and indifference, which can negatively impact on communication and interaction with those in support roles.
62
Which of the following statements is untrue:
a. Trauma and abuse can trigger harmful drinking patterns.
b. Genetic factors can predispose people to alcohol use disorders.
c. Alcohol use disorders are an expression of weak will.
d. Family learning experience may influence drinking behaviours in later life.
e. Genetic factors can predispose people to alcohol use disorders.
c. Alcohol use disorders are an expression of weak will.
63
Damage to the frontal lobe is associated with:
a. Apathy
b. Poor decision-making
c. Impaired problem solving
d. All responses are correct
d. All response are correct
64
Treatment for alcohol use disorders often includes:
a. Therapy
b. All responses are correct
c. Discussions with friends and family
d. Medication
b. All responses are correct
65
Fear-avoidance beliefs have been shown to predict disability and worse pain outcomes. What form of primary pain appraisal is theorised to be the most likely to lead to pain-related fear avoidance beliefs?
a. Loss of appraisals
b. Challenge appraisals
c. Harm appraisals
d. Threat appraisals
d. Threat appraisals
66
Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed the transactional model of stress and in this model identified three forms of primary appraisals or ways that pain can be judged. Name and briefly define each of those three forms of primary appraisal.
Threat appraisals, which represent the belief that pain is a danger that outweighs one's ability to cope.
Loss/harm appraisals, where pain is viewed as representing damage and/or a loss of some form.
Challenge appraisals, where one perceives that he/she has the resources to cope.
67
What treatment approach theorises that changing the content of thoughts is not as important as improving psychological flexibility, and increasing value-driven behaviour?
a. Acceptance and commitment therapy
b. Cognitive behavioural therapy
c. Hypnosis
d. Exposure-based therapy
a. Acceptance and commitment therapy
68
Briefly describe the key ideas underlying Melzack and Wall's theory of pain.
The gate control theory proposed that the brain plays an active role in pain perception. In this theory, the pain experience involves three primary elements:
1. sensory;
2. evaluative (i.e. thoughts);
3. affective/motivational.
Each of these elements influence the processing of pain signals and their interaction determines how pain is perceived.
69
A needed further research direction is to determine whom each type of evidence-based, efficacious treatment approach for chronic pain is most likely to benefit. This involves examination of treatment ______
a. dose
b. delivery formats
c. moderators
d. mediators
c. moderators
70
_______ is defined as an exaggerated negative mental set about actual or anticipated pain, and has been shown to be a robust predictor of pain intensity, disability, and mood outcomes such as anxiety.
a. Fear avoidance
b. Self-efficacy
c. Depression
d. Pain catastrophising
d. Pain catastrophising
71
Pain perception involves what four elements?
a. Transmission, amplification, inhibition, reaction
b. Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
c. None of the above
d. Transduction, conversion, modulation, perception
b. Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
72
Name three cognitive, emotional, or behavioural factors that might serve a protective or adaptive coping function in chronic pain.
Self-efficacy
Mindfulness
Acceptance
Resiliency
Humour etc.
73
Melzack and Wall proposed a revolutionary theory in pain that recognised the interconnected role of neurophysiological pathways, thoughts and emotions in pain. This theory is known as:
a. Annex pain theory
b. The neuromatrix model of pain
c. The biopsychosocial model
d. The gate control theory
b. The neuromatrix model of pain AND
d. The gate control theory of pain
74
In which treatment would you be most likely to routinely see yoga delivered as part of the program?
a. Cognitive behavioural therapy
b. Behavioural therapy
c. Mindfulness-based stress reduction
d. Acceptance and commitment therapy
c. Mindfulness-based stress reduction
75
The application of operant conditioning principles for chronic pain management is most clearly related to which form of therapy?
a. Interpersonal therapy
b. Behavioural therapy
c. Cognitive therapy
d. Mindfulness-based stress reduction
b. Behavioural therapy
76
Many individuals experience anger in the context of chronic pain. What does the research by Okifuji and colleagues (1999) suggest in terms of the most common target for client's anger: who is it most often directed towards?
a. Insurance companies
b. Employers
c. Themselves
d. Healthcare providers
c. Themselves
77
A loss of regional grey matter volume in the context of chronic pain has been shown to:
a. occur only in those individuals who catastrophise about the pain.
b. be permanent
c. possibly be reversible when pain is relieved
d. not occur
c. possibly be reversible when pain is relieved.
