Testbank Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
[AC PRESS] On AEW aircraft, the #2 EDC is devoted to:
A
The RADAR compartment
2
Q
[AC PRESS] Following a successful EDC disconnect, you should observe the following indications:
A
Loss of I/D spread and EDC press low light.
3
Q
[AC PRESS] The Air Cycle Cooling System heat exchanger coils are cooled by ram air in flight and by air from electrically driven fans powered by _________ on the ground.
A
Bus B and MEDC “Mon DC”
4
Q
[AC PRESS] Modulation of the __________ controls pressurization in the flight station and cabin.
A
Outflow valve
5
Q
[AC PRESS] Cabin air is drawn through the electronics compartments by the cabin exhaust fan and exhausted overboard through the outflow valve. Power is furnished to the fan through which buses?
A
BUS B and Extended MDC
6
Q
[AC PRESS] If the cabinet exhaust fan were to fail or there was a lack of airflow, which light would illuminate in the flight station?
A
“FAN OUT” light
7
Q
[AC PRESS] Positioning the EDC DUMP switch to the dump position will:
A
Dump the EDC output overboard and close the Firewall shutoff valve.
8
Q
[AC PRESS] With the APU not operating while taxiing, placing the Ground Air Conditioning Switch to on will:
A
- Undump EDCs
- Open firewall shutoff valves
- Close the aux vent
- Energize blower fans
9
Q
[AC PRESS] (T/F) On takeoff, once the aircraft weight is off the wheels, scissor-switch action deenergizes the ground air-conditioning switch that secures power to the heat exchanger fans.
A
TRUE
10
Q
[AC PRESS] The ______ isolate the EDCs from the air cycle cooling system.
A
Firewall shutoff valves
11
Q
[AC PRESS] On LRT aircraft, the #2 EDC provides conditioned air to the:
A
Flight Station and Cabin
12
Q
[AC PRESS] Indications of an EDC quill shaft failure are:
A
Loss of I/D needle spread without “PRESS LOW” light
13
Q
[AC PRESS] The _____ system modulates the outflow valve to limit exhaust airflow and maintain cabin pressure equivalent to the altitude selected on the pressurization controller.
A
Isobaric
14
Q
[AC PRESS] Which of the following lights indicates a closed thermal switch sensing an overheat condition at the output side of the air cycle machine compressor, and that temperature in the affected duct has exceeded safe limits.
A
REFER OVERHEAT
15
Q
[AC PRESS] What actions occur as a result of placing the AUX VENT switch to open while in flight?
A
The AUX vent valve opens fully
The EDCs are dumped
Firewall shutoff valves close
The outflow valve opens electrically
16
Q
[AC PRESS] A pressure relief valve under the copilot seat prevents dangerous buildup of cabin pressure in the event of a malfunction of the _____ system.
A
Differential
17
Q
[AC PRESS] A negative presssure relief valve is located in the center of the aft pressure bulkhead. It will open if ______.
A
Outside (ambient) pressure exceeds cabin pressure.
18
Q
[AC PRESS] Which of the following best describes the EDC oil cooling system?
A
An oil-to-oil heat exchanger is coupled to the engine oil cooling system.
19
Q
[AC PRESS] The APU AIR OVERRIDE switch used in conjunction with the ground air-conditioning switch, allows the:
A
EDCs to be used for air conditioning when the APU is operating.
20
Q
[AC PRESS] The outflow valve switch has four positions (open, close, auto and off). The switch controls the outflow valve as follows:
A
Close - Electrically drives the outflow valve to full-closed position, decreasing cabin altitude
Open - Electrically drives the outflow valve to full-open position, releasing cabin exhaust and depressurizing the aircraft.
Auto - Electrically drives the outflow valve to a midrange position, allowing the cabin pressure controller to pneumatically control the position of the outflow valve in either isobaric or differential range.
21
Q
[AIRFRM / HYD] There are three electrically driven, variable displacement type hydraulic pumps that are constantly monitored for pressure output, fluid and motor temperature, and electrical control. A low-pressure warning is initiated when pump output falls to _____.
A
1800 psi
22
Q
[AIRFRM / HYD] During an approach with the power levers below flight start (48 degrees coordinator), the landing gear warning horn should sound and the flashing wheels light should illuminate if the airspeed drops below _____ or if the flaps are selected to _____ with the landing gear up.
A
153 KIAS; Land
23
Q
[AIRFRM / HYD] A full #2 Hydraulic reservoir will indicate how many gallons?
A
1
24
Q
[AIRFRM / HYD] Hydraulic system #1 includes a DC motor-operated pump (1B) that is used primarily for _________ .
