The Brain Flashcards

(587 cards)

1
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

Chronic and progressive autoimmune condition involving demyelination in the CNS

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2
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Immune system attacks the myelin sheath of the myelinated neurones

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3
Q

What cell produces myelin in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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4
Q

What cell produces myelin in PNS

A

Schwann cell

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5
Q

What happens in early disease in multiple sclerosis to myelin

A

Re-myelination can occur symptoms resolve

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6
Q

What happens in later disease in multiple sclerosis to myelin

A

Re-myelination is incomplete

Symptoms gradually become more permanent

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7
Q

Why in multiple sclerosis do symptoms change overtime

A

Lesions vary in location = affected sites change overtime

Lesions - ‘disseminated in time and space’

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8
Q

What is the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Presents in young adults - under 50

More common in women

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9
Q

What are the causes of multiple sclerosis

A

Unclear - by may be influenced by:

Multiple genes
Epstein-Barr virus
Low vitamin D
Smoking
Obesity

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10
Q

Name the risk factors for multiple sclerosis

A

Female sex
History MS
Northern latitude

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11
Q

Describe the onset of multiple sclerosis

A

Usually progresses over more than 24 hours

Symptoms tend to last days to weeks after 1st presentation and then improve

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12
Q

Describe the clinical features of multiple sclerosis

A

Depend on site of the lesion

Optic neuritis (most common)
Eye movement abnormalities
Focal neurological symptoms
Ataxia

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13
Q

Name the investigations for multiple sclerosis

A

MRI

Lumbar puncture

Other
- FBC
- Thyroid stimulating hormone
- Vitamin B12

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14
Q

Describe the disease patterns of multiple sclerosis

A

Clinically isolated syndrome
Relapsing remitting
Secondary progressive
Primary progressive

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15
Q

Describe the clinically isolated syndrome pattern of multiple sclerosis

A

1st episode of demyelination and neurological signs and symptoms

May never go on to have another lesion or develop MS

Lesions on MRI can suggest likelihood to progress onto MS

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16
Q

Describe the relapsing-remitting stage of multiple sclerosis

A

Most common pattern when 1st diagnosed

Characterised by episodes of disease and neurological symptoms followed by recovery

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17
Q

What are the classifications of relapsing remitting stage of multiple sclerosis

A

Active - new symptoms/lesions

Not active - no new symptoms/lesions

Worsening

Not worsening

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18
Q

Describe secondary progressive stage of multiple sclerosis

A

Was relapsing emitting, no progressive worsening of symptoms with incomplete remission

Symptoms becoming increasingly more permanent

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19
Q

Describe the primary progressive stage of multiple sclerosis

A

Worsening disease and neurological symptoms from the point of diagnosis without relapses and remissions

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20
Q

How is multiple sclerosis diagnosed

A

Clinical picture + symptoms suggesting lesions that change location overtime

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21
Q

Describe the management of multiple sclerosis

A

Optic neuritis = high dose steroids

Disease modifying therapies

Relapses - may be treated with steroids

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22
Q

Name 5 differential diagnosis of multiple sclerosis

A

Fibromyalgia
Sjogren syndrome
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Ischaemic stroke
Peripheral neuropathy

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23
Q

Name 5 complications of multiple sclerosis

A

UTI
Osteopenia and osteoporosis
Depression
Visual impairment
Erectile dysfunction

