Testing Review Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following drug classes can be used as the “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for heroin addicts or alcoholics?
A
Long acting opioid antagonist
2
Q
Morphine can be used to treat all of the following conditions except:
A
Psychosis
3
Q
T/F Moderate opioid antagonist can reverse respiratory depression caused by heroin overdose
A
FALSE
4
Q
T/F Direct application of morphine to the spinal cord produces a regional analgesic effect with minimal side effects
A
TRUE
5
Q
Which of the following drug classes is most effective in relief of severe pain?
A
Strong opioid agonist
6
Q
Which of the following drug classes can reverse the coma and respiratory depression caused by morphine overdose?
A
Opiod antagonist
7
Q
T/F The opioid antagonist Naltrexone (Revia) can be used as a “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts of alcoholics
A
TRUE
8
Q
T/F The opioid antagonist Naloxone (Narcan) can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain
A
FALSE
9
Q
Which of the following drug classes is often used in combination with non-opioid analgesics for treatment of moderate pain?
A
Moderate opioid agonist
10
Q
The mechanisms) of action of short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists for the treatment of asthma includes:
A
bronchodilation
11
Q
Of the following treatments, which is most likely to cause oral candidiasis in a patient with asthma?
A
Inhaled corticosteroid, such as Fluticasone (Flovent) via metered dose inhaler
12
Q
Which of the following drugs is effective only on targets within the CNS?
A
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
13
Q
Which one of the following drugs irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenaes (COX)?
A
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
14
Q
Which of the following statements is true regarding prednisone?
A
Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
15
Q
Second generation H1 receptor antagonists used in the treatment of seasonal allergy:
A
do not cross the blood-brain barrier in appreciable amounts
16
Q
Which one of the following mechanisms in NOT responsible for the therapeutic effect of glucocorticoids in the treatment of inflammation?
A
Blocking H2 receptors
17
Q
Which of the following types of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Antibody against tumor necrosis factor TNF
18
Q
? Is a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
A
Etanercept (Enbrel)
19
Q
? Is a small molecule immunosuppressant for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis
A
Methotrexate (MTX)
20
Q
? Inhibits uric acid biosynthesis for the treatment of chronic gout
A
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
21
Q
? Is used in patients with acute gout attack
A
Indomethacin (Indocin)
22
Q
T/F Repeated use of an opioid antagonist causes tolerance and physical dependence
A
FALSE
23
Q
T/F An opioid partial agonist is a drug that has an agonist effect of alpha opioid receptors and an antagonist effect on mu opioid receptors
A
FALSE
24
Q
T/F moderate opioid agonists have lower abuse potential than strong opioid agonists
A
TRUE
25
T/F A short acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist should be prescribed for a patient with occasional asthma symptoms, such as individuals subject only to intermittent episodes of exercise-induced asthma
TRUE
26
T/F All drugs administed by aerosol route of delivery only reach the airway surface, can never be absorbed into the body, and therefore have no systemic side effects
FALSE
27
T/F The growth rate and size of some cancerous tumors can be effectively reduced by treatment with NSAIDS
TRUE
28
T/F 5'lipoxygenase (5LO) is upstream of prostaglandin synthesis
FALSE
29
Which of the following drugs directly activates mu opioid receptors?
Methadone (Dolophine)
30
Which of the following is true about second generation H1 receptor antagonists?
They do not cross the blood-brain barrier to the levels observed with first generation H1 antagonists
31
Infliximab is useful in treatine rheumatoid arthritis because
it binds to TNF-alpha and prevents the cytokine from binding to its receptor
32
Cortisol
is characterized by neither A or B (A. is a long acting glucocorticoid B has minimal salt-retaining activity)
33
Which of the following statements is TRUE about glucocorticoids?
Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency
34
Which one of the following drugs blocks the synthesis of ALL eicosanoids?
Prednisone (Deltasone)
35
Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as an irreversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
36
? Increases the excretion of uric acid in the treatment of gout
Probenecid (Benemid)
37
? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
Methotrexate (MTX)
38
? Antagonizes the action of IL-1 for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Anakinra (Kineret)
39
? Provides rapid relief from acute gouty arthritis attacks
Indomethacin (Indocin)
40
? Is an antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors and is especially useful in treating patients with nocturnal and exercise induced asthma
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
41
? Is a short-acting agonist selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and functions as a bronchodilator
Albuterol (Provent)
42
? Is a long-acting agonist of beta-2 adrenergic receptors; rare episodes of asthma symptom exacerbations have raised concerns over its use
Salmeterol (Serevent)
43
T/F Opioid antagonists are used to relieve severe pain
FALSE
44
T/F Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not useful for treating inflammatory responses
TRUE
45
T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is useful for treating gastric ulcers that result from chronic use of NSAIDs
FALSE
46
Which of the following statements about naloxone (Narcan) is false
Naloxone is used to relieve severe, chronic pain
47
Methadone (Dolophine) is used for
relief of withdrawal symptoms in morphine addicts
48
Which of the following statements is false?