78
Name three of the six possible mediators of chronic pain treatments proposed in the model by Jensen (2011) that was later updated by Day and colleagues (2014).
1. Environment/social variables
2. Brain states
3. Cognitive content
4. Cognitive coping/process
5. Behaviour; and
6. Emotion/affect
79
Describe the theory underlying cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) for chronic back pain.
Theoretically, the cognitive aspect of CBT is designed to target changing unhelpful, maladaptive thoughts and beliefs to make them more positive, realistic and/or adaptive. The integration of behavioural aspects is designed to concurrently target reducing pain behaviours, increasing well behaviours, and reducing stress.
80
Which of the following is not an appropriate problem to be treated with music interventions in cancer survivors?
a. Anxiety
b. Depression
c. Pain
d. Body image disturbance
d. Body image disturbance
81
Identify some of the strategies taught to children with cancer to help them cope.
Strategies such as acceptance, cognitive reappraisal, and positive methods of cognitive and behavioural distraction help children to cope with their cancer and to adapt to the stress of their cancer.
82
Typically, anxiety ________ through the radiotherapy treatment cycle, but ___________ through the chemotherapy cycle.
a. Initially diminishes and then peaks; initially peaks and then plateaus
b. Initially peaks and then plateaus; initially peaks and then diminishes
c. Initially peaks and then diminishes; continues to increase
d. Initially diminishes and then dissipates; continues to decrease
c. Initially peaks and then diminishes; continues to increase
83
Which of the following is least associated with an increased risk of fear of recurrence?
a. Feelings of helplessness/hopelessness
b. Older cancer patient
c. Low levels of perceived social support
d. Avoidant coping style
b. Older cancer patient
84
In what way is the dyadic coping model similar to Rolland's family-focused model? Both models view:
a. Coping as being the sole responsibility of the patient
b. Illnesses as being classified according to their psychosocial demand
c. Coping is the sole responsibility of the cancer patient's family members
d. Coping occurs at both the individual and dyadic level, including the cancer patient and family members.
d. Coping occurs at both the individual and dyadic level, including the cancer patient and family members.
85
Which of the following is NOT a phase associated with cancer
a. Diagnosis
b. Survivorship
c. Active treatment
d. Preclinical
d. Preclinical
86
Which of the following is not a cause of sexual dysfunction in cancer patients?
a. Cancer treatment
b. Changes within the relationship between cancer patient and their partner
c. Cancer-related psychological distress
d. Good supportive care
d. Good supportive care
87
Approximately 30% of breast cancer patients experience body image difficulties during survivorship. Discuss some reasons why this might be.
Treatment for breast cancer involves the removal of at least one breast, changing her physical appearance. This procedure leaves the patient with a long scar across their chest, and often results in breast asymmetry. These changes to the patient can negatively impact their identity.
88
Which of the following is a treatment proven to help someone suffering from body image disturbance?
a. Mindfulness-based stress reduction
b. Music interventions
c. Cognitive and behaviour interventions
d. Pharmacological interventions
c. Cognitive and behavioural interventions
89
Discuss the impact of a cancer diagnosis on the family unit.
The family unit needs to provide both instrumental support (such as providing transport to medical appointments) as well as reassurance and psychological support to the cancer patient. This can lead to individuals in the family unit becoming more dependent on each other.
90
What are some common feelings a person might experience after receiving a cancer diagnosis?
a. Relief, retreat and retire
b. Shock, encounter and retreat
c. Surprise, encounter and excitement
d. Shock, survivor's guilt and regret
b. Shock, encounter and retreat
91
What are some advantages of providing people with genetic risk assessments for cancer?
Provision of genetic test result feedback has been found to promote greater understanding of the cancer risk and to enhance the personal salience of prevention recommendations.
92
Identify some of the key barriers that lead to poor adherence to cancer screening programs.
Anticipated embarrassment, pain and fear of screening procedures are common reasons for not participating in screening programs.
Not surprisingly, fear of being diagnosed with cancer is a major deterrent.
Another barrier is perceiving oneself as too healthy to develop cancer. A final barrier is discontinuing symptoms of cancer as unimportant.