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24
Q

What is the prognosis of multiple sclerosis

A

Difficult to know

Depends on response to treatment

MRI useful to assist prognosis

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25
Define Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Acute paralytic polyneuropathy that affects the peripheral nervous system
26
Describe the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Molecular mimicry B cells create antibodies against the antigens on the triggering pathogen Antibodies match proteins on the peripheral neurones May target proteins on the myelin sheath or the nerve axon itself
27
Describe the epidemology Guillain-Barre syndrome
More common in males > 50 years
28
Describe the causes of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Usually triggered by an infection Gastroenteritis or influenza like illness before onset of neurological symptoms
29
Name 4 risk factors of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Preceding: viral illness bacterial infection mosquito-borne viral infection Hepatitis E infection
30
Describe the clinical feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome
Usually start within 4 weeks of triggering infection Symptoms peak 2-4 weeks - Begin in the feet and progress upwards - Acute, symmetrical, ascending weakness - sensory symptoms - reduced reflexes
31
What are the investigations Guillain-Barre syndrome
Nerve conduction studies Lumbar puncture for CSF
32
What criteria can be used for Guillain-Barre syndrome
Brighton criteria
33
Describe the Brighton criteria
Diagnostic tool - helps identification and monitoring Help distinguish low and high-risk patients
34
How is a clinical diagnosis of Guillain's-Barre syndrome made
Clinical (Brighton criteria) = supporting investigations
35
What is the clinical definition of Guillain's-Barre syndrome
Syndrome characterised by motor difficulty, absence of deep tendon reflexes, Paraesthesias without objective sensory loss and increased CSF albumin with a normal cell count
36
What is the 1st line treatment in Guillain's-Barre syndrome
IV immunoglobulins
37
Describe the management of Guillain's-Barre syndrome
1st line - immunoglobulins Supportive care VTW prophylaxis
38
Describe Guillain's Barre syndrome
Transverse myelitis Myasthenia gravis Botulism Polymyositis Vasculitis neuropathy
39
What is the leading cause of death of Guillain's-Barre syndrome
Pulmonary embolism
40
Describe the prognosis of Guillain's-Barre syndrome
Recovery can take months to years. Can continue regaining function 5 years after acute illness. Either full recovery or minor symptoms. Some left with significant mortality
41
What is the mortality of Guillain's-Barre syndrome
5% Mainly due to respiratory or cardiovascular complications
42
What is the % of people with Guillain's-Barre syndrome who will go on to develop respiratory muscle weakness required ventilation
20-30%
43
Define Parkinson's Disease
Progressive reduction in dopamine in the basal ganglia, leading to disorders of movement
44
Define the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease
Unknown Selective loss of nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra pars compacta Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions (Lewy bodies) and neuritis
45
Parkinson's - What is the most characteristic feature of basal ganglia dysfunction
Bradykinesia
46
Describe the epidemiology of Parkinson's disease
Older age - 70 years Male Gradual onset of symptoms
47
Name the causes of Parkinson's disease
Sporadic Unknown - Genetic predisposition - Environmental factors/exposures
48
Name the 3 risk factors of Parkison's disease
Increasing age History of familial PD in younger-onset disease Mutation in gene encoding glucerebrosidase
49
Describe the clinical signs of Parkinson's disease
Asymmetrical Resting tremor - a tremor worse with rest Rigidity - resisting passive movement Bradykinesia - slowness of movement
50
Describe the presentation of Parkinson's disease
Stooped posture Facial masking Forward tilt Reduced arm swing Shuffling gait
51
Describe Parkinson's-Plus syndrome
Multiple system atrophy Dementia with Lewy bodies
52
Name the investigations Parkinson's disease
Dopaminergic agent trial - improvement of symptoms
53
Describe the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease
History + examination findings
54
Describe the management of Parkinson's disease
No cure Treatment options - Levodopa - COMT inhibitors - Dopamine agonists - Monoamine oxidase B-inhibitors
55
Name the differential diagnosis Parkinson's disease
Essential tremor Multiple system atrophy Dementia with Lewy bodies Corticobasal degeneration Alzheimer's disease with parkinsonism
56
Name the complications of Parkinson's disease
Levodopa-induced dyskinesias Motor fluctuations Dementia Constipation Bladder dysfunction Orthostatic hypotension Sleep disorders Dysphagia
57
Describe the prognosis of Parkinson's disease
Course is progressive Unilateral symptoms become bilateral After 5 years - motor complications develop
58
Define Huntington's Disease
Autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes progressive neurological dysfunction
59
Describe the pathophysiology of Huntington's disease
CAG repeat generates elongated polyglutamine tail of the huntingtin protein. Leads to cleavage and generation of toxic fragments of this abnormal protein Toxic fragments can cross-link Forms aggregates that resist degradation, interfere with normal cell function
60
Describe the epidemiology of Huntington's disease
Symptoms begin aged 30-50 Men and women equally
61
Describe the causes of Huntington's disease
Autosomal dominant Trinucleotide repeat disorder CAG HTT gene mutation of chromosome 5 - encodes for huntingtin (HTT) protein
62
Name of feature of trinucleotide repeat disorders
Successive generations have more repeats in the gene Results in: Earlier age of onset Increased severity of disease
63
Name the risk factors (2) of Huntington's disease
Expansion of CAG repeat in huntingtin gene Family history
64
Name the progression of the clinical features of Huntington's disease
Insidious, progressive worsening of symptoms Typically, begins with cognitive, psychiatric or mood problems, followed by development of movement disorders
65
Name the movement disorder clinical features of Huntington's disease
Chorea Dystonia Rigidity Eye movement disorders Dysarthria Dysphagia
66
Name the investigations of Huntington's disease
No initial tests Genetic testing - CAG repeat testing MRI or CT scan
67
How is the clinical diagnosis of Huntington's disease
Genetic testing (with pre and post-test counselling)
68
Describe the treatment of Huntington's disease
No treatment options for slowing or stopping progression
69
Describe management of Huntington's disease
Genetic counselling MDT Physiotherapy Speech and language therapy Tetrabenazine Antidepressants Advanced directives End-of-life care
70
Name 4 differential diagnosis of Huntington's disease
Tardive dyskinesia DRPLA Neuroacanthocytosis Spinocerebellar ataxia 17
71
Describe the prognosis of Huntington's disease
Progressive condition Life expectancy 10-20 years after onset of symptoms Progresses - more frail and susceptible to illness Death often due to aspiration pneumonia Suicide common
72
Name 4 complications of Huntington's disease
Weight loss Dysphagia Falls Suicide risk
73
Name some key red flags of headaches
Fever, photophobia or neck stiffness Sudden-onset occipital headache Postural, worse on standing, lying or bending over Vomiting History of trauma or cancer Pregnancy
74
Define a migraine
Complex neurological disorder causing episodes or attacks of headache and associated symptoms
75
Describe the pathophysiology of migraines
Results from neurological inflammation of first division trigeminal sensory neurones that innervate the large vessels and meninges in the brain When trigeminal neurones are activated - release substances that cause dilation of meningeal blood vessels, leakage of plasma proteins into surrounding tissue and platelet activation
76
Describe the pathophysiology of Aura in migraines
Waves of excitation spread anteriorly in the cortex followed by a prolonged period of decreased neuronal activity then neuronal recovery Results in activation of nociceptors in adjacent dura and blood vessels Leads to activation of trigeminal sensory nucleus
77
What are the 4 types of migraine headaches
1. Migraine with aura 2.Migraine without aura 3. Silent migraine - migraine with aura without headache 4. Hemiplegic migraine
78
Describe the epidemiology of migraines
Very common Affect women more than men Common among teenagers and young adults
79
What are the causes of migraines
Genetic factors Brain of people who experience migraines = hyperexcitable to a variety of stimuli
80
What are the 5 stages of migraines
1. Premonitory or prodromal stage 2. Aura 3. Headache stage 4. Resolution stage 5. Postdromal or recovery phase
81
Describe the premonitory or prodromal stage of migraines
Can begin several days before the headache Could be yawning, fatigue or mood change
82
Describe the aura stage of a migraine
Lasts up to 60 minutes Can affect vision, sensation or language
83
Describe the headache stage of migraines
Lasts 4-72 hours Main features - unilateral - moderate-severe intensity - pounding or throbbing nature - photophobia - phonophobia - osmophobia - aura - nausea and vomiting
84
Describe the resolution stage of migraines
Headache may fade away or be relieved abruptly by vomiting or sleeping
85
Describe the investigations of a migraine
= clinical diagnosis Headache diary may be useful
86
Name some triggers of migraines
Stress Bright lights Strong smells Certain foods Dehydration Mensuration Disturbed sleep Trauma
87
How is the clinical diagnosis of migraines made
By international classification of headache disorders (ICHD)- 3 criteria for migraines
88
What does the ICHD-3 criteria define a migraine as
At least 5 or more attacks in a lifetime Headache attack lasting 4-72 hours
89
Define a migraine with aura
Having full reversible visual symptoms, sensory symptoms or dysphasic speech disturbance
90
Describe the acute management of migraines
Retreat to dark, quiet room, sleeping Medical - NSAIDs - Paracetamol - Triptans - Antiemetics NO opioids
91
Describe the prophylaxis of migraines
Depends on the frequency and severity of the attacks Usual: - propranolol - amitriptyline - topiramate Other - cognitive behavioural therapies - mindfulness and medication - acupuncture - vitamin B12
92
Name 5 differential diagnosis of migraines
Headache tension Headache cluster Medication-overuse headache Headache after head or neck trauma Subarachnoid haemorrhage
93
Describe a hemiplegic migraine
Key features - hemiplegia - ataxia - impaired consciousness Autosomal dominant or no genetic link Can mimic a stroke/TIA
94
What medication is contraindicated in migraines due to increasing the risk of stroke
Combined pill
95
Describe the prognosis of migraines
Tend to become less frequent and severe or stop altogether with time - particularly after menopause Slight increase in risk - especially with aura
96
Describe the pathophysiology of tension headaches
Not fully understood Similar to migraine - central hypersensitivity Chronic = state of generalised hyperalgesia.
97
Name 5 associations of tension
Stress Depression Alcohol Skipping meals Dehydration
98
Describe the epidemiology of tension headaches
Very common Episodic = most common type of headache Most common between 20-39
99
Describe the causes of tension headaches
Involvement of peripheral factors - pericranial muscles Genetic factors, specific genes = unknown Common trigger = psychological stress
100
Name 5 risk factors of tension headaches
Mental tension Stress Missing meals Fatigue Lack of sleep
101
Name the clinical features of tension headaches
Either episodic or chronic Mild ache or pressure in band-like pattern around head - dull - non-pulsatile - bilateral - pressing/pressure-like pain - pericranial tenderness = common No visual changes Develop gradually
102
Describe the investigations of tension headaches
History + physical examination Headache diaries can help
103
What is the 1st line treatment in tension headaches
Amitriptyline
104
Describe the management of tension headaches
1st line = amitriptyline - reassurance - simple analgesia - non-drug therapies
105
Name the differential diagnosis of tension headaches