FALSE: Repeated use of morphine produces tolerance to the pupil-constricting and constipating effects of the drug
49
Which of the following drugs is used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts?
Naltrexone (ReVia)
50
Which of the following drugs is useful for treating gastric ulcers due to chronic use of NSAIDs?
Misoprostol (Cytotec)
51
A key difference between 1st and 2nd generation H1-histamine receptor antagonists is that the 2nd generation drugs:
don't cross the BBB efficiently
52
The mechanisms of pharmacologic glucocorticoid action include
ALL OF THE ABOVE (A. binding to intracellular receptor proteins that participate in the control of gene transcription B. increasing levels of intracellular regulators such as lipocortin and IkB which fxn to suppress inflammatory pathways C. Suppression of the fxn of several types of immune system cells
53
Which of the following immunomodulatory agents is most likely to elicit flu-like symptoms as a side-effect?
Interferon Beta-1a (Avonex
54
? Inhibits the re-absorption of uric acid for the treatment of gout
Probenecid (Benemid)
55
? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis
Methotrexate (MTX)
56
? Antagonizes the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Etanercept (Enbrel)
57
? Inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to decreased uric acid production for the treatment of chronic gout
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
58
? Beta-2 adrenergic receptor selective agonist
Albuterol (Provent)
59
? Bronchodilator, inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase and is also an antagonist of A3 adenosine receptors
Theophyline
60
? Membrane stabilizer and inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
Cromolyn sodium (Intal)
61
? Antagonist of M1-muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are expressed in airway smooth muscle cells
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
62
T/F Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is useful for treating inflammatory responses
FALSE
63
T/F Celecoxib (Celebrex) non-selectively blocks the actions of both COX-1 and COX-2 equally well
FALSE
64
T/F Eicosanoids regulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction relating to inflammation
TRUE
65
T/F Compared to the glucocorticoids cortisol and dexamethasone, prednisone is intermediate in terms of duration of action, anti-inflammatory activity and mineralcorticoid effects
TRUE
66
Beclomethasone (Beclovent)
suppresses pulmonary inflammatory processes via diverse immunosuppressive effects
67
Aerosol drug delivery is
a means to treat patients with reduced total drug dosage compared to systemic administration of the same drug
68
Albuterol (Ventolin)
ALL (A. is a selective agonist for beta-2 adrenergic receptors B. is available in oral and aerosol C. can cause tachycardia D. treats either acute or chronic asthma)
69
Which of the following statements is true regarding Cetirizine (Zyrtec)?
Cetirizine (Zyrtec) binds to a cell surface receptor to exert its theraputic effect
70
Natalizumab (Tysabri)
decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS
71
? Used in the treatment of bronchial asthma and acute pulmonary edema
Theophyline (Theolair)
72
? Is used as an anchor agent for combination therapy in treating rheumatoid arthritis
Methotrexate (MTX)
73
? Is a uricosuric drug that enhances the renal excretion of uric acid
Probenecid (Benemid)
74
T/F Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid antagonist used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts or alcoholics
TRUE
75
T/F Compared with morphine, the mixed opioid agonist-antagonist buprenorphine (Buprenex) produced effects that are more easily reversed by naloxone (Narcan)
FALSE
76
T/F Repeated use of morphine produces cross-tolerance to the analgesic effect of methadone (Dolophine)
TRUE
77
T/F Rofecoxib (Vioxx) is a direct, selective inhibitor of phospholipase A2
FALSE
78
T/F Both glucocorticoids (eg Prednisone) and aspirin block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism
FALSE
79
T/F Both ibuprophen (Advil) and naproxen (Alleve) block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism
TRUE
80
T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is used clinically for the chronic mgmt of asthma
TRUE
81
T/F Methylxanthines (eg theophylline) are well-tolerated bronchodilator drugs with very few side effects
FALSE
82
T/F Long term use of prednisone can lead to suppression of the hypothalmic-pituitary axis
TRUE
83
T/F Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) is a Type 1 Interferon used in the treatment of MS
FALSE
84
Loratidine (Claritan)
is a histamine-H1 receptor antagonist
85
Which statement is true regarding prednisone?
Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
86
Interferon B-1a (Avonex)
decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS
87
In the treatment of asthma, glucocorticoid
suppress multiple pulmonary inflammatory processes
88
Aerosol drug delivery for asthmatics is
a strategy to more selectively target drugs to their intended site of action compared to alternative routes of administration
89
T/F Probenecid (Benemid) is used for rapid relief from acute attakes of gouty arthritis
FALSE
90
T/F Allopurinol (Zyloprim) decreases uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase activity
TRUE
91
T/F Low does weekly therapy with methotrexate (MTX) is widely used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
TRUE
92
T/F Etanercept (Enbrel) is a tumor necrosis factor TNF antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
TRUE
93
T/F The weak opioid agonist codeine can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain
TRUE
94
T/F Chronic treatment with high doses of acetaminphen (Tylenol) can produce gastric ulcers
TRUE
95
T/F Aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and naproxen (Alleve) are equally effective anti-inflammatory agents
FALSE
96
T/F The therapeutic actions of montelukast NA (Singulair) are due to its capacity to directly bind 5-LO and inhibit the formation of leukotrienes
FALSE
97
T/F Misoprostol (Cyotec) is an agonist for prostaglandin receptors present on gastric epithelial cells in the gut that stimulate the secretion of prottective mucus and bicarbonate
TRUE
98
T/F M1 muscarinic receptor antagonists such as ipratropium (Atrovent) are an excellent drug choice for a patient showing nocturnal symptoms of asthma
TRUE
99
An unexpected compensatory CV reflex that occurs when a hypertensive patient is treated with a vasodilator could involve
An increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in sodium and water retention
100
Antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by reducing either total peripheral resistance and/or
either A or B (A. cardiac output B. heart rate/and or stroke volume)
101
Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly binds to and block L-type Ca channels
Dihydropyridines
102
Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists as antihypertensive drugs
D. have all the above properties (A. include clonidine, B. act by reducing sympathetic ouflow from the brain C. are used currently only in patients whose hypertension is not well controlled by other drugs)
103
Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for losartan (Cozaar)?
directly blocks AT1 angiotensin receptors
104
Which of the following statements accurately describes the treatment approac for patients with HBP?
ALL. (A. life style modifications B. Thiazide diuretics for patients with stage 1 HTN C. two drug combo for stage II HTN)
105
When used for the treatment of angina, nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
reduced myocardial work by decreasing preload
106
The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are
due to an excess of cardiac oxygen demany over oxygen supply
107
Non-dihydropyridine-type CA channel blocking drugs, eg verapamil (Calan) can be used as anti-anginal agents bc they
ALL of the above (A. lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm, C reduce contractility of cardiac myocytes
108
Digitalis glycosides
A and B (A. have a small therapeutic index value, B. enhance contractility by indirectly increasing the intracellular free Ca concentration in cardiac myocytes
109
Which of the following mechanisms can reduce mortality in the pharmacologic treatment of heart failure?
All (A. interference with the peripheral actions of angiotensinII B. prevention of cardiac beta-1 adrenergic receptor activation C. blockade of aldosterone receptors)
110
ACE inhibitors
ALL (A. prevent AT1 angiotensin receptors from being activated B. reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II C. increase levels of bradykinin)
111
Warfarin (Coumadin)
ALL (A. inhibits vitamin k-dependent synthesis of clotting factors, B. in contraindicated in pregnancy, C. does not elicit anticoagulation effects in vitro)
112
Synthetic heparins
preferentially inhibit active coagulation factor X(Xa)
113
Streptokinase (Streptase)
is a non-enzymatic plasminogen activator
114
Which of the following drugs inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets?
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
115
Vaughan-Williams Class I
Sodium Channel Blockers
116
Vaughn-Williams Class II
Beta receptor blockers
117
Vaughn-Williams Class III
Potassium Channel Blockers
118
Vaughn-Williams Class IV
Ca Channel Blockers
119
Which of the following are used to classify anti-arrhythmic drugs according to the Vaughn-Williams method
NONE of the abve (A. low therapeutic index, B. cost, C. pro-arrhythmic potential)
120
According to the Vaughn-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs, lidocaine is a
class I drug that is most effective on active cardiac tissue
121
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
class III drug that binds to activated channels
122
Bile acid sequestrants
act locally in the small intestine
123
Which of the following statements is true regarding LDL?
regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controlling LDL levels in humans
124
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
block a rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
125
Nicotinic acid (niacin)
inhibits the rate-limiting step in tri-glyceride synthesis
126
Which one of the following drugs selectively blocks the activity of 5-LO?