A
Charging the brake accumaltor
25
[AIRFRM / HYD] Which of the following items is powered by both the #1 and #2 HYD systems?
F - E - A - R the Bomb bay
Flaps
Elevator
Aileron
Rudder
Bomb bay door
26
[AIR FRM/ HYD] The power source for the #1A HYD pump is:
BUS B; MEDC
Note remember: B-A-B ; M - E - E
27
[AIRFRM / HYD] The hydraulic booster units are designed so that if either the #1 or #2 HYD system fails, the remaining system will furnish sufficient hydraulic pressure to operate the boosters. (T/F)
True
28
[AIRFRM / HYD] A “HYD OIL HOT” light may be caused by:
Excessive HYD oil temperature (above 175 F)
Restricted coolant fan.
NOT LISTED Fuel less than 1000# in either inboard tank.
29
[AIRFRM / HYD] During flight you discover the Landing Gear Selector Valve CB on Extension MDC out and it will no reset, as a result:
The landing gear can still be extended and retracted by manually positioning the landing gear selector valve.
30
[AIRFRM / HYD] During wing flap extension from maneuver to approach the rudder power light illuminates:
This means only one HYD system is powering the RDR BSTR. The RDR is only capable of 1/2 of its capacity to resist air loads.
No HYD systems are powering the RDR BSTR.
31
[AIRFRM / HYD] In the P3, stall buffets occurs how many knots prior to stall with flaps UP?
8 knots
32
[AIRFRM / HYD] On approach for landing, with flaps at maneuver, you call for approach flaps and the flap asymmetry light illuminates. With no change in aircraft flight characteristics this means:
The flaps were not moving symmetrically, so the FLAP ASYM SYS actuated to prevent a change in flight characteristics and to prevent any further flap movement for the remainder of the flight.
33
[AIRFRM / HYD] On preflight the center indicating arrow on the nose gear steering wheel in the cockpit should be cross checked with the direction the nose wheels are pointed because:
The indicating arrow on the steering wheel can point straight ahead at 3 different nose wheel angles.
34
[AIRFRM / HYD] The P3 wheel brake assemblies incorporate anti-lock brakes or prevent skidding and blown tires. (T/F)
FALSE
35
[AIRFRM / HYD] Shifting a flight control to boost off results in which of the following:
Shuts off fluid to the booster
Allows fluid to bypass around the actuating cycling gear
Gives the pilot a mechanical advantage in the boost-off condition
36
[AIRFRM / HYD] A “DOOR OPEN” light indicates:
Either the main cabin door and/or the HSC door is unlocked.
37
[AIRFRM / HYD] With a failure of the #1 HYD system, the following system(s) is/are not available for use:
Remember: BLNR
Nosewheel steering, rotodome
38
[AIRFRM / HYD] The RDR BST system is equipped with a device which shuts off #2 HYD system pressure to the RDR BST when the wing flaps are detracted above 60%. This device prevents:
Excessive structural loads as a result of max RDR pressure at high speeds.
39
[AIRFRM / HYD] The brake accumulator preload air charge pressure is ________.
800 psi
40
[AIRFRM / HYD] The quantity in the #1 HYD reservoir with the brake accumulator charged and the landing gear up should read ______
4 gallons.
note: 5.6 is what to read on ground. 5 with brake acc pressurized. Low light when any of these conditions set and level is 0.8 gallons less than expected.
41
[FUEL] Tank #5 consists of:
A bladder type fuselage tank connected to an integral center section tank.
42
[FUEL] The cable-operated fuel tank emergency shutoff valve is opened/closed by the use of what?
E-handle
43
[FUEL] Tank 5 may be fueled through which of the following means?
Through the pressure fueling system.
44
[FUEL] Normal fuel management consists of transferring fuel from tank 5 to the wing tanks to maintain full wing tanks until tank 5 is empty. [T/F]
True.
45
[FUEL] The power source for the forward transfer pump is:
BUS A; EMDC
46
[FUEL] The power source for boost pumps 2 & 4 are:
BUS B; Main DC
47
[FUEL] The crossfeed system permits any wing tank to supply fuel to:
Any engine.
48
[FUEL] Four fuel panel indicators placarded “PRESS LOW” are provided to warn of:
A low differential pressure across the corresponding engine-driven boost pump.
49
[FUEL] In the event of a loss of Main AC BUS A or BUS B, fuel dump will still be available; however it will be at a lesser rate. [T/F]
True
50
[FUEL] Which of the following is not a function of the 16% switch?