Chronic migraine Medicine overuse headache Sphenoid sinusitis Giant cell arteritis Temporomandibular disorder Pituitary tumour
106
Describe the prognosis of tension headaches
Depression, anxiety, poor sleep and stress - potential of poor prognosis
107
What is the difference between tension headaches and migraines
Tension headaches do not have: Significant nausea No vomiting Little or no photophobia or phonophobia Lack of aggravation by routine physical activity
108
What are the 3 cardinal features of the disorder are:
1. Trigeminal disruption of the pain 2. Ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms 3. Circadian/circannual pattern of attacks
109
Describe the pathophysiology of cluster headaches
Physiological reflex arc, the trigeminal autonomic reflex. Increased firing of parasympathetic nerve fibres (trigeminal nerve) innervating facial structures - causes autonomic features seen in an attack
110
What is the typical presentation (epidemiology) of cluster headaches
30-50 year old male Male Smoker
111
Describe the aetiology of cluster headaches
Unknown - potentials: Head trauma Heavy cigarette smoking Heavy alcohol intake
112
Name 5 risk factors of cluster headaches
Male sex Family history Head injury Cigarette smoking Heavy drinking
113
Describe the clinical features of cluster headaches
Severe and unbearable unilateral headaches - usually around the eye Clusters of attacks then disappear for extended periods 'Suicide headache' due to severity
114
What are the associated symptoms of the unilateral cluster headache
Red, swollen and watering eye Pupil constriction (miosis) Eyelid dropping (ptosis) Nasal discharge Facial sweating
115
Describe the investigations of cluster headaches
Brain and pituitary MRI without and with intravenous contrast Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
116
Name 3 triggers of cluster headaches
Alcohol Strong smells Exercise
117
What's the 1st line treatment for cluster headaches
Prophylaxis - verapamil Prevent attacks
118
What is given to cluster headaches during an acute attack
Triptans High flow 100% oxygen
119
What are the differential diagnosis of cluster headaches
Migraine Paroxysmal hemicrania Trigeminal neuralgia Cluster-tic syndrome Angel-closure glaucoma Subarachnoid haemorrhage Giant cell arteritis
120
Define meningitis
Inflammation of the meninges, usually due to an infection
121
Define meningococcal meningitis
When the bacteria infect the meninges and the CSF
122
Define meningococcal septicaemia
When meningococcus bacterial infection is the blood stream. Can cause a non blanching rash
123
What are the causes of meningitis
Bacterial Viral
124
What are the causes of bacterial meningitis
Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumonia Group B streptococcus (neonates) Listeria monocytogenes (neonates)
125
What are the causes of viral meningitis
Enterovirus Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
126
Name the risk factors of bacterial meningitis
Most = young age Winter season Absent/non-functioning spleen Older age > 65 Immunocompromised Incomplete immunisation Cancer Smoking
127
Name the risk factors of viral meningitis
Infants and young children Young adults Older people Summer and autumn Exposure to mosquito or tic vector Unvaccinated for mumps
128
Name the clinical features of meningitis
Fever Neck stiffness Vomiting Headache Photophobia Altered consciousness Seizures Non-blanching rash
129
In what type of meningitis is a non-blanching rash seen
Meningococcal septicaemia
130
Name the investigations of meningitis
Lumbar puncture Viral PCR testing on CSF sample Blood culture Meningococcal PCR Kernig's test Brudzinski's test
131
Describe a lumbar puncture
Insert needle into lower back CSF at L3-4 or L4-5 intervertebral space Samples sent for bacterial culture, viral PCR, cell count, protein and glucose Blood glucose sent at same time
132
What two tests look for meningeal infection
Kernig's test Brudzinski's test
133
Describe Kernig's test
Lay patient on back, flex one hip and knee to 90 degrees Slowly straighten the knee while keeping hip flexed at 90 Created slight stretch in the meninges If meningitis = produce spinal pain or resistance to movement
134
Describe the Brudzinski's test
Lie patient flat on back, gently using hands to life head and neck of bed, flexing chin to chest Positive test = causes patient to flex their hips and knees involuntary
135
Describe the management of meningitis
Blood cultures and lumbar puncture before antibiotics Aciclovir - viral meningitis (HSV, VZV) Bacterial - steroids - benzylpenicillin
136
What medication is used in viral meningitis
Aciclovir
137
What medication is used in bacterial meningitis
Steroids Benzylpenicillin
138
Describe post exposure prophylaxis of meningitis
Significant exposure to meningococcal infection puts contacts at risk Highest risk within 7 days of onset of illness Single dose = ciprofloxacin
139
Name the differential diagnosis of meningitis
Bacterial/viral Encephalitis Encephalopathy Drug induced meningitis TB meningitis
140
141
Name complications of meningitis
Hearing loss - key Seizure and epilepsy Cognitive impairment Memory loss Focal neurological defects
142
Define trigeminal neuralgia
Facial pain syndrome in the distribution of 1 or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve
143
What is the main presentation of trigeminal neuralgia
Cause intense facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve 90% cases are unilateral
144
What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve
Ophthalmic nerve (V1) Maxillary (V2) Mandibular (V3)
145
In what condition is trigeminal neuralgia common in
Multiple sclerosis
146
Describe the pathophysiology of trigeminal nerve neuralgia
Focal demyelination and the resultant conduction aberrations
147
Name the causes of trigeminal neuralgia
Majority of patients - focal compression of the trigeminal nerve root at the entry zone by an aberrant vascular loop Multiple sclerosis - demyelinating plaques in the pons that encompass the root entry zone of the trigeminal nerve
148
Name 2 risk factors of trigeminal neuralgia
Increased age Multiple sclerosis
149
Name the clinical features of trigeminal neuralgia
Pain comes on suddenly can last seconds to hours Electricity like Shooting Stabbing Burning pain
150
Name 4 things in which trigeminal neuralgia can be triggered by
Touch Eating Shaving Cold
151
How is the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia made
Clinical + history of paroxysms of sharp, stabbing, intense pain lasting up to 2 minutes
152
What is the 1st line management in trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
153
Describe the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia
1st line = carbamazepine Medical therapies Vascular decompression Ablative decompression Surgical interventions
154
What are the differential diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia
Dental caries/fractures Mandibular osteomyelitis Migraine Temporomandibular joint syndrome Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
155
Define Alzheimer's disease
Chronic neurodegenerative disease with an insidious onset and progressive but slow decline
156
What does Alzheimer's often co exist with
Vascular dementia
157
Describe the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease
Reduced brain weight Cortical atrophy in temporal, frontal and partial area Changes in senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles seen Beta-amyloid induced injury to brain cells.
158
What is a useful indicator for the severity of Alzheimer's disease and its cognitive incline
Abundance of tangles is roughly proportional to the severity of clinical disease and cognitive decline
159
Name the causes of Alzheimer's dementia
Amyloid plaques - clumps of beta-amyloid Neurofibrillary tangles
160
What are the risk factors of Alzheimer's disease
Advanced age Family history Genetics Down's syndrome Cerebrovascular disease Lifestyle factors and medications Less than secondary school education
161
What are the hallmark symptoms of Alzheimer's disease
Memory loss Impairment of daily activities Neurobehavioral abnormalities
162
Name the investigations for Alzheimer's disease
Bedside cognitive testing MRI or CT Tests to rule out other conditions
163
What is the management of Alzheimer's disease
Assess and manage other long-term conditions Possible referral AChE inhibitors Reduce polypharmacy
164
Name some possible complications of Alzheimer's disease
Pneumonia Institutionalisation UTI Falls and their complications Weight loss Elder abuse
165
Define frontotemporal dementia
Primary neurodegenerative brain disease in adults > 65 years of age. Spectrum compromises a heterogenous group of conditions that are heritable in some cases
166
Describe the pathophysiology of frontotemporal dementia
Frontal lobar degeneration - neural loss, gliosis and microvascular changes of frontal lobes, anterior temporal lobes, anterior cingulate cortex and insular cortex Several subtypes
167
How are the subtypes of frontotemporal dementia labelled
According to main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distributions
168
Describe the epidemiology of frontotemporal dementia
Average age of onset 45-65 years Peak prevalence 7th decade Affects both sexes equally Average life expectancy post diagnosis = 8 years
169
Describe the causes of frontotemporal dementia
Neuron damage and death occurring in frontal and temporal lobes Atrophy - due to deposition of abnormal proteins (tau protein) Genetic component 1/4 cases
170
Name 3 risk factors of frontotemporal dementia
Mutations in: MAPT gene CRN gene C9orf72 gene
171
What are the 3 clinical pictures of frontotemporal dementia
Behavioural presentation Semantic presentation Non fluent presentation
172
Name the investigations of frontotemporal dementia
Formal cognitive testing Imaging - brain MRI or CT
173
Describe the management of frontotemporal dementia
No cure Care plan Medicine - antidepressants - antipsychotics Other support End of life plans
174
Name 5 differential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia
Other forms of dementia Bipolar disorder Major depression OCD Primary brain tumour Hyperthyroidism
175
Describe the prognosis of frontotemporal dementia
Shorter survival and faster rates of cognitive and functional decline that patients with Alzheimer's disease
176
Define lewy body dementia
Neurodegenerative disorder with parkinsonism, progressive cognitive decline, prominent executive dysfunction, behavioural and sleep disturbances and visuospatial impairment
177
Describe the pathophysiology of lewy body dementia
Accumulation of lewy bodies at vulnerable sites Lewy bodies - composed of protein alpha-synuclein - cytoplasmic protein associated with synaptic vesicles Normal function of this protein - role in transportation of synaptic vesicles and synaptic plasticity Distribution linked to clinical symptoms
178
Describe the epidemiology of lew body dementia
> 50 Affects men slightly more than women Rapid progression Death 7 years post diagnosis
179
Name the aetiology of Lewy body dementia
Spherical lewy proteins (alpha-synuclein) deposited in the brain Toxic protein aggregation Abnormal phosphorylation
180
Describe the difference between the presence or lewy bodies in Parkinson's vs. lewy body dementia
Parkinson's = deposited in substantia nigra Lewy body dementia = more widespread
181
What is the risk factor of Lew body dementia
Older age
182
Name 4 clinical features of Lewy body dementia
Cognitive fluctuations Recurrent visual hallucinations Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behaviour disorder + one or more spontaneous cardinal motor features of Parkinsonism.
183
Name the investigations in Lewy body dementia
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone Serum vitamin B12 Ct head MRI head
184
What is the clinical diagnosis of lewy body dementia
Clinical + confirmed pathologically presence of Lewy bodies
185
Describe the management of Lewy bodies
1st line pharmacological = cholinesterase inhibitors Other medications Main goal = improve or stabilise cognition, behaviour, and activities of family living and to maintain safety
186
What is the 1st line pharmacological treatment in Lewy body dementia
Cholinesterase inhibitors
187
Name 5 differential diagnosis for Lewy body dementia
Alzheimer's disease Parkinson's disease Frontotemporal dementia Vascular dementia Prion disorders