93
Which of the following is one advantage of decision aids?
a. Decision aids help with processing information and weighing up different options.
b. Decision aids provide irrelevant information to help delay people making a decision.
c. Decision aids tell people what decisions to make
d Decision aids provide information that helps speed up the patient's acceptance of their diagnosis.
a. Decision aids help with processing information and weighing up different options.
94
Some people report feeling distressed after the completion of active treatment for many reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of those reasons?
a. A perceived increase in support networks
b. Feelings of being abandoned by medical staff
c. A fear of the cancer returning
d. Feelings of uncertainty about effectiveness of treatments
a. A perceived increase in support networks
95
Healthy blood pressure is about:
a. 120/80 kmHz
b. 80/120 mmHg
c. 120/80 mmHg
d. 80/120 kmHz
c. 120/80 mmHg
96
Depression often goes underdiagnosed and undertreated in the context of CVD and T2D; describe some of the proposed reasons why this might be the case.
Somatic symptoms, fatigue and insomnia are common to both depression and (particularly) CVD, and these can be incorrectly attributed to CVD.
Patients/doctors might believe depression is normal in CVD/T2D.
A diagnosis of depression is stigmatising, so patients might be reluctant to disclose symptoms.
Doctors might not be asking about depression.
97
Which cardiovascular system passes through the lungs?
a. None of these answers are correct
b. Pulmonary circulation system
c. Systemic circulation system
d. Aortic system
b. Pulmonary circulation system
98
What is the hormone that regulates blood glucose levels?
a. Serotonin
b. Adrenaline
c. Insulin
d. Cortisol
c. Insulin
99
The fastest growing chronic illness worldwide is:
a. headache
b. type 2 diabetes
c. type 1 diabetes
b. type 2 diabetes
100
Depression complicates cardiovascular diease (CVD) and type 2 diabetes (T2D) because depressed individuals are:
a. more likely to not adhere to treatment plans
b. all responses are correct
c. less likely to engage in recommended healthy lifestyle modifications plans
d. less likely to attend rehabilitation
b. all responses are correct
101
Atherosclerosis, an inflammatory disease, is the leading cause of CVD. Briefly describe what atherosclerosis is and what factors are thought to play a pivotal role in its development.
Atherosclerosis describes a hardening of the arteries due to plaque build-up.
The plaque eventually reduces arterial blood flow and may block an artery.
Depending on the site of the occlusion, this can lead to various types of CVD.
Smoking, hypertension and dietary factors may all cause damage/inflammation to arterial walls.
102
Because of the complications that can arise due to chronic hyperglyaemia, people with T2D need to regularly have their ______ and _______ checked for damage to capillaries in these areas.
a. eyes, feet
b. pancreas, heart
c. hands, feet
d. eyes, heart
a. eyes, feet
103
Describe five behavioural risk factors for developing CVD and/or T2D.
Unhealthy lifestyle behaviours play a large role in CVD and T2D.
Five modifiable behavioural factors that increase risk are:
1. Smoking
2. Unhealthy diet (inadequate fruits and vegetables, processed foods, high fat and sugar intake)
3. Physical inactivity
4. Excessive alcohol intake
5. Poor mental health (i.e. depression)
104
The term used to describe overly high blood glucose levels is:
a. Hypoactive
b. Hyperglycaemia
c. Metabolism
d. Hypoglycaemia
b. Hyperglycaemia
105
Mindfulness entails:
a. present-moment awareness
b. a non-judgmental attitude
c. purposeful attention
d. all responses are correct
d. all responses are correct
106
The bodily effect of chronic stress is referred to as:
a. autonomic dysregulation
b. allostatic load
c. allostatic hold
d. eustress
b. allostatic load
107
The _____________ nervous system is responsible for arousing the body and mobilising resources during the flght-or-fight response.
a. adrenal
b. automatic
c. sympathetic
d. parasympathetic
c. sympathetic
108
Being optimistic, having a positive sense of self-worth and viewing others positively describes what type of coping resource that is available before a stressful event?
a. Spiritual/philosophical
b. Emotional
c. Social
d. Cognitive
d. Cognitive
109
Select the one response below that is NOT an example of physiologically oriented stress management.
a. Cognitive restructuring
b. Diet
c. Adequate sleep
d. Excercise
a. Cognitive restructuring
110
Describe the key tenets of the transactional model of stress.
