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Flashcards in the cerebrum Deck (103)
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1
Q

where is broca’s area found

A

frontal lobe. LEFT hemisphere

2
Q

what is the function of broca’s area

A

production of speech

3
Q

where is the motor and pre motor cortex found

A

frontal lobe

4
Q

where is the prefrontal cortex found

A

frontal lobe

5
Q

what are the functions of prefrontal cortex

A

motor control, programming and planning, attention, memory, problem solving

6
Q

what part of the frontal lobe is involved in personality, social behaviour, emotion?

A

orbital cortex

7
Q

what is the function of the motor and pre motor cortex

A

primary and secondary levels of motor control, verbal fluency and design fluency

8
Q

what are some functions of the temporal lobe

A

auditory, olfactory, visual association, memory, emotional and social

9
Q

what makes up primary auditory cortex

A

Heschl’s gyrus

10
Q

where is the auditory cortex found

A

superior part of temporal lobe

11
Q

what is agnosia

A

loss of ability to recognise objects, people, sounds, shapes, smells etc

12
Q

what does the parietal lobe integrate

A

spatial sense and navigation

13
Q

what is the parietal cortex comprised of

A

somatosensory cortex and dorsal stream visual system

14
Q

what is the postcentral gyrus responsible for

A

somatosensation

15
Q

where is language processing associated with (lobe)

A

parietal lobe

16
Q

what is the function of the anterior parietal lobe

A

postural sensation, tactile sensation

17
Q

what can damage to ant parietal lobe result in

A

agraphism (inability to write), asterognosis (inability to recognise objects by touch)

18
Q

what is Balint syndrome and what is it associated with

A

poor spatial processing, damage to the superior parietal lobe

19
Q

what is conductive aphasia and what associated with

A

difficulty reading, writing etc inferior parietal lobe

20
Q

what are some of the problems associated with the inferior parietal lobe

A

alexia (don’t understand written words), dyslexia, apraxia, asomatognosia (lack awareness body parts), spatial neglect

21
Q

what is brodmann area 17?

A

primary visual cortex (V1- visual 1)

22
Q

what happens if V1 is damaged (brodmann 17)

A

blindsight, eyes work but brain cant understand

23
Q

what hemisphere is wernickes are on?

A

left

24
Q

whats the difference between damage to brocas and wernickes?

A

brocas- speech production (aphasia); wernickes- speech comprehension affected

25
Q

what happens in damage to angular gyrus

A

alexia (problems reading), agraphia (writing)

26
Q

what happens in damage to the arcuate fasciculus

A

conduction aphasia, comprehension and production normal but word selection is impaired

27
Q

what are the stages of sleep

A

stage 1 (light sleep), 2 (sleep), 3+4 (deep slow wave sleep), REM (dreaming)

28
Q

what are used to investigate sleep

A

polysomnography: EEG, EMG, ECG, EOG, resp function, pulse oxymetry, brain activity, HR

29
Q

what is the order of waveforms in EEG (small- largest)

A

sigma, theta, alpha, beta, gamma, miu

30
Q

what waveform is when eyes are shut

A

alpha

31
Q

what waveform is when eyes are open

A

beta

32
Q

when going into stage 1 sleep what happens to the waveforms?

A

alpha disappears replaced by theta

33
Q

what phenomena are seen in stage 2 to help in the winding down process

A

K complexes and sleep spindles (bursts of activity)

34
Q

what are the brainwaves in stage 3 and 4 sleep?

A

sigma rhythm

35
Q

what happens during REM

A

whole body is paralysed apart from the eyes (muscle atonia)

36
Q

what brainwaves are present in REM

A

theta and beta

37
Q

what can cause insomnia

A

drugs, stress, depression, brain injury, poor sleep hygiene

38
Q

what can lead to excessive daytime sleepiness

A

not enough night time sleep, underlying disorder, circadian rhythm disorder, depression, structural brain lesion

39
Q

what is narcolepsy

A

fall asleep at inappropriate times

40
Q

what is present in narcolepsy

A

excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy (loss of muscle tone), sleep paralysis, hypnogogic hallucinations

41
Q

what is narcolepsy associated with

A

HLA type- autoimmune disease

42
Q

what is narcolepsy disagnosed with

A

multiple sleep latency test

43
Q

what is narcolepsy treated with

A

amphatamines, modafinil. tca for cataplexy.

44
Q

what is restless leg syndrome

A

irresistible urge to move body especially legs during sleep

45
Q

what is restless leg syndrome associated with and how can treat

A

dopamine also common in those iron deficient. treat with iron supplements, dopamine agonists, L-DOPA

46
Q

what are parasomnias, how are they classified?

A

abnormal behaviours, emotions, perceptions, dreams occur while falling asleep or upon arousal. REM and non REM

47
Q

what are symptoms of non REM parasomnias?

A

confusional arousals, sleepwalking, sleep terrors, teeth grinding

48
Q

what are symptoms of REM parasomnias?

A

loss of muscle atonia during REM, so patient acts out the dream. increased incidence in Parkinsons

49
Q

what can treat REM parasomnia with

A

clonazepam

50
Q

what is sleep apnoea

A

abnormal pauses in breathing or instances of low breathing during sleep

51
Q

why does a person come out of deep sleep into a lighter state of sleep in sleep apnoea

A

due to the lack of oxygen

52
Q

what can you use for the management of sleep apnoea

A

CRAP- continuous positive airway pressure

53
Q

what sulcus divides the frontal and lateral lobes

A

central sulcus

54
Q

what is another name for the lateral sulcus

A

sylvian fissure

55
Q

what part of cortex is buried within neighbouring cortex

A

insula

56
Q

what fissure can be seen from the basal surface dividing the 2 hemispheres?

A

longitudinal fissure

57
Q

what passes through the lateral fissure

A

middle cerebral artery

58
Q

what sulcus can be seen from the medial surface separating the occipital and parietal lobe

A

parieto-occipital sulcus

59
Q

what connects the 2 hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

60
Q

what are the segments of the corpus callosum

A

rostrum, genu, body, splenium

61
Q

what connects the hippocampus and the hypothalamus (white matter)

A

fornix

62
Q

what gyrus is associated with the primary motor cortex

A

pre central gyrus

63
Q

what gyrus is associated with the primary sensory cortex

A

post central gyrus

64
Q

what gyrus is associated with the primary auditory cortex

A

superior temporal gyrus

65
Q

what sulcus is associated with the primary visual cortex

A

calcarine sulcus

66
Q

what is the superolateral part of the brain supplied by

A

MCA

67
Q

what is the medial surface of the brain supplied by

A

anterior and posterior cerebral arteries

68
Q

what supplies the deep part of the brain

A

lots of tiny branches off of the circle of willis

69
Q

where is brocas area found

A

directly in front of the primary motor cortex

70
Q

what connects the 2 temporal lobes

A

anterior commissure

71
Q

what happens as move further back on coronal sections of the brain

A

lentiform nucleus becomes smaller due to the thalamus (as go further back caudate nucleus becomes smaller)

72
Q

is the thalamus medial or lateral to the internal capsule

A

medial

73
Q

what does the posterior commissure connect?

A

medial longitudinal bundles

74
Q

what happens if the posterior commissure is damaged

A

blurred vision

75
Q

what is the equation for cerebral blood flow

A

perfusion pressure/ resistance

76
Q

what is the perfusion pressure

A

mean arterial pressure- intracranial pressure

77
Q

what is the difference between stroke and TIA

A

stroke symptoms >24 hours, TIA <24 hours

78
Q

what are the types of stroke

A

ischaemic and hemorrhagic (15% of strokes)

79
Q

what is the most common cause of ischaemic stroke

A

thromboembolism

80
Q

other causes of ischaemia stroke

A

intracranial small vessel disease, embolism from the heart, haemodynamic failure, arterial vasospasm

81
Q

what are the distributions of stroke

A

total anterior (17%), partial anterior (34%), posterior (24%), lacunar (25%)

82
Q

what is the consequence of a total anterior stroke

A

hemiplegia contralat, hemanopia contralat, disturbance higher function

83
Q

consequence of partial anterior stroke

A

motor/sensory deficit +/- hemanopia; or with new higher cerebral dysfunction; pure motor/sensory deficit

84
Q

consequences of posterior stroke

A

brainstem features. hemanopia, cortical blindness. cranial nerve palsy. motor and sensory deficit

85
Q

consequences of lacunar stroke

A

pure motor or sensory stroke; sensorimotor, ataxic hemiparesis

86
Q

what are the causes of intracerebral hemorrhage

A

local vessel abnormalities eg hypertension, infarction; systemic factors eg drugs, trauma

87
Q

what are the causes of a subarach hemorrhage

A

trauma or spontaneous- spont leads to rupturing of saccular aneurysm (berry); infection; vasculitis

88
Q

what is a saccular aneursym

A

dilatation of artery at the base of the brain (congenital or acquired) no effect compressive or hemorrhagic

89
Q

what is an aneurysm

A

weak area in a blood vessel wall causing the blood vessel to bulge out

90
Q

the CBF stays constant over what BP

A

60-160 mmHg

91
Q

what does a decrease in PaO2 lead to

A

increase CBF (modest)

92
Q

what does an increase in PaCO2 lead to

A

increase CBF (potent)

93
Q

what does an increase in Hct lead to

A

increase in PaO2 so a decrease in CBF

94
Q

what is the constant ICP

A

5-15 mmHg

95
Q

what are the main determinants of cerebral blood flow

A

arterial blood pressure, metabolic, chemical, neurogenic

96
Q

how can ICP and mean arterial pressure be found

A

measure ICP directly. MAP = diastolic + 1/3 pulse pressure (difference between diastolic and systolic)

97
Q

what leads to the intrinsic ability to maintain stability of blood flow

A

autoregulation

98
Q

what is the CBF maintained at. what must ICP and MAP be

A

50mls/100g/min. ICP =10mmHg; MAP 60-150 mmHg

99
Q

what does a change of 1kPa in PaCO2 result in for CBF

A

30% change CBF

100
Q

when is there change in CBF wrt PaO2

A

when PaO2 < 7 kPa

101
Q

what does cerebral vasculature most respond to

A

PaO2

102
Q

which is more metabolically active grey or white matter

A

grey 4x as active

103
Q

which has the least effect on CBF

A

neurogenic