The Beginning Flashcards

(456 cards)

1
Q

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?
A. location of the virtual machines within the data center environment.
B. whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines.
C. support for physical peripherais, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice.
D. resource limitations, such as the numer of CPU cores and the amount of memory.

A

D. resource limitations, such as the numer of CPU cores and the amount of memory.

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2
Q

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?
A. decipher simple password policies.
B. limit recurrent managment costs.
C. reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.
D. enable “box by box” configuration and deployment.

A

B. limit recurrent managment costs.

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3
Q

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
A. egress traffic
B. DTP
C. VTP
D. ingress traffic

A

D. ingress traffic

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3
Q

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
A. Both have a 9 micron core diameter.
B. Both have a 100 micron core diameter.
C. Both have a 50 micron core diameter.
D. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

A

C. Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

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4
Q

How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active.”
B. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
D. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

A

B. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

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5
Q

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?
A. physical access control
B. vulnerability verification
C. user awareness
D. user training

A

A. physical access control

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6
Q

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?
A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory
B. location of the virtual machines within the data center environment
C. whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines
D. support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice.

A

A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

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7
Q

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
A. different security settings
B. discontinuous frequency ranges
C. different transmission speeds
D. unique SSIDs

A

B. discontinuous frequency ranges

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8
Q

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
A. REST API
B. southbound API
C. SOAP API
D. northbound API

A

B. southbound API

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9
Q

Which global command encrypts all passwords in the running configuration?
A. service password- encryption
B. enable password- encryption
C. enable secret
D. password- encrypt

A

A. service password- encryption

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10
Q

Which protocol uses the SSL?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP

A

C. HTTPS

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11
Q

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
A. expedited forwarding
B. low- latency queuing
C. traffic policing
D. round- robin scheduling

A

B. low- latency queuing

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12
Q

What are two descriptions of three- tier network topologies? (choose two)
A. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
B. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host.
C. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
D. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions.

A

C. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
D. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail

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13
Q

What are two functions of DHCP servers? (choose two)
A. issue DHCPDISCOVER messages when added to the network
B. assign dynamic IP configurations to hosts in a network
C. respond to client DHCPOFFER requests by issuing an IP address
D. prevent users from assigning their own IP addresses to hosts
E. support centralized IP management

A

B. assign dynamic IP configurations to hosts in a network
C. respond to client DHCPOFFER requests by issuing an IP address

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14
Q

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.
B. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.
C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval.
D. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent.

A

A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

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15
Q

Which cable type must be used when connecting two like devices together using these criteria?
1. Pins 1 to 3 and 2 to 6 are required
2. Auto detection MDI-X is unavailable
A. console
B. straight-through
C. rollover
D. crossover

A

D. crossover

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16
Q

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
A. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three- way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.
B. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.
C. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.
D. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

A

D. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

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16
Q

Which two conditions must be met before SSH operates normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (choose two)
A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.
B. IP routing must be enabled on the switch.
C. The ip domain- name command must be configured on the switch.
D. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.
E. A console password must be configured on the switch

A

A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.
C. The ip domain- name command must be configured on the switch.

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17
Q

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed- services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (choose two)
A. crypto key generate rsa usage- keys
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa general- keys modulus 1024
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport input ssh

A

D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport input ssh

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18
Q

An engineer is configuring SW1 to act as an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?
A. SW1# configt
SW1(config)# ntp server 192. 168. 1. 1
SW1(config)# ntp access- group server accesslist1
B. SW1# config t
SW1(config)#ntp backup
SW1(config)# ntp server 192. 168. 1. 1
C. SW1# config t
SW1(config)# ntp peer 192. 168. 1.1
SW1(config)# ntp access- group peer accesslist1
D. SW1# config t
SW1(config)# ntp master
SW1(config)# ntp server 192. 168. 1. 1

A

D. SW1# config t
SW1(config)# ntp master
SW1(config)# ntp server 192. 168. 1. 1

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19
Q

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
A. It load- balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
B. It load- balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table.
C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path.
D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and avirtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

A

D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and avirtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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20
Q

Which function generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?
A. encryption and decryption for VPN link processing
B. encapsulations and decapsulation of packets in a data- link frame
C. building route tables and updating the forwarding table
D. changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

A

C. building route tables and updating the forwarding table

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21
Q

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
A. all hosted on physical servers
B. implemented over a dedicated WAN
C. accessed over the internet
D. located in the same data center as the users