De-energizes the ignition relay
51
[FUEL] The ignition relay energizes all of the following components during starts between 16%-65% RPM except:
TD valve take solenoid
52
[FUEL] Parallel operation occurs during starting when engine speed is between _____ percent RPM.
16 & 65
53
[FUEL] What would the indication be during starts if the secondary element has failed?
Paralleling light does not illuminate between 16 & 65%
54
[FUEL] Which of the following is not an input to the fuel control?
Turbine Inlet Temperature
55
[FUEL] The fuel control schedules fuel output to the TD valve at _______% of engine fuel requirements.
120
56
[FUEL] The temperature datum system is in the start limiting mode when:
RPM < 94%
57
[FUEL] The TD system is in the temp controlling mode when the TD switch is in the normal position with:
RPM > 94% and PL is > 66 degrees coordinator
58
[FUEL] The secondary fuel pump will provide positive fuel pressure to the fuel control in the event of a primary pump failure. [T/F]
TRUE
59
[FUEL] Normal fuel crossfeed operation may be selected from any wing tank if its respective emergency shutoff valve is closed. [T/F]
TRUE
60
[FUEL] Normal boost pump pressure is ______ psi.
15-30
61
[ELEC] How is the generator cooling air shutoff valve closed?
Mechanically via the E-handle
62
[ELEC] PMG voltage into the aircraft may only be stopped by:
Securing the engine
63
[ELEC] The solid-state supervisory panels do not provide protection for:
Over frequency
64
[ELEC] The _____ will illuminate anytime the auxiliary bearing is under a load.
RED mechanical “GEN FAIL” light
65
[ELEC] In the event of generator seizure, the generator driveshaft has a _____.
Shear section to prevent damage to the reduction gear box
66
[ELEC] What is the purpose of transfer relay #2?
To connect primary and alternate power to BUS A
67
[ELEC] What is the purpose of transfer relays #5 and #6?
to allow generators 2 & 3 to back each other up in the event that feeder four is not powered.
68
[ELEC] What is the purpose of transfer relay #7?
Allows generator number 4 priority over the APU generator
69
[ELEC] What is the purpose of the runaround relays?
To provide the MEAC and FEAC buses with alternate sources of power under all conditions
70
[ELEC] What are the bus priorities for the MEAC bus?
BUS A, GEN 2, Ext. PWR, GEN 4, APU, GEN 3
71
[ELEC] The MDC and EMDC buses carry most of the heavy DC loads and are powered by:
Transformer Rectifier (TR) 1 and TR2 in parallel and has no backup power sources.
72
[ELEC] The bus priorities for the Start Essential DC bus are:
MEDC, the b/u power source is from the FEDC bus via the Start ESS bus power relay.
73
[ELEC] Blocking diode #2 prevents FEDC from feeding _____.
MEDC
74
[ELEC] Setting the Essential Bus Monitoring switch to off disconnects _____ from the monitoring system by removing the Essential bus monitoring relay and essential relay #1 ground.
MEAC
75
[ELEC] If the APU generator is the only available generator (APU Auxiliary Control Relay energized) and the aircraft altitude is above _____, automatic full load monitoring occurs without the manual actuation of any switches.
8000’
76
[ELEC] Which bus are energized by the aircraft battery when initially connected?
FEDC, GOB, APU Essential DC
77
[ELEC] Ensuring a power source to Main AC buses A and B is the function of the ______.
Transfer Relays (XR in my notes)
78
[ELEC] What CB, if out, will deenergize XR #7 and prevent GEN 4 from powering any bus without bringing on the GEN 4 OFF light?
GEN 4 AUX control (One of the big 4 CBs which are BUS A, BUS B, GEN 4 XFR, GEN 4 AUX)
79
[ELEC] Which CB enables GEN 2 & 3 to back each other up in the event of a GEN 4 failure?
GEN 4 XFR Control ( One of the Big 4 CBs)
80
[ELEC] The Bus B control CB on MEDC powers:
The B side of XR #3.
81
[ENG] 14th stage Bleed Air from the T56-14 compressor section is utilized to close 5th & 10th stage bleed air ports above 94% rpm by which component?
Speed Sense Valve
82
[ENG] 18 dual element thermocouples provide input to the following items:
TIT indicator, TD system
83
[ENG] The engine fire extinguishing system can release Halon from how many HRD bottles into a single engine?
2
84
[ENG] The normal oil temperature range is _____ and in monitored by a temperature sensing bulb located in the oil tank.
60-90 C
85
[ENG] A chips light indicates:
Metal particles have been found in either the RGB or Power Section.