188
Describe the prognosis of Lewy body dementia
Progressive Treatment = symptomatic Mean survival 5 years
189
Define vascular dementia
Chronic progressive disease of the brain characterised by a chronic progressive multifaceted impairment of cognitive function
190
Describe the pathophysiology of infarction causing vascular dementia
Large - affect individual regions, will exhaust the brain's compensatory mechanisms and lead to dementia Small - in strategic areas
191
Describe the pathophysiology of leukoaraiosis as a cause of vascular dementia
Causes white matter pallor to naked eye Loss of axons, myelin and oligodendrocytes Perivascular tissue loss and dilation of perivascular spaces Damage to capillaries with breakdown of the BBB and protein leakage
192
Describe the pathophysiology of haemorrhage as a cause of vascular dementia
Large parenchymal haemorrhages centred in basal ganglia (often due to hypertension) Multiple haemorrhages occur in cortex and white matter Angioplasty due to amyloid beta protein
193
Describe mixed dementia
Alzheimer's dementia + vascular dementia Act synergistically with each other Co-exist - affected to greater degree compared to only one pathology
194
Describe the epidemiology of vascular dementia
More common in males Prevalence increases in those who have had a stroke
195
Describe the aetiology of vascular dementia
Most common = cerebrovascular infarcts Infarction Leukoriosis Haemorrhage
196
Name the risk factors of vascular dementia
Age > 60 Obesity Hypertension - major Cigarette smoking Vascular risk factors
197
Describe the clinical features of vascular dementia
Progressive in step wise fashion Single infarct vascular disease - cognitive impairment following an event Motor and mood changes Mood disturbances
198
Name the investigations of vascular dementia
FBC Erythrocyte sedimentation rate Blood glucose level Renal and liver function tests Vitamin B12 Folate Thyroid function CT or MRI brain ECG
199
Describe the management of vascular dementia
Early aggressive treatment of vascular risk factors Prevention of further cerebrovascular disease Supportive care Cholinesterase inhibitors Antihypertensives SSRIs Cognitive stimulation therapy Supportive care End of life care
200
Name 5 differential diagnosis of Vascular dementia
Depression Alzheimer's disease Mild cognitive impairment Other forms of dementia Primary brain tumour
201
Name 4 complications of vascular dementia
Depression Aggression Falls Stroke
202
Name the prognosis of vascular dementia
Life expectancy significantly shortened - similar to AD
203
Define Amaurosis Fugax
Describes transient monocular vision loss because of ischemia to retina, choroid or optic nerve (retinal transient ischaemic attack)
204
Name the causes of amaurosis fugax
Due to narrowing (stenosis) or occlusion of the internal carotid artery or the central retinal artery Arterial embolus (atherosclerotic emboli) Thrombotic vascular events Inflammation of optic nerve Giant cell arteritis Diabetes, smoking, cocaine Hypertension - old age
205
Describe the pathophysiology of an artherosclerotic emboli causing amaurosis fugax
Usually in retinal artery from ipsilateral carotid artery disease Accumulation of fat detaches from the inner lining of an artery and blocks blood flow elsewhere
206
Name the risk factors of amaurosis fugax
> 50 Vascular risk factors - hypertension - hypercholesterolemia - smoking - previous history TIA/stroke
207
Name the clinical features of amaurosis fugax
Typical presentation - transient vision loss in one or both eyes occurring abruptly Maximum severity within seconds and lasts seconds - followed by full visual recovery
208
Describe the investigations of amaurosis fugax
Opthalamogical examination - typically normal Inflammatory markers (exclude) Carotid artery imaging Cardiac investigations
209
Describe the management of amaurosis fugax
Aspirin Urgent referral
210
Describe secondary prevention in amaurosis fugax
After diagnosis Statin therapy Antiplatelet therapy Optimising blood pressure control
211
Name 6 differential diagnosis of amaurosis fugax
Central retinal artery/vein occlusion Giant cell arteritis Multiple sclerosis Papilledema Epilepsy Sickle cell anaemia
212
Name the complications of amaurosis fugax
Ischaemic stroke - 2% Death Adverse cardiac events
213
Name the prognosis of amaurosis fugax
Untreated = major risk of stroke Carotid endarterectomy - good prognosis
214
Define cauda equina
Caused by compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord
215
Describe the emergency of cauda equina
Requires emergency decompression surgery to prevent permanent neurological dysfunction
216
Describe the pathophysiology of cauda equina
Collection of nerve roots that travel through the spinal canal after the spinal cord terminates around L2/3. Nerve roots exit either side of their column at their vertebral level L3-5, S1-5 and Co. These nerves are compressed
217
What nerves are supplied by the cauda equina
Sensation to the lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum Motor innervation to the lower limbs, and the anal and urethral sphincters Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
218
Name the causes of cauda equina
Herniated disc = most common Tumours - metastasis Spondylolisthesis Abscess - infection Trauma
219
Name 5 risk factors of cauda equina
Lumbar disc herniation Spinal trauma Spinal surgery Spinal epidural abscess Anticoagulation therapy
220
Describe the clinical features of cauda equina
Presents LMN signs - reduced tone and reflexes Bladder dysfunction - always Other symptoms
221
Why does cauda equina present with LMN signs
Nerves being compressed are LMN that have already exited the spinal cord
222
Name 2 investigations of cauda equina
MRI - ASAP CT lumbar spine
223
Describe the management of cauda equina
Lumbar decompression surgery Increases chance of regaining function
224
How successful is lumbar decompression surgery in cauda equina
May still be left with bladder, bowel, sexual dysfunction, leg weakness and sensory impairment
225
Describe the metastatic spinal cord compression as a differential diagnosis of cauda equina
Metastatic lesion compresses the spinal cord Presents similar to cauda equina Will be UMN signs - metastatic spinal cord compression is higher
226
Name the red flags of cauda equina
Saddle anaesthesia Loss of sensation in the bladder and rectum Faecal incontinence Bilateral sciatica Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs Reduced anal tone on PR examination
227
What is the prognosis of cauda equina
Even with immediate decompression - patients still may not regain full function
228
Define depression
Disorder that causes persistent feelings of low mood, low energy, and reduced interest
229
Describe the causes of depression
Multifactorial - biological, psychological, social Factors can be: predisposing, precipitating, perpetuating Often triggered by life events
230
Name 3 protective features of depression
Current employment Good social support Marital status being married
231
What are the risk factors for depression
Not a single identifiable cause or trigger for cases of depression Biological factors Psychological factors Social factors
232
What are the 3 core symptoms of depression
1. Low mood 2. Anhedonia - low interest or pleasure in most activities of the day 3. Lack of energy - anergia
233
Describe the investigation of depression
Screening questions Investigations for exclude physical/organic causes
234
How is depression diagnosed clinically
ICD-10/11 criteria
235
Describe the management of depression Mild vs. Moderate/severe
Mild depression = watchful waiting + advice about healthy habits. Follow up 2 weeks Severe depression = 1st line = antidepressant therapy + high-level psychosocial interventions Electroconclusive therapy
236
What are 5 psychiatric differentials of depression
Bipolar affective disorder Premenstrual dysphoric disorder Bereavement Anxiety disorders Alcohol-use disorders
237
Name 3 organic illness differentials of depression
Hypothyroidism Cushing's disease or syndrome Vitamin B12 deficiency
238
Name the complications of depression
Suicide risk - 4x higher Substance/alcohol misuse Recurrence of depressive episodes Reduced quality of life reduction Antidepressant side effects
239
What's the prognosis of depression
Typically - lasts 3-6 months Most people recover within 12 months Illness episodic Feel well in-between acute depressive episodes
240
Define motor neurone disease
Encompasses a variety of specific diseases affecting motor nerves
241
What is the most common form of motor neurone disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
242
Describe the pathophysiology of motor neurone disease
Involves degeneration of both the upper and lower motor neurones Sensory neurones = spared
243
Describe the presentation of motor neurone disease
Late middle-aged e.g. 60 Man Possibly affected relative
244
Name the causes of motor neurones disease
Exact cause = unclear Genetic links Family history 10-15% Increased risk with smoking, exposure to heavy metals and certain pesticides
245
Name the risk factors of motor neurone disease
Genetic factors Lifestyle and environment - mechanical and/or electrical trauma - military service - high levels of exercise - exposure to agricultural chemicals - exposure to variety of heavy metals
246
Name the clinical features of motor neurone disease
Insidious, progressive weakness of muscles - first noticed in upper limbs Affects limbs, trunk, face and speech May be increased when exercising Clumsiness Slurred speech
247
What are the signs of lower motor neurone disease
Muscle wasting Reduced tone Fasciculations Reduced reflexes
248
What are the signs of upper motor neurone disease
Increased tone or spasticity Brisk reflexes Upgoing plantar reflexes
249
Name the investigations of motor neurone disease
Clinical diagnosis + examination Electrophysiological studies
250
Describe the management of motor neurone disease
No effective management for halting or reversing the progression of the disease Riuzole Non-invasive ventilation Supporting person and their family
251
What medication can slow progression of ALS and extend survival by several months
Riluzole
252
What symptom would suggest an alternative diagnosis of motor neurone disease
Affect on sensory neurones
253
Name 5 differential diagnosis of ALS
Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy and radiculopathy Multifocal motor neuropathy Inclusion body myositis Myasthenia gravis Progressive muscular atrophy
254
What is the prognosis of motor neurone disease
Progressive - eventually fatal Tend to due of respiratory failure or pneumonia
255
Define myasthenia gravis
Chronic autoimmune disorder of the post-synaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle
256
Describe the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis
Circulating antibodies against the nicotinic receptor or associated protein impair neuromuscular transmission
257
Describe the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis
Affects men and women at different ages Women under 40 Men over 60
258
What are the antibodies which are associated with myasthenia gravis
Acetylcholine receptor antibodies Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies Low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4) antibodies
259
What is the cause of myasthenia gravis
Antibodies present at the neuromuscular junction
260
Describe the role of MuSK and LRP4 in the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis
Important in creation and organisation of Ach receptor Destruction of these proteins leads to inadequate Ach receptors
261
Name the risk factors of myasthenia gravis
Thymomas Family history of autoimmune disorders Genetic markers Cancer-targeted therapy
262
Describe thymomas in myasthenia gravis
Thymus gland tumours 10-20% of patients have thymoma 30% patients with thymoma will develop mg
263
Describe the clinical features of myasthenia gravis
From mild to life-threatening severe Weakness that worsens with muscle use and improves with rest Symptoms better in morning, worse at end of day Affect proximal muscles of the limbs and small muscles of the head and neck
264
Describe the examination investigations of myasthenia gravis
Examination - fatigue in muscles Look for thymectomy scar Forced vital capacity
265
Describe the antibody investigations of myasthenia gravis
