The "Etc." (LA euthanasia, bee med, CVI, & regulatory medicine) Flashcards by Kelsey Thornton

How would you briefly summarize the AAEP guidelines for equine euthanasia?

horses shouldn’t:
1. ensure pain from chronic incurable conditions
2. ensure medical or sx condition w/ no chance of survival
3. remain alive if unmanageable condition – hazardous to self or handlers
4. receive life-long analgesic meds for pain relief
5. endure lifetime in individual stall confinement for relief of pain/suffering

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Our role as a veterinarian during the pre-euthanasia period is to …

provide the owners with an understanding of why the animal might not “get better” or a better understanding of the pain and suffering the animal is enduring, but also recognize their cultural, religious, economic, emotional, and familial influences on the decision to euthanize.

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What are the biggest requirements for an equine euthanasia?

obtain owner permission and signed consent
sedate first with alpha-2 agonist

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What is required if you are planning to use IV barbiturates for your equine euthanasia?

IV catheter placement, extension set, sedation/anesthesia, and restraint

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What are the cons of performing intrathecal local anesthetic as euthanasia in equines?

requires general anesthesia and CSF centesis (pulling out CSF fluid to replace with lidocaine/mepivacine)

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Does euthanizing horses by IV potassium chloride require general anesthesia?

yes

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What are the pros and cons of the gunshot/captive bullet form of euthanasia for horses?

pro: quick, cheap, no drug residues
con: training, skill req and hazardous (safety risk)

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What is the most common “alternative” approach to equine euthanasia that is dependable and safe, requires general anesthesia, but is disturbing and messy.

exsanguination

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Where should you plan to euthanize a horse?

level private grassy location

not in stalls or in public

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What is the most reliable way to confirm death after large animal euthanasias?

absent corneal reflex

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What are the disposal options after equine euthanasia?

burial, cremation, rendering, composting, landfill, obliteration, etc.

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What is the euthanasia solution used in food animal euthanasia?

sodium pentobarbital (dose = 10ml/100lb)

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T/F: unlike horses, only few food animals need to be sedated with xylazine prior to euthanasia

true

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After a food animal has been sedated with xylazine, what solution is used in intrathecal euthanasia of food animals?

lidocaine hydrochloride

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Where do you insert the needle for intrathecal euthanasia of food animals?

once you place the animal laterally, you can tilt the head 90 degrees. Make a line from the base of the ears to midline and insert the needle perpendicular to this line.

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T/F: if using the gunshot method of euthanasia for food animals, you should aim for in between their eyes.

false –
in cattle – aim for high in the center of their forehead
in SR – aim for slightly behind the poll or on top of their head
in pigs –above eyes (where eyebrows would be if they had em hehe)

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T/F: you can perform exsanguination by itself in food animals

false – never by itself. it is used just to ensure death after an animal is unconscious.

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Is it appropriate to use the following methods of euthanasia in food animals?
inject: air, micotil, detergent
blunt trauma
electrocution

not in most cases

the only exceptions are
nursing piglets – blunt trauma
electrocution – pigs

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what are the 4 basic principles of cattle behavior?

they want to see you
they want to go around you
they want to go to and be around other cattle
they can only think of one thing at a time

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cattle are (prey/predator) animals

prey

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cattle are (herd/solitary) animals

herd

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T/F: cattle have memory, so if they have a bad experience itll make things worse next time, vice versa for good.

true

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What do cattle do in response to novel items (esp in working facilities) such as changes in contrast, stepping off trailers, moving across different surfaces, and going into a barn?

they stop and are very hesitant

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T/F: you should yell or scream to work cattle so they can hear you

false – you should be quiet. if you have to yell, you are either in the wrong place or doing the wrong thing

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T/F: if you make cattle do something before they are ready to do it, then you are no longer partaking in "low-stress" handling

true

T/F: you can train cattle how to behave every time you are with them by going into a pen/pasture, moving them through corrals on the way to feed, or making the cattle walk past you.

true

In order for a cow to have depth perception, they must ...

have both eyes on the object

To make cattle speed up, what direction should you walk?

against their direction

To make cattle slow down, what direction should you walk?

with them

To make cattle go forward, what direction should you walk?

walk towards their tail

To make cattle go backwards, what direction should you walk?

walk towards their head

to move a cow up to a chute, what direction should you walk?

walk from head to tail and scratch their back be sure to hide the person at the head catch and remove distractions (shadows, reflections, differences in surfaces, etc.)

what is the difference between tail jack and tail twist?

jack = used to immobilize or take blood twist = get them to move forward; remember to release pressure when they move (neg reinforcement)

Why do we have circular chutes?

cattle want to return to where they came from

T/F: when herding cattle, you should start the motion, but then let the cattle pull the rest

true

What is the safest way to be in the presence of a cow and calf?