Zileuton (Zyflo)
127
Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as a reversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?
Naproxen (Aleve)
128
Which one of the following drugs is least expected to cause gastric ulcers?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
129
? Is an antagonist of lekotreine D4 receptors
Montelukast Na (Singulair)
130
? Is selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and causes bronchodilation
Albuterol (Provent)
131
? Inhibits IgE from binding to its receptor
Omalizumab
132
? Inhibits mast cell degranulation
Cromolyn sodium (Intal)
133
? Treats rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydofolate reductase
Methotrexate (MTX)
134
? A NSAID widely used for patients with acute gout
Indomethacin (Indocin)
135
? Blocks the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
Etanercept (Enbrel)
136
T/F Propanolol (Inderal) is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than is metoprolol (Lopressor)
FALSE
137
T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating an increase of calcium ion within the muscle cell cytosol
TRUE
138
Combination anti-anginal therapy can include beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or Ca channel blockers
TRUE
139
Current drug treatment of heart failer involces activating the neuro-humoral systems that increase peripheral vascular resistance and fluid and salt retention in order to incrase cariac output
FALSE
140
The COX-2 hypothesis states the COX-2 mediates most cellular "house-keeping" fxns whereas COX-1 mediates most adverse rxns associated with inflammation
FALSE
141
Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for lisinopril (Prinivil)
reduces angiotensin II levels
142
The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are
attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue
143
Dihydropyridine-type Ca Channel blocking drugs eg nifedipine (Procardia) are useful anti-anginal agents bc they can
A and B (lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm)
144
Digitalis glycosides
increase the intracellular free Ca concentration in cadiac myocytes
145
The so-called "vicious cycle of heart failure" involves all of the following except:
peripheral vasodilation
146
Alteplase (Activase)
is a tissue plasminogen activtor
147
Aspirin
irreversibly inhibits COX
148
Which one of the following drugs selectively inhibits factor Xa
low molecular weight heparin
149
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
150
Nicotonic acid (niacin)
increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase
151
Which of the following statements is true
regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controlling LDL levels in humans
152
Cortisol
Neither A or B (A. is long acting glucocorticoid B. has minimal salt-retaining activity)
153
Which of the following is true about glucocorticoids?
Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency
154
Ipratropium (Atrovent)
D. has none of the above (A. suppresses pulmonary inflam processes B. is an antaginist of leukotriene receptors C. binds to and inhibits ion channels controlling mast cell degranulation)
155
Which one of the following drugs blocks arachidonic acid synthesis
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
156
Which one of the following drugs is useful for the long term management of asthma
Montelukast Na (Singulair)
157
Which one of the following drugs has gastic ulcers as one of its major side effects?
Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
158
T/F Metoprolol is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than propranolol
TRUE
159
T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating the production of the second messengers cAMP and cGMP
FALSE
160
T/F Cholestryamine (Questran is the first choice drug for any patient with elevated LDL levels
FALSE
161
T/F Zileuton (Zyflo) is commonly used in the treatment of COPD
FALSE
162
T/F Combination anti-anginal therapy can include using beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or CCBs
TRUE
163
Which of the following physiological reflexes is LEAST likely to occur in a hypertensive pt taking a short acting dihydropyridine CCB for the first time
reduced sympathetic nervous system activity
164
Which of the following statements best explains what determines arterial blood pressure
A and B( A. MAP = CO x TPR B. MAP = SV x HR x TPR
165
The main objective of drug therapy in patients diagnosed with primary hypertension is to
bring their BP back down witin the normal range
166
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
prolongs the cardiac action potential and increases the QT interval
167
? An AT1 receptor antagonist that blocks angiotensin II's effects in resistance arterioles and in the adrenal gland
Losartan (Cozaar)
168
? A non-selective antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors
Propranolol (inderal)
169
? Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, blocking the formation of angiotensin II from angiotensin 1
Lisinopril (Prinivil)
170
? Causes transient reduction in total body fluid volume, but when that diuretic effect diminished, the drug has a sustained antihypertensive effect
Hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
171
? Decreases fat soluble vitamin absorption as a side effect
bile acid sequestrant
172
? The most effective pharmacologic inducer of HDL levels
niacin
173
? Inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis in the hepatocyte
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
174
? Selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes
ezetimibe (zetia)
175
Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists are useful antianginal drugs because they
attenuate exercise-induced tachycardia
176
When used for the treatment of angina, which of the following statements about nitroglycerin is false?