A

C. accessed over the internet

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22
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR to OSPF area 0?
A. Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowewst value between the three routers.
B. Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A
C. Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.
D. Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

A

D. Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

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23
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured? A. interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10. 0. 0. 34 255. 255. 255. 224 ip ospf priority 100 B. interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf priority 255 C. interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.224 ip ospf priority 98 D. interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip addres 10.0.1.1 255.255.255.248 (cut off)
A. interface gigabitethernet0/0 ip address 10. 0. 0. 34 255. 255. 255. 224 ip ospf priority 100
24
Refer to the exhibit. What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0? A. 255.255.254.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.255.192 D. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
25
Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2? A. 192.168.26.0/26 B. 192.168.16.0/27 C. 192.168.16.0/21 D. 192.168.16.0/24
B. 192.168.16.0/27
26
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements: 1. Consumer as few IP addresses as possible. 2. Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth. Which set of configurations must be applied? A. R1(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.240 R2(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.12 255.255.255.240 B. R1(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 R2(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.5 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.248 R2(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.4 255.255.255.248 D. R1(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.252 R2(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.252
C. R1(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.248 R2(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.4 255.255.255.248
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP? A. 172.16.0.0/16 B. 207.165.200.0/24 C. 192. 168.2.0/24 D. 192.168.1.0/24
C. 192. 168.2.0/24
28
Refer to the exhibit. The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (choose two) A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 B. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2023::3 2 C. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2012::1 5 D. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2023:: 2 5 E. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2012::1
B. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2023::3 2 E. ipv6 route 2000:: 1/128 2012::1
29
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route? A. 255.255.255.248 B. 255.255.255.240 C. 255.255.255.252 D. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.240
30
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3? A. ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0 B. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0 C. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0 D. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0
C. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0
31
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16? A. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost. B. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address. C. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance. D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
32
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements: 1. Dual- band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum. 2. Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings on the returned RADIUS attributes. Which two actions meet these requirements? (choose two) A. Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required. B. Enable the Coverge Hole Detection option. C. Enable the Aironet IE option. D. Enable the Allow AAA Override option. E. Enable the Client Band Select option.
D. Enable the Allow AAA Override option. E. Enable the Client Band Select option.
33
Which action protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks? A. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs. B. Impletment port security on internet-facing VLANs. C. Enable dynamic ARP inspection. D. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID.
D. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID.
34
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 2.048 Mbps B. 43.7 Mbps C. 1.544 Mbps D. 34.368 Mbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
35
Refer to the exhibit. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration? A. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10 B. interface FastEtheret0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 15 C. Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated D. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 15
A. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10
36
Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0.62, through which interface does it route the packet? A. Vlan59 B. Null0 C. Vlan58 D. Vlan60
C. Vlan58
37
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0:0:0:0:0:ffff:a00:0000, which prefix length must be used? A. /124 B. /128 C. /96 D. /64
B. /128
38
What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch in a three- tier architecture model? A. access-distribution-distribution-access B. access-core-access C. access-core-distribution-access D. access- distribution-core-distribution-access
D. access- distribution-core-distribution-access
39
How is RFC 1918 addressing used in a network? A. They are used in place of public addresses for increased security. B. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses. C. They are used to access the Internet from the internal network without conversion. D. They are used by Internet Service Providers to route over the internet.
B. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.
40
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network? A. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller. B. Devices establish an IPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller. C. The Cisco CLI Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller. D. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller.
D. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller.
41
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 have teh default configuration. The router R2 priority is set to 99. Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network? A. R3(config)# interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)# ip ospf priority 1 B. R3(config)# interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)# ip ospf priority 100 C. R3(config)# interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0 D. R3(config)# interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)# ip ospf priority 100
B. R3(config)# interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)# ip ospf priority 100
42
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point used to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices? A. SSID B. RFID C. VLAN ID D. WLAN ID
A. SSID
43
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet? A. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup. B. It sends all traffic of the path via 10.0.1.100. C. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4. D. It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.
D. It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.
44
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Init B. Exchange C. Full D. 2- way
C. Full
45
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client? A. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 B. Accept- Patch: text/ example, charset=utf-8 C. Accept- Encoding: gzip, deflate D. Accept: application/json
D. Accept: application/json
46
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the application secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen? A. The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured interval. B. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted. C. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor. D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.
C. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
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