keep calf between you and cow because she will not charge over her calf to get to you. never be between her and the calf.

why do bulls turn sideways when you approach?

they see you and want to present their biggest profile to you in order to protect their territory

which bull is most aggressive -- jersey or angus?

jersey

T/F: you should apply pressure to a group of cattle in a closed area

false -- only if they have a place to go

T/F: when working cattle, you should move in straight lines and triangles

true

going with the flow of cattle when working them (speeds/slows) their movement

slows

going against the flow of cattle when working them (speeds/slows) their movement

speeds

Flight zone and point of balance can be used to ...

create movement and stop them

Ultimately, why is honey bee health so important?

they pollinate 1/3 of the US diet

Where did honey bee 'Apis mellifera' originate?

Africa and Europe They are then, obviously, not native to North America, but a subspecies was brought to N. America and formed the basis of our current honey bee population

In north america, we have quite a few native bees that are incredible pollinators... why do we rely on the non-native honey bees?

while our native bees are good pollinators, they are NOT very manageable.

There are several subspecies/breeds of honeybees that all have different temperaments, behaviors, and production levels. Which subspecies is known for being the MOST defensive

African honeybee

How are honey bees able to provide billions of dollars in pollination benefits to US agriculture per year?

hives are rented for pollination and bees travel state-to-state to pollinate different agricultural crops. Ex. almonds in CA, canola in N. Dakota and Oklahoma, Sunflowers in kansas, etc.

A ____________ is a beekeeper who has 1-50 hives.

hobbyist

A ___________ is one who have 50-500 hives

sideliner

A ____________ is one who has 500-60,000 hives.

commercial

Honeybee colonies are experiencing huge losses. And while no ONE specific cause has been identified as the source of loss, we do know that many factors affect colony health. What plays the biggest role in survival of honey bees?

Management! pathogens, pesticides, malnutrition, parasites, and genetics

What is a superorganism with regard to honeybees?

the colony

what are the 3 "castes" within a bee colony?

1. queen 2. workers 3. drones

___________ form the bulk of the honeybee population. They are comprised of sterile females that perform all duties and labor for maintenance of the colony. They develop from a fertilized egg that is laid by the queen.

worker bees

________ are larger than worker bees, puffy in appearance, and do not have a stinger. They develop from unfertilized eggs and are reared in larger cells. They have longer periods of development than worker bees do. They are fed by the worker bees until they are abandoned by the hive.

drone bees

_______ is a necessary component of the colony because without this individual, the colony cannot function normally. If this individual is "good", she will lay strong fertile eggs with good genetics (disease resistance, hygienic behaviors, etc.)

queen bee

how many drones does the queen mate with on average?

T/F: the more "fertile" matings the queen has, the more she expresses pheromones that alert the worker bees to not kill her.

true

what is bee bread?

fermented pollen

describe the process of the queen bee laying an egg and it pupating

Queen lays her eggs within the cells of the comb (d 0-3) the eggs develop into larvae (d 4-10) the cells are "capped" and pupa develop (d 11-20) the adult bees emerge from the cells (d 21)

how do bees know their "job" within the colony?

it is based on age at ~1-5 days -- cleaning the hive at ~ 6-10 days -- brood care, tend to queen at ~11-17 days -- comb building, seal honey, repair, fanning, pack pollen, propolize, etc. at ~18-22 days -- guarding the hive >23 days old -- foraging bee (go out, highest risk)

You are called to a clients bee hive to investigate the bees who have these odd looking brown things on their backs that look like ticks. What is your presumptive diagnosis?

these are varroa mites! they carry virueses and weaken/cause failure of bee colonies

If you were looking at a bee histologically, and you see little round things within the trachea, what are these most likely?

tracheal mites

__________ is caused by a microsporidium. It reduces the lifespan and affects worker bees ability to produce brood food. It causes "diarrhea" in the bees, so the appearance of the hive will be really gross.

nosema

___________ is caused by paenibacillus larvae (spore-forming bacteria). These fouldbrood spores can last and remain infective for decades. Some states require the hive to be burnt or irradiated. Antibiotics do NOT work for this pathogen.

American foulbrood

___________ is caused by melissococcus plutonius. Treatment for this pathogen is re-queening, which breaks the reproductive cycle of the hive creating no susceptible larvae. It does NOT form spores, so it can be eliminated.

european foulbrood

how do veterinarians get involved with honeybee health?

there are new regulations regarding honeybees (medications, etc.) that are important to adhere to because honeybees are FOOD animals. honeybees can also benefit from preventative care, diagnoses, treatment efforts, and client education!