it directly reduces caridac rate and contractility (FALSE about nitroglyerin)
177
Which of the following mechanisms do not contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure
blocked of cardiac slow calcium channels
178
When used for the treatment of heart failure, which of the following statements about ACE inhibitors is FALSE
the decrease venous capacitance
179
T/F The mechanism of action of drugs used for the treatment of angina pectoris that is precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is dilation of coronary arteries and restoration of blood flow to the ischemic myocardium
FALSE
180
T/F Currrent drugs of choice for the treatment of heart failure act primarily to increase the force of cardiac contraction
FALSE
181
All of the following mechanisms contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure except
increased excretion of salt and water produced by diuretics
182
When used for the treatment of heart failure, potential side effects associated with the use of ACE inhibitors include
A and B, cough and hyperkalemia
183
The preferred pharmacological therapy for the treatment of heart failure is directed toward
reducing the workload of the heart
184
Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin (nitrostat) is false?
It reduces sympathetic activity to the heart
185
Calcium channel blockers are useful for the treatment of angina pectoris because they
A and B. reduce afterload and reduce coronary artery vasospasm
186
Which of the following physiological mechanisms does NOT contribute to the antianginal efficacy of the beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?
relaxation of venuos smooth muscle
187
Nicotinic acid (niacin)
increases VLDL catabolism
188
Minoxidil
ALL. (A. binds to and opens potassium channels, causing membrane hyperpolarization and indirectly impairing Ca conductance through L-type Ca2+ channels B. is so powerful that its use is restricted to severe hypertension, hypertensive emergencies, and hypertension uncontrolled by other drugs
189
T/F The principle means by which cardiac glycosides (eg digitalis) bring about circulatory improvement in CHF is by direct dilation of renal arterioles, thereby promoting the excretion of excess extracellular fluid volume.
FALSE
190
T/F Most drugs used to treat typical angina increase total coronary blood flow and the amount of oxygen delivered to the heart
FALSE
191
T/F Low molecular weight heparin selectively inhibits thrombin
FALSE
192
Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs
increase the PR interval on the electrocardiogram
193
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
blocks K+ channels
194
Arrhythmias due to re-entry
ALL. (A. can be treated with adenosine (Adenocard) B. may result from MI C. result from improper conduction of action potentials)
195
Which of the following mechanisms to not contribute to the beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors when they are used for the treatment of heart failure?
increased intracellular Ca concentration in the cardiac myocytes
196
When used for the treatment angina pectoris, which if the following statements about organic nitrates is FALSE?
They markedly dilate myocardial coronary arterioles in the ischemic zone
197
The mechanism for minoxidil's (loniten) antihypertensive action involves
hyperpolarizing vascular smooth muscle cell membranes
198
Cholestyramine (Qeustran)
acts locally in the small intestine
199
When used for the treatment of angina pectoris, which of the following drug combinations has the greatest potential to produce adverse effects on cardiac performance?
verapamil and propranolol
200
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with MI?
propafenone (Rhythmol)
201
Class I antiarrhythmic drugs
are more effective in rapidly beating myocardium
202
Ezetimibe
acts locally in the small intestine
203
Cardiovascular reflexes resulting from vasodilation can include
increased heart rate
204
The antihypertensive mechanism of action of clinidine (Catapres) involves
activation of CNS alpha-2 adrenergic receptors leading to a reduction in sympathetic ouflow from the brain
205
? Blocks the synthesis of thromboxane A2 (TXA2) in platelets
Aspirin
206
? Inhibits vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of clotting factors
Warfarin (Coumadin)
207
? Preferentially inhibits coagulation factor Xa
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
208
? Prevents binding of fibrinogen to glycoprotein Iib/Iia receptors on platelets
Abciximad (ReoPro)
209
? Short-acting forms of this CCB are contraindicated in patients with underlying coronary vascular disease
Nifedipine (Procardia)
210
? A venous and arterial vasodilator that is administered intravenously for hypertensive emergencies
Sodium Nitroprusside
211
? An antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors
Propranolol (inderal)
212
? At therapeutic levels the CCB can bind to and inhibit both cardiac and smooth muscle L-type calcium channels
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
213
T/F The typical dose of beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists that is used for the initial treatment of heart failure is equilavent to that used for the initial treatment of hypertension
FALSE
214
T/F Atorcastatin (Lipitor) selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes
FALSE
215
T/F Nicotinic acid (niacin) inhibits the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
FALSE
216
T/F Mild hypertension never requires therapeutic intervention, which should be strictly reserved for patients diagnosed with either moderate or severe hypertension
FALSE
217
In patients with heart failure, aldosterone receptor antagonists would likely have which of the following effects on the action of digitalis glycosides?