86
[ENG] The engine accessory drive pad is mounted on the bottom of the compressor air inlet housing and is driven by a compressor extension shaft via a bevel gearing assembly. The following equipment is mounted on the accessory section:
F-E-S-S-M-O-S
Fuel control, all 3 Engine driven fuel pumps, Speed sense control, Speed sense valve, Main Oil pump, Oil filter, Scavenge oil pump
87
[ENG] Which of the following items is not found on the RGB accesories drive?
Fuel control unit
Remember S-T-O-O-G-E
Starter, Tachometer, Oil pump, Oil filter, Generator (2,3,4,APU), EDC (engine driven compressor on 2 & 3)
88
[ENG] When the e-handle is pulled to the full out position, the following function(s) occur
Remember F-F-F-F-B-O-G-E
Fuel control unit shutoff [M/E]
Fuel tank emergency shutoff valve closes [M]
Feather system actuated [E]
Feather valve moves to Feather from Neutral [M]
Bleed air shutoff valve closes [E]
Oil tank shutoff valve closes [E]
Generator cool air shut off valve closes [M]
EDC dump and Firewall shutoff valve closes [E]
89
[ENG] The 6 uses of 14th stage bleed air include: Eng anti-icing, wing deicing, oil cooler augmentation, waveguide pressurization (AEW), and:
Closes the 5th and 10th bleed air valves at 94% rpm.
Remember W-E-E-R-O-C
Only missing Engine starting air
90
[ENG] The RGB reduces ______ of the power section to ______ for use by the propellor.
High RPM low Q; Low RPM high Q
91
[ENG] The torque meter assembly transmits Q from the power section to the RGB, provides the primary support structure between the power unit and the RGB and:
Displays SHP on the indicators in the flight station.
92
[ENG] Engine oil cooler augmentation requires the oil cooler door be fully open, the PL below flight idle and:
The starter selector off
93
[ENG] The igniter plugs are energized:
Between 16% and 65% engine rpm
94
[ENG] The purpose of the 5th and 10th stage bleed air valves is to:
Reduce the compressor back pressure during the engine acceleration
95
[ENG] The 16% switch on the speed sense control open the fuel shutoff valve and:
Energizes the ignition relay
96
[ENG] At 100% engine RPM, the oil pressure limits are 50 to 60 psi. The “OIL Press” caution light comes on when the system pressure falls below _____ .
40 psi
97
[ENG] The engine starter uses _____ from the ____ to provide engine rotation during a normal start.
Compressed air; APU, an operating engine, or an external gas turbine compressor (huffer)
98
[ENG] The paralleling valve solenoid in the engine fuel system is energized by:
The ignition relay at 16%
99
[ENG] The fuel manifold drain valve is closed:
Electrically at 16% and is held closed by fuel pressure above 65% rpm
100
[ENG] Reduction gear box oil pressure in-flight limits are 150-250 psi, the “OIL PRESS” annunciator light comes on when RGB oil pressure is less than _____.
130psi
101
[FOUL WX] Electric heating elements are used to anti-ice and de-ice propellers, the heating elements are powered by ____ and the control power comes from _____.
BUS B; EMDC
102
[FOUL WX] A fault in the propellor deice system will be noted by:
A low reading on the ammeter
103
[FOUL WX] The frequency of icing light flashes is proportional to the severity of icing conditions. [T/F]
True
104
[FOUL WX] The engine anti-ice system uses 14th stage bleed air to prevent ice formation on which 3 sections of the engine?
Engine air scoop, Compressor inlet assembly, Torquemeter shroud
105
[FOUL WX] The engine anti-ice system is deigned so that the valves will fail open in flight with a loss of______ bus control power, ensuring anti-icing protection in the event of electrical system failure.
MEDC
106
[FOUL WX] How much ice should be allowed to build up on the wings prior to its removal by use of the wing deice system?
1/2”
107
[FOUL WX] The engine “ANIT-ICING” advisory light will illuminate when:
14th stage air of sufficient temperature to melt ice has entered the torque terminal shroud and inlet scoop.
108
[FOUL WX] When should the engine anti-icing system be turned on?
Prior to entering areas where structural icing is likely to exist
109
[FOUL WX] Use of the propellor ice control system is recommended:
Whenever structural icing is evident
110
[FOUL WX] 6 pneumatically operated modulating valves control the flow of bleed air from the bleed air manifold to each of the six ejector assemblies. The valves receive control power from the _____ bus when the flight station switches are actuated.
EMDC
111
[FOUL WX] What is the power source of the EMP de-ice parting strips?
BUS A
112
[FOUL WX] What condition will bring on the emp de-ice light which may be corrected by cycling the switch to off then on?
A temporary over heat condition existed
113
[FOUL WX] What is the power source for the EMP de-ice timer motor?