AChR antibodies - around 85% MuSK antibodies - < 10% LRP4 antibodies - < 5%
266
Describe the imaging investigation of myasthenia gravis
CT or MRI of thymus gland Edrophonium test - helpful for diagnosis
267
Describe the examination of looking for fatigue in muscles in myasthenia gravis
Repeated blinking will exacerbate ptosis Prolonged upward gazing will exacerbate diplopia Repeated abduction of one arm 20x will result in unilateral weakness
268
Describe the edrophonium test of myasthenia gravis
Given IV edrophonium chloride Edrophonium blocks the enzymes which break down Ach at the neuromuscular junction Result = level of Ach at the neuromuscular junction rises - temporarily relieves the weakness Suggests diagnosis
269
Describe the management of myasthenia gravis
Pyridostigmine Immunosuppression Thymectomy (even if do not have thymoma) Rituximab (last resort)
270
Name 4 differential diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome Botulism Penicillamine-induced myasthenia gravis Primary myopathies
271
Describe myasthenic crisis as a complication of myasthenia gravis
Potentially life-threatening Can cause acute worsening symptoms Respiratory muscle weakness - require non invasive ventilation or mechanical Treatment = IV immunoglobulin and plasmapheresis
272
Name 5 complications of Myasthenia gravis
Respiratory failure Impaired swallowing Acute aspiration Secondary pneumonia Cardiac complications
273
Where are upper motor neurone lesions found
CNS - brain and spinal cord
274
Where are lower motor neurone lesions found
Anywhere from the anterior horn cell to the muscle
275
Name 5 signs of an upper motor neurone lesion
Disuse atrophy or contractures Increased tone (spasticity/rigidity) +/- ankle clonus Pyramidal pattern of weakness Hyperreflexia Babinski sign
276
Describe the Babinski sign
Occurs when stimulation of the lateral plantar aspect of the foot leads to extension
277
Name 6 signs in lower motor neurone lesions
Marked atrophy Fasciculations Reduced tone Variable patterns of weakness Reduced or absent reflexes Down going plantars or absent response
278
Why does UMN lesions cause their associated symptoms
Loss of inhibitory tone in muscles leads to constant contraction of muscles
279
Why does LMN lesions cause their related symptoms
Suppression by CNS, but the LMNs are damaged or lost, so there is nothing to tell the muscles to contract
280
Define syncope
Describe the event of temporarily losing consciousness due to a disruption of blood flow to the brain - often leading to a fall
281
Describe two other names for syncope
Vasovagal episodes Fainting
282
Describe the pathophysiology of syncope
Caused be a problem with the autonomic nervous system regulating blood flow to the brain When vagus nerve received a strong stimulus it can stimulate PNS PNS activation contracts SNS - blood vessels constricted As blood vessels delivering blood to the brain relax = hypoperfusion of brain tissue Leading to 'faint'
283
Name 4 causes of primary syncope
Dehydration Missed meals Extended standing in a warm environment A vasovagal response to a stimulus
284
Name 6 causes of secondary syncope
Hypoglycaemia Dehydration Anaemia Infection Anaphylaxis Arrythmias
285
What is primary syncope
Simply fainting
286
What is secondary syncope
Loss of consciousness due to an underlying cause
287
What are the possible categories of causes of syncope
Cardiac Non cardiac Unknown Causes 1/3 idiopathic aetiology
288
Describe the clinical features of syncope
Prodrome - hot and clammy - sweaty - heavy - dizzy or lightheaded - vision going blurry or dark - headache
289
What is recommended when someone is experiencing prodromal symptoms (syncope)
Sit or lie down Have some water Have something to eat Wait till feel better
290
Describe the investigations in syncope
Examination ECG 24-hour ECG Echocardiograms Bloods
291
Describe the management of syncope
Reassurance + simple advice Avoid dehydration, missing meals, standing still for long periods of time.
292
What are the 6 differential diagnosis of syncope
Seizure Acute coronary syndrome Ventricular arrythmias Atrioventricular block Acute atrial fibrillation Congestive heart failure
293
Define encephalitis
Inflammation of the brain parenchyma associated with neurological dysfunction (altered state of consciousness or focal neurological signs).
294
Describe the pathophysiology of viral encephalitis
Virus initially gains entry and replicates in local or regional tissue. Dissemination to the CNS occurs by haematogenous routes or via retrograde axonal transport
295
Describe the pathophysiology of autoimmune encephalitis
Result form antibodies directed against normal brain components Play a role in anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor encephalitis and other paraneoplastic syndromes
296
Describe the epidemiology of encephalitis
Bimodal age pattern <1 and > 65 Seasonal and geographical variations - viral
297
What is the main cause of encephalitis
Virus - Herpes virus - Ticks and mosquitos as vectors - HIV
298
What are the causes of encephalitis
Virus Bacterial Fungal Parasitic Para-infectious Prion diseases Paraneoplastic syndromes
299
What are the risk factors of encephalitis
Age <1 or > 65 Immunodefiency Post-infection Blood/body fluid exposures Organ transplantation Animal or insect bites Location Season Swimming or diving in warm freshwater
300
Describe the clinical features of encephalitis
Often - mild flu like symptoms Can be more severe
301
What are the clinical features of severe encephalitis
Problems with speech and hearing Double vision Hallucinations Personality changes Loss of consciousness/sensation Muscle weakness Partial paralysis Impaired judgement Seizures Memory loss
302
Describe the investigations of encephalitis
Medical (+ neurological) exam + history Lab screening - blood, urine an bodily secretions Lumbar puncture Brain imaging
303
Describe the management of viral encephalitis
Antivirals - acyclovir and ganciclovir
304
Describe the management of autoimmune encephalitis
Immunosuppressants Steroids
305
Describe the general management of encephalitis
Specific for the cause Anticonvulsants Corticosteroids Artificial respiration Cognitive rehabilitation Physical speech Occupational therapy
306
Name 6 differential diagnosis of encephalitis
Viral meningitis Encephalopathy - toxic/metabolic Status epilepticus CNS vasculitis Confusional migraine with pleocytosis Malignant hypertension
307
Name 8 complications of encephalitis
Hearing and/or speech loss Blindness Permeant brain and nerve damage Behavioural changes Cognitive disabilities Lack of muscle control Seizures Memory loss
308
Describe the prognosis of encephalitis
May need long term therapy, medication and supportive care Mortality and morbidity vary depending on aetiology
309
What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis
Cryptococcus neoformans
310
What fungal pathogens are able to cause meningitis
All major fungal pathogens have capacity to cause meningitis Rapid aetiological diagnosis needed for antifungal therapy
311
Name 5 risk factors of fungal meningitis
HIV infection Corticosteroid use Underlying chronic disease Exposure to distributed soil, chicken guano or bat caves Neurosurgery
312
What would be seen on a lumbar puncture of fungal meningitis
Lymphocytic pleocytosis Elevated protein Low glucose
313
Describe what would be seen on a lumbar puncture of bacterial meningitis
Cloudy Protein - high Glucose - low High neutrophils Culture = bacterial
314
What would a lumbar puncture of viral meningitis show
Clear Protein would be mildly raised or normal Glucose - normal High lymphocytes Culture - negative
315
What would be the investigations of fungal meningitis
Fungal blood cultures - 3 sets Serum cryptococcal antigen test Serum + urine histoplasma antigen
316
Describe the treatment of fungal meningitis
Aggressive therapy with antifungal agents Coccidoidal meningitis requires lifelong therapies
317
Describe the prognosis of fungal meningitis
Poor prognosis with HIV-associated Mortality of non-HIV is associated with chronic renal failure, liver failure or haematological malignancy Mortality rates remain high
318
Define Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Autoimmune condition affecting the neuromuscular junction (similar to myasthenia gravis)
319
Describe the pathophysiology of Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels Antibodies may be produced in response to small-cell lung cancer cells that express voltage-gated calcium channels Target and damage these channels in the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction = less Ach released into the synapse = weaker signal = reduced muscle contraction
320
Describe the causes of Lambert Eaton syndrome
50% paraneoplastic syndrome - small cell lung cancer Primary autoimmune disorder (usually autoimmune thyroid disease)
321
Describe the epidemiology of Lambert Eaton Syndrome
40% underlying cancer Median age onset 60s More frequent in males Underlying cancer = bimodal pattern Female < 45 yrs Male > 60 yrs
322
Name 3 clinical features of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Proximal muscle weakness Autonomic dysfunction Reduced or absent tendon reflexes
323
Name 4 risk factors of Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Underlying small cell lung cancer or other malignancy Co-existing autoimmune disorder Cigarette smoking Family history of autoimmune disease
324
Describe the difference between Myasthenia gravis and Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Lambert Eaton syndrome = reverse Reflexes may be absent in a rested patient but present when testing immediately after maximal muscle contraction
325
Name the investigations of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Nerve conduction studies Low frequency repetitive nerve stimulation Chest CT (cancer) Serology Thyroid-stimulating hormone
326
Describe the first line management of Lambert Eaton syndrome
1st line - amifampridine
327
Describe the management of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Exclude underlying malignancies Amifampridine Other options - pyridostigmine - immunosuppressants - IV immunoglobulins - Plasmapheresis
328
Name 5 differential diagnosis of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Botulism Myasthenia gravis Myopathy Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy Guillain-Barre syndrome
329
Name 2 complications of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Osteoporosis Other corticosteroid-related adverse effects
330
Describe the prognosis of Lambert Eaton syndrome
Determined by presence and type of underlying cancer/autoimmune disease, the severity and distribution of weakness Weakness improves with cancer treatment
331
What are the types of primary brain tumours
Meninges = meningioma Sellar region = craniopharyngioma Germ cell tumours Cranial nerves - schwannoma Hematopoietic - primary CNS lymphoma
332
Name 6 secondary brain tumours
Lung Breast Colorectal Testicular Renal cell Malignant melanoma
333
What is the most common type of primary brain tumour
Glioma
334
Describe a glioma
Tumour of glial cell - astrocytes/oligodendrocytes/ependymal cells
335
How are primary brain tumours classified
WHO grading system 1- 2 = low 3- 4 = high
336
Describe grade 2 gliomas
Slow growing but will undergo anaplastic transformation
337
Describe the epidemiology of primary brain tumours
55% malignant 9th commonest cancer Commonest cause in men < 45, women < 35 Common differential diagnosis
338
Describe the causes of primary brain tumours
Majority no cause Ionising radiation to the brain 5% family history Immunosuppression (CNS lymphoma)
339
Name 4 risk factors of primary brain tumours
Age Overweight and obesity Medical radiation - ionising radiation Family history
340
Name the possible clinical features of a primary brain tumour
Headache Seizures Focal neurological symptoms Other non-focal symptoms - personality change/behaviour - memory disturbance - confusion
341
Name the signs of primary brain tumours
Papilledema Focal neurological deficit - hemiparesis - hemisensory loss - visual field defect - dysphasia
342
Describe a headache as a symptom as a primary brain tumour
Woken by headache, worse in the morning and lying down Exacerbated by coughing, sneezing and drowsiness
343
When would a headache be a possible red flag of a primary brain tumour
Headache PLUS Aged > 50 New/changed headache Previous history of cancer