In this model, stress is based on one's perception and cognitive appraisal, and involves two stages.
The first involves a primary appraisal of whether a situation represents a threat, loss or challenge.
If it is judged a threat or loss, secondary appraisals determine if the necessary coping resources are available.
111
Which of the following hormones is commonly referred to as the 'stress hormone'?
a. serotonin
b. glucose
c. cortisol
d. adrenotonin
c. cortisol
112
The three stages within the response to acute and chronic stress according to the general adaptation syndrome theory are:
a. alarm, resistance and exhaustion
b. stimuli, response, exhaustion
c. alarm, flight, activate
d. appraise, resist, illness
a. alarm, resistance and exhaustion
113
Distinguish problem-solving and emotion-focused coping.
Problem-solving changes the person's relationship with their environment to reduce/eliminate stress.
Emotion-focused coping changes how the situation is perceived.
If something can be done to change the stressful situation then usually problem-focused strategies are effective. If not, then emotion-focused strategies are more likely to be used.
114
Being organised, using effective time management, engaging in assertive communication and seeking instrumental social support are all examples of what type of coping strategy?
a. emotion focused
b. action oriented
c. problem focused
d. avoidant
c. problem focused
115
At the core of Lazarus and Folkman's transactional model of stress is:
a. behavioural-environment-transactions
b. cognitive appraisal
c. physiological responses
d. emotion
b. cognitive appraisal
116
The shorter life expectancy of Indigenous Australians as compared with non-Indigenous Australians can partly be explained by factors such as:
a. low education levels and high unemployment
b. low literacy rates
c. limited access to health care services as > 80% of the Indigenous population lives outside major city areas
d. high rates of smoking, diabetes and infant mortality
d. high rates of smoking, diabetes and infant mortality
117
Socioeconomic status (SES) is generally operationalised through the assessment of:
a. education
b. job/occupation status
c. income
d. all responses are correct
d. all responses are correct
118
Discuss who is stigmatised in Australian society. Think about why this might be the case.
Groups that suffer stigma in Australian society include Indigenous people, non-heterosexuals, people without homes, people from low SES backgrounds, asylum seekers, those with mental disorders and other minority groups.
119
The lower your socioeconomic status (SES), the:
a. higher your chance of increased occupation stress
b. higher your chance of experiencing depression
c. lower your chance of experiencing depression
d. lower your chance of experiencing anxiety
b. higher your chance of experiencing depression
120
Having a disability increases your chances of:
a. being unemployed
b. living in a disadvantaged area
c. all responses are correct
d. having limited access to jobs and education in your neighbourhood
c. all responses are correct
121
What differences do research findings suggest between city and non-city dwellers?
a. Non-city dwellers are more likely to smoke than their city-dwelling counterparts but are less likely to drink or be overweight that their city-dwelling counterparts.
b. Non-city dwellers are less likely to smoke, drink or be overweight than their city dwelling counterparts.
c. Non-city dwellers are more likely to smoke, drink and be overweight than their city-dwelling counterparts.
d. Non-city dwellers are more likely to smoke and drink than their city-dwelling counterparts but are less likely to be overweight than their city-dwelling counterparts.
b. Non-city dwellers are less likely to smoke, drink or be overweight than their city dwelling counterparts.
122
Plain packaging laws for cigarette packs were introduced by the Australian Federal Government to:
a. educate non-smokers about the dangers of smoking
b. make smoking less appealing and increase their desire to quit
c. scare people away from buying cigarettes
d. show smokers the real dangers of smoking through graphic images on cigarette packages, thus forcing them to quit
b. make smoking less appealing and increase their desire to quit
123
A national survey from Australia shows that factors such as sex (being female), education (higher), age (lower), geographic location (remote), living conditions (alone), and marital status (separated) predict your chances of visiting a psychologist in relation to your mental health. Why would this be so?
Studies suggest that females may have better mental health literacy and so might self-identify mental health problems or identify them in friends, thus leading them to seek help more frequently.
Education might increase mental health literacy and the acceptability of seeking help. Younger individuals seem more aware of mental health issues and associate less stigma with mental health issues.
124
Discuss what effects being stigmatised can have.
With exclusion and discrimination comes social isolation that cuts away your social support, your coping resources and your job opportunities.
Any one of these factors is enough to create a stressful situation, but facing a multitude of these factors can make the situation unassailable and potentially lead to drug use or suicide. The research shows this clearly.
If you are an adolescent or young adult who identifies as lesbian, gay or bisexual, your chances of suicide ideation or attempts are much higher than if you are an adolescent who has not had any non-heterosexual attraction and you are not yet sexually active.
125
In general, what effects can you expect low socioeconomic status to have and why?
Low SES is associated with increased risk of negative health outcome.
Low SES from birth to middle age may increase, almost double, your chances of developing type 2 diabetes, partly through increased inflammation.
Furthermore, being a smoker was predicted by low levels of education, occupation and overall low SES.
Physical inactivity and unhealthy diet were predicted by low-level occupation and overall low SES.
126
Non-heterosexual orientation has been found to be associated with:
a. increased risk of suicide attempts and ideation
b. increased risk of depression/anxiety
c. both responses are correct
c. both responses are correct
127
What are some of the key issues researchers in the area of health inequalities have to consider in order to design a high-quality study?
To get a clear idea about changes over time, you would need to employ a longitudinal study design with enough time points.
You would have to consider how you would control for factors such as education and experience of discrimination.
Employing relevant measures that are reliable and valid would be key to understanding the effects of different factors on health inequalities.
128
When it comes to stigma which statement is not true?
a. Groups that suffer stigma in Australian society include Indigenous people, non-heterosexuals, the homeless, the poor, asylum seekers, those with mental disorders and other minority groups.
b. Australia asylum seekers are a group that is stigmatised through labels such as 'queue jumpers' and 'illegal asylum seekers'
c. If your religious beliefs stigmatise a group of people, then you are allowed to follow your belief under Australian law.
c. If your religious beliefs stigmatise a group of people, then you are allowed to follow your belief under Australian law.
129
To reduce smoking rates among any population it is important to:
a. all responses are correct
b. ban tobacco advertising
c. remove any norms that suggest smoking is normal
d. reduce or eliminate children's exposure to smoking by others
a. all responses are correct
130
What is the biopsychosocial model?
The biopsychosocial model acknowledges the biological (e.g. genes, biology), psychological (e.g. experience, behaviour, thoughts, emotions), and social (e.g. family, friends, community, society) aspects of how health is generated, experienced and treated.
131
In Single Systems Designs, why is it necessary to understand the way in which data is trending in the baseline phase(s) before evaluating whether a change has occurred following an intervention.
If data are already trending in a certain direction prior to the intervention, any observations post-intervention may be the results of pre-existing drift rather than the intervention itself. That is, it can appear as though the intervention has made a difference, when in fact it has not.
132
Believing that your culture is somehow superior to referred to as:
a. ethnocentrism
b. cultural competence
c. cultural safety
d. cultural sensitivity
a. ethnocentrism
133
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The World Health Organisation definition of health defines health as the absence of disease or infirmity.
b. Hippocrates argued that health depended on the balance of body humours.
c. The biomedical model contends that emotional disturbances are seperate from physical disturbances.
d. Dualism conceives of the body as visible and material and the mind as invisible and insubstantial.
a. The World Health Organisation definition of health defines health as the absence of disease or infirmity.
134
How is the health belief model (HBM) different to the theory of planned behaviour (TPB) model?
The HBM focuses on the perception of barriers and benefits as well as the perceived threat to the individual's health along with other concepts like self-efficacy. The TPB focuses more on intentions, behavioural control and norms. Thus the HBM seems to centre more on the individual through his or her perceptions of a cost-benefit analysis given a certain threat. The TPB is concerned with both societal norms and the individual's intentions.
135
Why is a variable sleep schedule potentially damaging for sleep?
We sleep best when our circadian rhythms in all aspects of functioning, including sleep, are synchronised. Highly variable sleep schedules, such as those often experienced by shiftworkers, can lead to circadian disruption and sleep loss. Keeping a consistent bed and wake up time helps to keep our rhythms synchronised and facilitates better sleep.
136
What is the term used to describe blood pressure when the heart is contracting?
a. Cathartic
b. Systolic
c. Diastolic
d. Hypertension
b. Systolic
137
Alcohol use disorders are associated with:
a. All responses are correct
b. Thiamine deficiency
c. Brain damage
d. Depressive disorders
a. All responses are correct