MEAC
114
[FOUL WX] The emp ice control system should be turned on in flight when structural icing is evident in conjunction with which other system?
Wing De-ice
115
[FOUL WX] Six overheat warning sensor are located along the front spar of the wing and sense excessive temperature in the plenum area. Detection of an overheat condition results in illumination of:
Either the LW HOT or RW HOT
116
[FOUL WX] Upon turning on the engine anti-icing system, a loss of _____% horsepower indicates proper operation of all three engine anti-icing valves.
9
117
[FOUL WX] One complete cycle of the Prop de-ice system requires _____ seconds of operation?
160
118
[FOUL WX] The windshield heat must be warmed up in low for _____ prior to selecting high.
10 minutes
119
[FOUL WX] An AC-powered EMP de-ice timer motor controls the flow of power to the cycling strips during the normal operation which energizes each cycling strip for 8 seconds and includes a 16-seconds dead band for a total cycle of _______.
176 seconds
120
[FOUL WX] A temperature sensor is installed on the inner skin of each leading-edge section. These sensors provide a signal input to the flight station leading-edge temperature gauge and actuate the LE HOT light if the temperature exceeds ______.
110 C
121
[PROP] The four blade Hamilton Standard 54H60-77 propeller is a _______, variable pitch, full-feathering propeller.
Constant speed
122
[PROP] As a propellor rotates, its blades are subjected to several forces as a function of rotational speed, aerodynamic loads, and frictional factors. Predominate among these forces is ______, which constantly acts to twist the blades to a flat pitch.
Centrifugal Twisting Moment (CTM)
123
[PROP] When the individual SYNC SERVO switch is placed to Normal, power is applied to the _____ to limit RPM over/undershoots caused by rapid PL movement, and to the _____, which dampens RPM transients.
PL anticipation circuits; speed derivative circuits
124
[PROP] The propeller control assembly is mounted on the aft extension of the propeller barrel and is made up of two housings which are:
Pump housing and Valve housing
125
[PROP] An engine failure occurs during takeoff, the NTS system fails to operate, and the propeller remains coupled. Drag from the windmilling propeller is limited by:
Beta FOLUP
126
[PROP] The pilot valve is positioned by the _____ at one end and flyweight force at the other.
Speeder spring
127
[PROP] What is the purpose of the backup valve?
Prevents inadvertent retraction of the low pitch stops when in flight.
128
[PROP] The feather valve has two positions, they are:
Feather and Neutral
129
[PROP] The low pitch stop assembly is a mechanical stop in the propeller dome and is set to maintain a minimum desired low pitch blade angle of ______.
13 degrees
130
[PROP] Which two conditions will cause the pitchlock teeth to engage?
Loss of propeller controlling oil pressure or Overspeed of 103.5% RPM or greater.
131
[PROP] Between which two blade angles is pitchlock available?
17 and 57
132
[PROP] Pitchlock reset is available anytime the power lever is below _____ coordinator and blade angle is above _____.
28 degrees ; 10 degrees
133
[PROP]Selecting one of the inboard propellor as a master energizes the _____ circuitry, which maintains a predetermined blade phase relationship (lad/lag) between the propellers and matches the slave propeller RPM to the master’s
Syncrophasing
134
[PROP] The 45 degrees air start blade angle system is installed to limit negative horsepower during in-flight unfeathering operations with failed NTS. [T/F]
TRUE
135
[PROP] What are the three positions that the propeller brake operates in?
Released - >21% RPM
Locked - <21% RPM
Applied
136
[PROP] Feathering is accomplished hydraulically by the _____ directing pump #1 & #2, plus the aux pump oil directly to increase pitch.
Feather valve
137
[PROP] When the propeller has fully feathered, feathering oil pressure buildup will operate a pressure cutout switch, causing the feather pump and feather valve solenoid to be energized. [T/F]
TRUE
138
[PROP] What condition will cause the Autofeather system to actuate once the arming switch is on and the power levers are above 60 degrees coordinator?
Propeller thrust has dropped below 500lbs of positive thrust
139
[PROP] The NTS protects the aircraft from excess drag by limiting the negative torque from the propeller to a predetermined value range of _____ SHP for engines 1 and 4, and ______ SHP for engines 2 and 3.
-150 to -500 SHP for 1 & 4
-100 to -500 SHP for 2 & 3
140
[PROP] If the NTS system fails to function properly or fails completely, the safety coupling will decouple the reduction gearbox from the power section by a maximum of ____ SHP at 100%.
-1700.
Note the range is -500 to -1700 so be careful of decoupling during NTS check.