Inhibit digitalis glycoside action
218
Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs
ALL. (A. include the alpha2 adrenergic receptor agonist clonidine (Catapres) B. have several unpleasant side-effects C. reduce sympathetic outflow D. are usually reserved for use in patients whose hypertention is not well-controlled by other drugs)
219
Thiazide diuretics reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patient by
reducing peripheral vascular resistance
220
ACE inhibitors
reduce angiotensin II levels
221
One mechanism of the antihypertensive action of beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonists is to
reduce cardiac output
222
? Impairs adenosine disphosphate (ADP) mediated platelet activation
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
223
? Preferentially activates plasminogen in the thrombus
Alteplase (Activase)
224
? Can slow sinus rhythm and may cause hypotension
verapamil (calan)
225
? Shortens the atrial action potential by activating a K+ channel
Adenosine (Adenocard)
226
? Used to treat ventricular arrhyhmias and prolongs the refractory period
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
227
? Can increase pacing thresholds and slow conduction velocity
propafenone (Rhythmol)
228
T/F A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinatrate can reduce mortality in African-Americans with severe heart diasease
TRUE
229
T/F The homogenous form of familial hypercholesterolemia is successfully treated with HMG reductase inhibitors
FALSE
230
T/F Cholestyramine (Questran) inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
FALSE
231
T/F High levels of cholesterol within hepatocytes lead to a decrease in the transcription of the LDL receptor gene
TRUE
232
T/F Treatment with minoxidil (loniten) is considered a first line therapy for the treatment of mild hypertension
FALSE
233
T/F A common reflex response to pharmacologic vasodilation. Irrespective of the drug used, is an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity
TRUE
234
After ingestion into the stomach, which of the following drugs used for treatment of angina pectoris is most susceptible to first-pass metabolism in the liver?
Isosorbide Dinitrate (Sorbitrate)
235
Captopril (Capoten)
inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
236
? A class IV antiarrhythmic drug that slows sinus rhythm and AV nodal conduction velocity
verapamil (calan)
237
? A drug with prominent local anesthetic properties that is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias
lidocaine
238
? Antiarrythmic drug that prolongs the QT interval on the electrocardiogram
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
239
Class II antiarrhythmic drug used in the treatment of supraventricular arryhthmias
Propranolol (inderal)
240
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept) is an effective immunosuppresant drug bc it
Inhibits inosine monophospahte dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
241
Prednisone
binds to FK8P12 to exert its immunosuppresive action
242
The calcineurin pathway is essential for
nuclear import of the transcription of NFAT
243
Binding of cytokines to immune cells can lead to activation of mTOR and the subsequent phosphorylation of p7056 kinase, which is necessary for cell cycle progression. This activation of mTOR is prevented by
sirolimus (Rapamune)
244
Inhibition of the phosphatase calcineurin is important for the immunosuppresive action of
A and B (cyclosporin A (Sandimmune) and Tacrolimus (Prograf)
245
Azathioprine (Imuran)
acts as an immunosuppresive by none of the above mechanisms (A. ihibits the immune response of foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets B. stimulates the response of T cells to cytokines C. inhibits translocation of the transcription factor NF-KB to the nucleus D. binds to an immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action)
246
Daclizumad (Zenapax)
blocks interleukin 2 signaling
247
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)
inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
248
Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)
inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
249
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
blocks antigen recognition
250
Prednisone (Deltasone)
can inhibit the nuclear import of the transcription factor NF-KB
251
Sirolimus (Rapamune) is an effective immunosuppresant drug because it
binds to the immunophilin FKBP12
252
? Blocks antigen recognition
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
253
? Inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)
254
? Is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)
255
? Is an inhibitor of mTOR
Sirolimus (Rapamune)
256
Tacrolimus (Prograf)
inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes
257
Prednisone (Deltasone)
inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets
