The Clinical Applications of Pathology Tests and Quality Assurance Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

Where can the cost of various pathology tests be found?

A

Medicare Benefits Schedule Book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Ulysses syndrome?

A

When a healthy patient receives a false positive result and has many other unnecessary follow-up investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 reasons for pathology tests?

A

Screening
Diagnosis
Prognosis
Monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should be done if a patient’s test result is above the population median?

A

If mildly elevated, monitor with another test in some years’ time
If highly elevated, requires action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would be the PPV of a test with 99% specificity and 99% sensitivity where the prevalence of disease is only 1%? What is the clinical implication of this for screening programs?

A

50% - there would be as many TPs as FPs

In screening programs there are almost always more FPs than TPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the FPG, OGTT and HbA1c thresholds for the diagnosis of diabetes?

A

FPG >7.0 mmol/L
OGTT >11.1 mmol/L
HbA1c >6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS and how can these findings be elicited clinically

A
2 or more of the following:
Chronic anovulation (amenorrhoea)
Hyperandrogenism (hirsutism/biochemistry)
Polycystic ovaries (US)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For what disease is the Gleason score used to provide an indication of prognosis?

A

Prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is serum sodium used as an indicator for?

A

Risk factor for in-hospital mortality (increased risk if low or high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the concept of “reversion to the mean” in monitoring

A

A healthy person oscillates about their set point - this is a good indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the role of tumour marker doubling time in monitoring cancer patients?

A

Provides an indication of expected exponential growth of tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What factors are important in therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Drug half life
Peak level, trough level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is important when measuring electrolytes besides the absolute level?

A

Rate of change

Overall trend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should the y axis units be expressed when monitoring tumour markers?

A

On a logarithmic scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What % of clinical decisions are based on results from the laboratory?

A

70-85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What % of laboratory test errors occur at the preanalytical test stage?

17
Q

Give 5 examples of preanalytical error

A
Insufficient sample
Poor sample condition
Incorrect sample
Incorrect identification
Sample handling and transport
18
Q

KIMMS

A

Key Incident Management Monitoring System

19
Q

Where do most of these preanalytical errors occur?

20
Q

What details should be included on a pathology request slip?

A
At least 2 patient identifiers
Urgency
Dr name and contact
Collection details and collector
Clinical indication
Signature and date
21
Q

What details should be included when labelling a sample?

A

At least 2 patient identifiers
Day and time of collection
Collector
NB Should all match up with request slip!

22
Q

What types of tubes are used to prevent coagulation of a blood or plasma sample (e.g. for an FBE, to measure clotting factors)?

A
K2EDTA (for FBE)
EDTA
Citrate
Oxalate
Heparin
23
Q

What sample is allowed to clot? Why?

A

Serum

To get rid of clotting factors which can interfere with tests, e.g. immunoassays

24
Q

When is acid preservative added to a urine sample?

A

When measuring calcium and/or catecholamines

25
When is alkaline preservative added to a urine sample?
When measuring uric acid
26
When should a urine sample be refrigerated?
For MCS
27
When should a spot faecal sample taken?
FOBT
28
When should a 3 day faeces collection be taken?
For faecal fat
29
Why are 3 samples taken during lumbar puncture?
Because often some initial blood contamination; first tube for chemistry, second culture, third microscopy (where it is important to analyse for RBCs in the CSF)
30
List 5 common errors in blood collection
``` Haemolysed specimen Delayed transport Inappropriate refrigeration Contamination from another tube type Drip arm specimen ```
31
What effect does haemolysis have on potassium levels?
Artificially elevates
32
How long does it take for a RBC sample take to consume its glucose?
3 hours; after this will haemolyse
33
What is the effect of refrigeration on a RBC sample?
Cells stop working within 30 mins
34
How is a ruptured specimen produced?
Via turbulent collection of samples through fine bore needles/taps
35
What is the "order of draw" for collection of blood samples?
From non-preservative containing tubes to tubes with preservatives
36
What is the major issue with contamination from an FBE tube?
Will cause artificially high K+ and low Ca2+; this is normally a medical emergency
37
If there is a drip in the wrist, what % of cubital vein blood on the same arm will be drip?
30%
38
What can be used to prevent glycolysis (in order of quickest to slowest effect)?
Acidity (i.e. fluoride citrate) Serum gel tube if spun Fluoride