344
What are the clinical features of a low grade primary brain tumour
Typically present with seizures Can be incidental finding
345
What are the clinical features of a high grade primary brain tumour
Rapidly progressive neurological deficit Symptoms of raised intracranial pressure
346
Describe the investigations of primary brain tumours
CT - with contrast MRI - better for pituitary lesions Biopsy/surgery
347
Describe the management of high grade glioma
No cure Steroids Surgery Radiotherapy Chemotherapy
348
Describe the prognosis of high grade glioma
6 months no treatment 18 months with
349
Describe the management of low grade glioma
Surgery - early resection Radiotherapy Chemotherapy
350
Describe the prognosis of low grade glioma
Median survival 10 years
351
Is the treatment of glioma curative
No - except grade 1
352
Name 6 differential diagnosis of gliomas
Brain metastasis Brain abscess Multiple sclerosis Necrosis Acute stroke Encephalitis
353
What features of a headache would result in an urgent referral for primary brain tumours
Features of raised intracranial pressure Other - new onset seizures - rapidly progressive focal neurology - past history of other cancer
354
Define Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease
Inherited disease that affects the peripheral and sensory neurones
355
Describe the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease
Genetic mutations primarily affect the Schwann cell and myelin leads to demyelinating CMT Those affecting axons lead to axonal CMT
356
Name the causes of Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease
Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive X-linked Heterogenous condition = most common
357
Name the risk factor of Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease
Family history
358
Describe the epidemiology of Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease
Symptoms start before the age of 10 Can be delayed until after 40
359
Name the clinical features of Charcot Marie Tooth Disease that will always be present in patients
High foot arches - pev cavus Distal muscle wasting Lower leg weakness Weakness in the hands Reduced tendon reflexes Reduced muscle tone Peripheral sensory loss
360
What is a characteristic feature of Charcot Marie Tooth
Peripheral neuropathy Reduced sensory and motor function in peripheral nerves, typically affecting the feet and hands
361
Name the possible causes of Peripheral neuropathy
Charcot Marie Tooth syndrome ABCDE Alcohol B12 deficiency Cancer and chronic kidney disease Diabetes and drugs Every vasculitis
362
Name the investigations of Charcot Marie Tooth disease
Nerve conduction studies Genetic testing
363
Describe the management of Charcot Marie Tooth Disease
No cure or treatment to stop from progressing Supportive management
364
Name 5 differential diagnosis of Charcot Marie Tooth Disease
Diabetes neuropathy Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy Acquired peripheral neuropathy Hereditary spastic paraplegia Spinocerebellar degeneration
365
Name 2 complications of Charcot Marie Tooth Disease
Osteoarthritis Pain
366
Describe the prognosis of Charcot Marie Tooth Disease
Progressive condition Symptoms do not remit - worsen overtime No affective treatment or cure
367
Define muscular dystrophy
Umbrella term for genetic conditions that cause gradual weakening and wasting of muscles
368
What is the most common and most rapidly progressive muscular dystrophy
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
369
What gender does Duchenne's Muscular dystrophy usually only affects
Boys
370
What type of inheritance pattern is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
X-linked recessive condition
371
Describe the pathophysiology of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Defective gene for dystrophin on the X-chromosome Dystrophin = protein that helps hold muscles together on the cellular level Absence results in ongoing cell membrane depolarisation Degeneration is faster than regeneration - muscle fibres undergo necrosis Muscle fibres are replaced by adipose and connective tissue = muscle progressively weaken
372
Name 2 risk factors of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Family history Male sex
373
Describe the clinical presentation of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Boys Present at 3-5 years Weakness in the muscles around their pelvis Weakness = progressive, eventually all muscles will be affected
374
Name 7 signs of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Delayed motor milestones Frequent falls Abnormal gait Muscle Pain Calf hypertrophy Speech and language delay Difficulty jumping, running, climbing steps and rising from the floor
375
Name the investigations for Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Serum creatinine kinase Genetic testing (Xp21 mutation) Gower's sign
376
Describe the Gower's sign
Shows proximal muscle weakness To stand up from lying position will have to get onto hands and knees, push their hips and backwards like a downward dog pose
377
How is Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy diagnosed
Genetic testing
378
Describe the management of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Oral steroids Creatinine supplementation Genetic trials Supportive treatment
379
What is the aim of management in Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Allowing the person to have highest quality of life for the longest time possible
380
Name 2 differential diagnosis of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Other muscular dystrophies Polymyositis Static encephalopathies - cerebral palsy
381
Describe the prognosis of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Most patients lose ability to walk at 12 years Require ventilation support by 20 Life expectancy 25-35 years - due to cardiac and respiratory complications
382
Name the complications of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
Respiratory failure Loss of mobility Osteoporosis Weight loss/malnutrition Sexual dysfunction Impaired growth Delayed puberty Constipation
383
Define Brown-Sequard Syndrome
Occurs due to damage to one lateral side of the spinal cord and most commonly occurs in the cervical region Incomplete spinal injury
384
Describe the pathophysiology of Brown-Sequard syndrome
Partial hemi section Often includes the nerve tracts lying along the path of the injured area involved
385
Name the causes of Brown's Sequard syndrome
Trauma Tumour Inadequate or blocked blood flow through a blood vessel to part of the body Infectious disease e.g. TB Inflammatory disease e.g. multiple sclerosis
386
Describe the clinical presentation of Brown's Sequard syndrome (thoracic spinal cord hemi section)
Ipsilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion Ipsilateral loss of fine touch, proprioception and vibration sense Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
387
Damage to which pathway would cause ipsilateral loss of touch, vibration and proprioception
DCML pathway
388
Damage to which pathway would cause contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
Anterolateral system
389
Describe the investigations of Brown's Sequard syndrome
Detailed history Examination Lab tests Diagnostic testing - MRI
390
Describe the first line management of Brown's Sequard syndrome
High-dose steroids
391
Describe the management of Brown's Sequard syndrome
High dose steroids Perioperative prophylactic antibiotics Address underlying cause
392
Name the 5 differential diagnosis
Stroke Tumour or cysts Spinal infection Spinal cord tumour, primary or metastatic Spinal cord herniation
393
What the prognosis of Brown's Sequard syndrome
Varies on cause Potential for significant recovery is strong (50%) Take up to 2 years for neurological recovery
394
Name 4 differential diagnosis of Brown's Sequard syndrome
Hypotension or spinal shock Depression Pulmonary embolism Infections - UTI, lungs
395
Name the function of the olfactory nerve (I)
Special visceral afferent fibres for the sense of smell Passes through the cribriform plate of the skull
396
Name the possible problem and signs of an the olfactory nerve lesion
Trauma, tumour Decreased ability to smell
397
Name the functions of the optic nerve (II)
Special somatic afferent fibres for vision Afferent limb for pupillary light reflex Passes through the optic canal of the skull
398
Name the possible problem and sign of the optic nerve (II)
Trauma, tumour (pituitary adenomas and craniopharyngioma), MS, stroke Blindness, visual field defect
399
Name the function of the oculomotor nerve (III)
General somatic efferent and general visceral efferent fibres to the extraocular muscles and pupillary constrictor muscles Efferent limb for the pupillary light reflex
400
What muscles do the oculomotor nerve innervate
Levator palpebrae superiors Inferior oblique Superior, medial and inferior recti
401
Where does the oculomotor nerve travel
Passes through the superior orbital fissure of the skull
402
Name the function and sign of an oculomotor nerve lesion
Diabetes, increased intra-cranial pressure CN III causes a 'down and out' eye Dilated pupils Ptosis
403
Name the function of the trochlear nerve (IV)
Provides general somatic efferent to the extraocular superior oblique muscles Depresses and abducts the eye Passes through the superior orbital fissure.
404
What is the possible problem and sign of the trochlear nerve
Trauma Diplopia
405
Name the 3 functions of the trigeminal nerve (V)
3 sensory nuclei 1. Mesencephalic - proprioception 2. Principal - light touch and discrimination 3. Spinal - pain and temperature, crude touch
406
Describe the possible problem and sign of a trigeminal nerve lesion
Sensory - idiopathic, trauma, inguinal nerve damage Motor - bulbar palsy No signs - sensory deficit on testing May have decreased facial sensation
407
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve - ophthalmic (V1)
General somatic afferent to above the lower eyelid
408
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve (V) maxillary V2
General somatic afferent of the lower eyelid to the upper lip
409
What is the function of the trigeminal (V) nerve mandibular branch (V3)
General somatic afferent and special visceral efferent to below the upper lip
410
Name the functions of the abducens (VI) nerve
General somatic efferent fibres for eye abduction Innervates the lateral rectus muscle Passes through the superior orbital fissure of the skull
411
Name the possible problems and signs of an abducens nerve lesion
MS, some strokes Inability of the eye to look laterally Eye deviated towards the nose
412
Name the functions of the facial (VII) nerve
General somatic afferent - skin behind the ear Special visceral afferent - taste to anterior 2/3 of the tongue General visceral efferent - parasympathetic to the lacrimal, subinguinal and submandibular gland Special visceral efferent - muscles of facial expression
413
Name the possible problems and signs of a facial nerve lesion
LMN - Bell's palsy, skull fracture, parotid tumour = total facial weakness UMN - stroke, tumour = forehead sparing weakness
414
Name the functions of vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve
Provide special somatic afferent = hearing and balance Does not leave the skull Cochlea = sound waves to mechanical ossicle movements Vestibular apparats = detect changes in head motion
415
Name the possible problems and signs of Vestibulocochlear nerve lesion
Excess noise, Paget's, acoustic neuroma Deafness
416
Name the functions of Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve lesion
General somatic afferent = sensation from the posterior Special visceral afferent = taste to posterior 1/3 of the tongue General visceral efferent = parasympathetic to parotid glands Special visceral efferent = motor to stylopharyngeus
417
Name the glossopharyngeal nerve possible problems and function
Trauma, tumour Impaired gag reflex
418
Describe the function of the vagus nerve (X)
General somatic afferent = skin around the ear Special visceral afferent = taste and sensation to the epiglottis General visceral afferent = sensory information to body viscera General visceral efferent = parasympathetic to glands of GI tract Special visceral efferent = motor innervation to soft palate, pharynx and larynx
419
Name the possible problems and function of the Vagus Nerve
Trauma, brainstem lesions Impaired gag reflex, soft palate moves 'good' side on saying 'ahh'
420
Name the function of the accessory (XI) nerve
General somatic efferent fibres to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
421
Name the possible problems and sign of an accessory nerve lesions
Polio, stroke Weakness turning the head away from the affected side (sternocleidomastoid) Weakness shrugging shoulders (trapezius)
422
Name the functions of the hypoglossal nerve
General somatic efferent fibres for controlling tongue muscles
423
Name the possible problems and signs of a hypoglossal nerve lesion
Trauma, brainstem lesions Tongue deviated to affected side on protrusion
424
Define Carpel tunnel syndrome
Compression of the medial nerve as it travels through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. Causes pain and numbness in the median nerve distribution on the hand.
425
What does compression of the median nerve in the carpel tunnel cause
Either: Swelling of the contents - swelling of the tendon sheaths due to repetitive strain Narrowing of the tunnel
426
What does the median nerve supply motor function to
Abductor pollicis brevis - thumb abduction Opponens pollicis - thumb opposition Flexor pollicis brevis - thumb flexion
427
What is the palmar digital cutaneous branch of the median nerve responsible for
Sensory innervation of the palmar aspects and full fingertips of the: Thumb Index and middle finger The lateral half of the ring finger
428
Who is at the highest risk of carpal tunnel syndrome
Females between 40-60 years
429
Name the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome
No clear cause found Idiopathic
430
Name 7 risk factors for carpal tunnel syndrome
Repetitive strain Obesity Perimenopause Rheumatoid arthiritis Diabetes Acromegaly Hypothyroidism
431
Describe the clinical presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome
Gradual onset - start intermittent Worse at night time
432
Describe the sensory symptoms of carpel tunnel syndrome
Palmar digital cutaneous branch of the median nerve - Numbness - paraesthesia - Burning sensation - Pain
433
Name 4 motor symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome
To thenar muscles - weakness of thumb movements - weakness of grip strength - difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb - Wasting of the thenar muscle - atrophy
434
Name 2 tests of carpal tunnel syndrome
Phalen's test Tinel's test
435
Describe Phalen's test
Full flexing and holding it in its position Test positive = position submandibular sensory symptoms of the carpal tunnel
436
Describe Tinel's test
Tapping the wrist at the location where the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel Positive = triggers sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel
437
What is the 1st line diagnostic test for Carpal Tunnel syndrome
Electromyogram (EMG)
438
Name 2 options of the management of Carpal tunnel syndrome
Wrist splint Corticosteroid injection Surgical release
439
Name 5 differential diagnosis of Carpal tunnel syndrome
Osteoarthritis Stroke Ulnar neuropathy MND De Quervain's tenosynovitis
440
Define Radial neuropathy (Wrist drop)
Radial nerve damage leading to weakness in the wrist and fingers
441
Describe the pathophysiology of wrist drop
Radial nerve exists the upper spinal cord, travels down the upper arm very close to humerus. Gives off several branches. May be damaged at the level of the humerus or in the elbow/forearm
442
Describe the epidemiology of wrist drop
Named 'Saturday night palsy' Aged between 75-84
443
Where can the radial nerve (wrist drop) be damaged
Humerus (upper arm) Forearm
444
What are the possible causes of wrist drop
Fracture Sitting or sleeping with arm over back of chair Repetitive use Injuries - stab wombs Lead poisoning and thiamine deficiency Limb onset ALS Acute upper limb ischemia
445
Describe the clinical features of wrist drop
Weak wrist/fingers/thumb Close to origin = weak elbow Numbness or tingling present over the back of the thumb
446
Name 4 investigations of wrist drop
Nerve conduction and needle electromyography Plain x-ray MRI High resolution ultrasound
447
Describe the management of wrist drop
Usually recover without treatment - weeks or months Possible - wrist splint - physical therapy - possible surgery
448
Name differential diagnosis of wrist drop
Posterior interosseous neuropathy Posterior cord Radial neuropathy in the spinal groove/axilla
449
Define claw hand
Deformity with hyperextension of the MCP joints and flexion of the IPJ due to weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
450
Describe the type of claw hand
Complete - involves all digits - results from both ulnar and median palsy Incomplete/partial - involves only ulnar 2 digits - referred to as isolated ulnar nerve palsy
451
Name the causes of claw hand
Nerve damage in the arm Congenital birth defect Some genetic diseases e.g. Charcot-Marie Tooth Disease Bacterial infections e.g. leprosy Scarring after a severe hand or forearm burn Compartment syndrome of the hand
452
Name 3 risk factors of claw hand
External compression at the elbow Body weight pressure onto tools Prolong movements causing the elbow to lean e.g. cyclists, desk jobs
453
Name 4 clinical features of claw hand
Muscle wasting on the interosseous and hypothenar Numbness along the nerve involved Inability to extend the IP joints during extension of the fingers - abduct and adduct fingers Unopposed action of the extensor and the flexor digitorum profundus.
454
Name 2 investigations of claw hand
Electromyography Nerve conduction studies
455
Describe the management of claw hand
Splinting Surgery Tendon transfer (graft) Therapy to straighten fingers Physiotherapy management
456
Name 4 differential features of claw hand
Cervical radiculopathy Dypuytren contracture Klumpke's paralysis Lower brachial plexopathy
457
Define foot drop
Not a disease Symptom of neurological, anatomical or muscular problem. Inability to lift the forefoot due to the weakness of dorsiflexors of the foot
458
Describe the pathophysiology of foot drop
Damage to the common peroneal nerve - weakness of tibialis anterior and other key dorsiflexors of the foot
459
Name the causes of foot drop
Compression disorders Traumatic injuries Neurological disorders
460
Name the compression disorders which could result in foot drop
Fibular nerve compression Sciatic nerve compression Lumbar disc herniation or spondylitis of the spine
461
Name 2 neurological disorders which could result in foot drop
Charcot-Marie Tooth Stroke
462
Name the clinical features of foot drop
No active dorsiflexion in a non-weight bearing position Gait assessment Pain - Neurogenic pain - Sensory changes
463
Name 5 investigations of foot drop
Gait assessment History Assessment of ankle dorsiflexion Neurological exam Electromyography/nerve conduction studies
464
Describe the management of foot drop
2/3 resolve within 1 year Analgesia Splinting Physiotherapy - exercise Surgery
465
Name 5 differential diagnosis of foot drop
L5 radicopathy UMN lesion Chronic/persistent pain Sciatic nerve injury
466
Name 2 examples of spinal cord compression
Sciatica Spinal stenosis
467
Define spinal stenosis
Narrowing of part of the spinal canal, resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots typically resulting from degenerative changes in the lumbar spine
468
Describe the pathophysiology of spinal stenosis
Degenerative disease of lumbar spine may reduce the diameter of the spinal canal May produce narrowing of the lateral recess and neural foramina Stenosis results from a cascade of micro-degenerative changes
469
Name 3 types of spinal stenosis
Central stenosis - narrowing of the central spinal canal Lateral stenosis - narrowing of the nerve root canals Foramina stenosis - narrowing of the intervertebral foramina
470
What age does spinal stenosis affect
> 60 - degenerative changes
471
Name the causes of spinal stenosis
Congenital spinal stenosis Degenerative changes Herniated discs Thickening of the ligamenta flava or posterior longitudinal ligament Spinal fractures Spondylolisthesis Tumours
472
Name 5 risk factors of spinal stenosis
Age > 40 Previous back surgery Previous injury Achondroplasia Acromegaly
473
Describe the clinical features of spinal compression
Gradual onset Severity of symptoms will depend on the degree of narrowing and spinal cord compression
474
Describe the symptoms of severe spinal compression
Symptoms of cauda equina syndrome - Saddle anaesthesia - sexual dysfunction - incontinence of bladder and bowel Requires emergency management
475
Key presenting features of spinal cord compression
Intermittent neurogenic claudication of lumbar spine stenosis with central stenosis - Lower back pain - Buttock and leg pain - Leg weakness
476
Define radiculopathy
Compression of the nerve roots as they exit the spinal cord and spinal column - leads to motor and sensory symptoms
477
What is the 1st line investigation in spinal cord compression (spinal stenosis)
MRI Other - angiogram
478
What is the 1st line management in spinal cord compression (spinal stenosis)
NSAIDs + physiotherapy
479
Describe the management in spinal cord compression (spinal stenosis)
1st line - NSAIDs + physiotherapy Epidural corticosteroid injections Decompressive spinal surgery Laminectomy
480
Name 5 differential diagnosis of spinal cord compression
Peripheral vascular disease Lumbosacral intervertebral disc herniation Spinal compression fracture Metastatic disease of spine Ankylosing spondylitis
481
Describe the pathophysiology of sciatica
Supplies sensation to the lateral lower leg and the foot Motor function to the posterior thigh, lower leg and foot
482
Define sciatica
Symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve
483
Name the main causes of sciatica
Due to lumbosacral nerve root compression Herniated disc Spondylolisthesis Spinal stenosis
484
Describe the clinical features of sciatica
Unilateral pain from buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet Paraesthesia Numbness Motor weakness Reflexes may be affected
485
Describe the management of sciatica
Amitriptyline Duloxetine NO opioids
486
Define a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
Either: Ischaemic stroke Intracranial haemorrhage
487
Define ischemic stroke
Ischemia (inadequate blood supply) or infarction (tissue death due to ischemia) of the brain secondary to a disrupted blood supply Blood supply in a cerebral vascular territory is critically reduced due to occlusion or critical stenosis of a cerebral artery
488
Define intracranial haemorrhage
Bleeding in or around the brain
489
Define transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
Involves temporary neurological dysfunction (lasting less than 24 hours) caused by ischaemia but without infarction
490
Define crescendo TIA
2 or more TIAs within a week and indicate a high risk of stroke
491
Describe the pathophysiology of TIA
Cerebral blood flow falls - brain compensates by increasing oxygen extraction Partial blood flow = neuronal function is impaired. Cell death is delayed by minutes to hours Restoration of flow via autolysis of occluding thrombus, can arrest the progression to infarction
492
Name causes of ischaemic stroke
Caused by transient or permeant critical reduction in cerebral blood flow due to arterial occlusion or stenosis Thrombus or embolus Atherosclerosis Shock Vasculitis
493
Name the causes of a TIA
In situ thrombosis of an intracranial artery or artery-to-artery embolism of thrombus as a result of stenosis or unstable atherosclerotic plaque Occlusion due to - hypercoagulability - dissection - vasculitis - vasospasm - sickle cell occlusive disease
494
Name the risk factor of stroke or TIA
Previous history AF Carotid artery stenosis Hypertension Diabetes Raised cholesterol Family history Smoking Obesity Vasculitis Combined contraceptive pill
495
Describe the general clinical features of a stroke
Sudden onset of neurological features Asymmetrical Limb/facial weakness Dysphasia Visual field defect Sensory loss Ataxia and vertigo
496
Describe FAST
For a stroke Face Arm Speech Time - act fast and call 999
497
What tool can be used for the recognition of stroke in the emergency room
ROSIER tool
498
Describe the ROSIER tool
Recognition of a stroke Gives a score based on clinical features and duration Stroke possible in patients scoring 1 or more
499
What is the 1st line investigation in a TIA
Diffusion weighted MRI
500
What is the 1st line investigation of a stroke
Non-contrast CT
501
Describe the management of a TIA
Symptoms usually resolve within 24 hours of onset Initial - Aspirin - Referral for specialised assessment - MRI Assessment of underlying cause
502
Describe the initial management of a stroke
Exclude hypoglycaemia Immediate CT brain (exclude haemorrhage) Aspirin Admission
503
Define the possible management options for an ischemic stroke once haemorrhage has been excluded
Thrombolysis with alteplase Thrombectomy
504
Describe thrombolysis as a treatment for ischemic stroke
With alteplase - tissue plasminogen activation that rapidly breaks down clots Given 4.5 hours within symptom onset Close monitoring for complications
505
Describe the thrombectomy as a treatment for ischaemic stroke
Blockage of the proximal anterior circulation or proximal posterior circulation Within 24 hours of the symptom onset Alongside IV thrombolysis
506
How is blood pressure treated in ischemic stroke
Lowering blood pressure can worsen the ischemia High blood pressure treatment only indicated in hypertensive emergency or reduce risks when giving IV thrombolysis
507
How is blood pressure treated in a haemorrhagic stroke
Aggressively treated
508
Name the differential diagnosis of a stroke
Ischemic/haemorrhagic TIA Hypoglycaemia Complicated migraine Wernicke's encephalopathy
509
What can be given as a secondary prevention in strokes
Clopidogrel Atorvastatin Blood pressure and diabetes control Addressing risk factors
510
Name 4 complications of an ischemic stroke
Aspiration Pneumonia Depression DVT
511
What is the prognosis in a TIA
Risk of recurrent stroke is high in the first 7 days following a TIA
512
Describe the pathophysiology of a haemorrhagic stroke
Caused by vascular rupture into the brain parenchyma Results in primary mechanical injury to the brain tissue. Expanding haematoma may shear additional neighbouring arteries Results in secondary ischemic injury
513
Name the risk factors of ischaemic stroke
Head injuries Ischemic stroke Aneurysms Ischemic stroke - progressing to bleeding Brain tumours Thrombocytopenia Bleeding disorders Anticoagulants
514
Name the clinical features of haemorrhagic stroke
Key feature = sudden-onset headache Seizures Vomiting Reduced consciousness Focal neurological symptoms
515
Describe the investigations in haemorrhagic stroke
Immediate CT head Bloods - FBC - Coagulation screen
516
What is the universal assessment tool for level of consciousness
Glasgow Coma Score
517
Describe the Glasgow Coma Score
Score based on eyes, verbal response and motor response Maximum score 15/15 8/15 needs airway support
518
Describe the management of haemorrhagic stroke
Correct clotting abnormality Small bleeds - manage conservatively Extradural or subdural - craniotomy - Burr holes
519
Name the clinical features of haemorrhagic stroke
Ischaemic stroke Hypertensive encephalopathy Hypoglycaemia Complicated migraine Seizure disorder
520
Define a extradural haemorrhage
Between the skull and dura mater
521
Name the cause of an extradural haemorrhage
Rupture of the middle meningeal artery in the temporoparietal region Associated with a fracture of the temporal bone
522
Describe the typical history of extradural haemorrhage
Young patient Traumatic head injury Ongoing headache Period of improved neurological symptoms and consciousness Followed by rapid decline over hours as the haematoma gets large enough to compress the intracranial contents
523
Describe the investigations of an extradural haemorrhage
CT scan - Bi-convex shape - limited by cranial sutures
524
Define the subdural haemorrhage
Occurs between the dura and arachnoid mater
525
Describe the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage
Elderly and alcoholic patients - more atrophy in the brains = vessels more prone to rupture
526
Name the cause of subdural haemorrhage
Rupture of the bridging veins in the outermost meningeal layer
527
Describe the investigations of subdural haemorrhage
CT - Crescent shape - not limited to cranial sutures
528
Define the intracerebral haemorrhage
Involves bleeding in the brain tissue
529
Where can intracerebral haemorrhage occur
Lobar Deep Intraventricular Basal ganglia Cerebellar
530
Define the cause of intracerebral haemorrhage
Occur spontaneously OR Secondary to ischemic stroke, tumours, or aneurysm stroke
531
Describe the clinical features of intracerebral haemorrhage
Presents like an ischemic stroke Sudden onset focal neurological symptoms - limb weakness - dysphasia - vision loss
532
Define subarachnoid haemorrhage
Bleeding in the subarachnoid space when the CSF is located - between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane
533
Define the cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage
Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
534
Describe the clinical features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage
Sudden onset occipital headache during strenuous activity Sudden or severe onset - leads to thunderclap headache description
535
Name the major differential diagnosis for seizures
Epileptic seizures Syncope (vasovagal) Postural (orthostatic) hypotension Hypoglycaemia Non-epileptic attack disorder
536
What be suggestive features that a seizure is an epileptic seizure
Prodromal aura Conclusive jerk Eyes open Automatism, lateral tongue biting Cyanotic/pale Post-ictal confusion Long recovery period
537
What would the following symptoms in a seizure be suggestive off Prodromal aura Conclusive jerk Eyes open Automatism, lateral tongue biting Cyanotic/pale Post-ictal confusion Long recovery period
Epileptic seizure
538
What would be the symptoms of syncope (vasovagal)
Trigger e.g. blood, standing, needles Prodrome - nausea, light-headiness, pallor Incontinence may feature Brief convulsive jerks
539
What would the following symptoms of a seizure be suggestive off Trigger e.g. blood, standing, needles Prodrome - nausea, light-headiness, pallor Incontinence may feature Brief convulsive jerks
Syncope (vasovagal)
540
Name the symptoms of cardiac syncope
Features/history of arrythmias/structural abnormalities
541
What type of seizure would the following symptoms suggest Features/history of arrythmias/structural abnormalities
Cardiac syncope
542
Name the features of a seizure in postural (orthostatic) hypotension
Use of vasodilators, antidepressants
543
What would the following symptoms of a seizure be suggestive of Use of vasodilators, antidepressants
Postural (orthostatic) hypotension
544
Name the symptoms of a hypoglycaemic seizure
Features of adrenaline release - palpitations, sweating, agitation
545
What would the following symptoms in a seizure be suggestive of Features of adrenaline release - palpitations, sweating, agitation
Hypoglycaemia
546
Describe the symptoms of a non-epileptic attack disorder
Normal colour Eye closed with active resistance to opening Retained consciousness, combative Pelvic thrust, arching back, erratic mvt
547
In a seizure what would the following symptoms be suggestive of Normal colour Eye closed with active resistance to opening Retained consciousness, combative Pelvic thrust, arching back, erratic mvt
Non-epileptic attack disorder
548
What is the screening for dementia in GP
6 questions
549
What are the screening for secondary care
MOCA - Montreal cognitive assessment MMSE - mini-mental state examination
550
What do you have to score on the MMSE for it to be abnormal
23 or lower indicates dementia
551
In dementia if the temporal lobe is affected what would be the presenting symptoms
Hearing Language compression Sematic knowledge Memory Emotional/affective disorder behaviour Amnesic
552
Describe amnesic as a symptom of dementia
Failure to create new memories.
553
What can you do to reduce your risk of dementia
Stop smoking Body mass index - 18-25 kg/m2 Diet - consumption of 3+ fruit/vegetables + < 30% of calories from fat Physical activity - 2+ miles walk or 10+ cycling, vigorous exercise Alcohol < 3 units per day
554
What is the 1st line management in dementia
Acetyl choline esterase inhibitors (cholinesterase inhibitors) Slows down progression
555
What is the reason for contrast in a CT scan
To dye blood vessels
556
A patient presents with a sudden onset headache. What is the diagnosis?
Subarachnoid headache
557
If someone has power loss and the source is in the brain how would this present
Unilateral
558
Name 3 differentials for bilateral leg weakness and numbness. Difficulty passing urine and compression What investigation would be done?
Spinal cord compression Cauda equina Pathological fractures Prolapse disk Metastasis Multiple sclerosis MRI
559
What would oligoclonal bands on a lumbar puncture indicate
Multiple sclerosis
560
What is the initial treatment for multiple sclerosis
High dose steroids - prednisolone
561
What treatments are available for MND
Riluzole Sodium channel blocker which inhibits glutamate release
562
What is the most important treatment in a patient who presents to A&E with collapse/seizure
Blood glucose - hypoglycaemia ECG - heart conditions
563
What anti epileptic drug can you NOT give if you have a women of childbearing age
Sodium valproate
564
If you are looking at peripheral nerves what is the broad rule for imaging
Nerve conduction studies
565
On examination what would be seen on a third nerve palsy
Globe depressed and abducted Fixed dilated pupil
566
Describe lateral medullary syndrome
Ipsilateral side - Horner's syndrome - limb ataxia - loss of facial sensation of pain, temp on face, reduced corneal reflex. - dysarthria - dysphagia Contralateral side - loss of pain and temp sensation
567
Define Horner's syndrome
Lesion of sympathetic chain supplying the eye
568
What 3 important structures does the SNS innervate
Dilator pupillae - involved in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil Superior tarsal muscle - aids in elevating the upper eyelid with levator palpebrae superioris Sweat glands
569
What are the two common presentations of a brain tumour
Localising or pressure related
570
Describe the Monro-Kellie Doctrine
Describes the relationship between the contents of the cranium and intracranial pressure. 3 components - CSF volume (150ml 10%) - Blood volume (150ml 10%) - Brain parenchyma volume (1400ml 80%)
571
Describe the Monro-Kellie Doctrine effect on intracranial pressure
= Pressure within the cranium of the skull. Cranium is fixed, increase in volume of one of the other intracranial components will result in increased pressure. Equilibrium between these components
572
What is the 1st line investigation for a suspected brain tumour
MRI head with contrast (gadolinium) +/- spine
573
How brain tumours (glioblastoma) appear on radiological scans
Ring enhancement around the outer edge of the tumour Differentials - abscesses
574
Describe the radiological appearance of lymphoma
Periventricular - around the tumour Steroids can cause temporary shrinking - can make biopsy difficult
575
Name 4 causes which could affect LMN
Brainstem motor nuclei Cranial nerve Neuromuscular junction Muscle
576
Name 2 causes which could affect UMN
Motor cortex Corticobulbar tract
577
Define a bulbar palsy
LMN problem affecting bilateral IX, X, XI and XIII (at the level of the brainstem nuclei, nerve fascicles or lower cranial nerves outside the brainstem
578
Define pseudobulbar palsy
UMN problem occurring above the level of the brainstem nuclei e.g. affecting bilateral corticobulbar tracts (also associated with emotional lability)
579
Name the problems bulbar palsy Voluntary palatal movements Gag reflex Tongue Speech Limb involvement
Absent Absent Wasting and fasciculations Nasal LMN signs
580
Name the problems of pseudobulbar palsy Voluntary palatal movements Gag reflex Tongue Speech Limb involvement Other features
Absent Increased Spastic, hard to protrude Spastic dysarthria - 'hot potato speech' UMN signs Emotional labiality, brisk jaw jerk
581
Define dysarthria
Difficulty speaking because the muscles used to speak are weak
582
Define dysphonia
Having difficulty making sounds when attempting to speak
583
Define dysphasia
Language disorder that affects the ability to produce and understand spoken language
584
Define expressive aphasia (Broca)
Difficulty expressing what you want to say
585
Define receptive aphasia (Wernicke)
Difficulty understanding the speech of others
586
What causes encephalitis
HSV-1
587
What is the 1st line management in myasthenia gravis
Pyridostigmine Long acting acetylcholinesterase