A ___________ is an official document issued by a federal, state, tribal, or accredited veterinarian certifying that the animals identified on the document have been inspected and were found to satisfy the regulations pertaining to their intended movement (within the same state, between states, or internationally).

certificate of veterinary inspection / health certificate

When are health certificates needed? (4)

1. international travel 2. interstate travel 3. going to shows/exhibits 4. sales or purchases

Who is authorized to issue a CVI for companion animals?

accredited veterinarians category 1 and 2

Who is authorized to issue a CVI for all animals?

accredited veterinarians category 2

A domestic CVI is needed for what type of movement or activities?

interstate fairs/shows sales of animals

Where can you find the requirements for CVIs for domestic/interstate movement?

on the USDA website under "find interstate movement requirements" OR go to GlobalVetLink

Who determines which domestic CVI type (hard copy or electronic) that they will accept?

the state veterinarian in the state for which you are traveling to

T/F: Hard copy USDA health certificates (Form 7001) are no longer accepted by all states, but GlobalLink electronic copies are.

true

why are electronic copies of CVIs more appealing and thus becoming more widely used?

1. quicker 2. less chance of fraud 3. ensure all requirements are met 4. sent directly to state vets office (no mailing req) 5. easily searchable if outbreak 6. integrates with practice management software

The requirements for entry of international travel are determined by ...

the receiving country

International CVIs in almost all cases require endorsement by _______________?

USDA, APHIS, Veterinary Services

T/F: some countries require their own certficates of inspection (bilingual, etc.) and usually require copies of original lab tests and certification statements.

true

T/F: non-accredited veterinarians can issue international CVIs because they require endorsement by the USDA

false -- only accredited veterinarians

What are some developing concerns regarding international CVIs?

security and fraud

_____________ provides a nationally unique identification number for each animal. The first two numbers on the tag are the numbers assigned to a specific state. These are typically metal tags.

national uniform eat tagging system (NUES)

An ________ contains 15 digits, with the first 3 being the country code.

animal identification number (AIN)

A _________-based number system is the official premises identification number + producers numbering system.

premises

which permanent identification NUES can cattle get?

brucella vaccination tag metal DHIA tag metal brite tag (stockyard tag)

which permanent identification AIN tag can cattle get?

an electronic identification (RFID tag)

which permanent identification NUES tag do swine get?

metal brite tag

which permanent identification AIN tag do swine get?

electronic identification (EID or RFID tag)

what type of premise-based number systems are used in swine herds?

plastic ear tags

how are horses identified?

1. color and markings 2. lip tattoos 3. animal ID brand 4. scars and markings 5. electronic picture

how are sheep identified?

premise-based number system -- scrapie identification tags, metal or plastic

how are dogs and cats identified?

tattoo (if avail), breed, sex, age, name, electronic chips

The __________ is a testing program for brucellosis in which cattle and swine are randomly picked and tested at the slaughter house.

slaughter test

The __________ is a brucellosis testing program that is performed 2-4 times per year and then reactor herds are blood tested.

milk ring test

Having a certified brucellosis free herd is beneficial for quick marketing of animals. How do you get a "brucellosis certified free herd" in cattle?

a negative whole herd test of all breeding age animals (>18 months old), tested yearly.

How do you get a "validated brucellosis free herd" in swine?

a whole herd negative test of all breeding animals or older than 6 months. 25% of the breeding animals are tested quarterly in order to maintain status.

How do you test for brucellosis?

1. collect blood sample and allow it to clot 2. spin off serum and label tubes, place in plastic bag 3. ship on ice to National Veterinary Services Lab (NVSL)

Only ________ are vaccianted for brucella with the which is the RB-51 live vaccine. It is given between 4-12 months of age. After, there will be a brucella ear tag and tattoo placed.

heifers

How do you obtain a "tuberculosis accredited free herd"?

negative whole herd test of all breeding animals (8 months or older initially, then older than 2y), tested every other year.

how do you test for tuberculosis?

inject PPD tuberculin intradermally visualize and palpate injection site at 72 hours in cattle or 48 hr in swine 3 possible results: 1. normal/no reaction 2. suspect 3. reactor (diffuse swelling, defined swelling, or redness)

what is the protocol for getting a "suspect" TB test result?

call state veterinarian state vet comes out to retest using a comparative cervical test within 10 days or after 60 days of original injection

how do you obtain a qualified pseudorabies-free herd?

quarterly blood testing of breeding herd screening tests first (LA and ELISA) if positive, then do serum neutralization (SN) test

Sheep and goats must be ear tagged with _________ identification tags. This includes all sheep > 18 months, all breeding sheep, goats pastured with sheep, and all milking goats.

scrapie

Describe the scrapie eradication program

slaughter surveillance they examine SR submitted for necropsy for neuro disease. codon QQ = susc to scrapie codon QR = mostly resistant codon RR = really resistant

The "Etc." (LA euthanasia, bee med, CVI, & regulatory medicine) Flashcards

(105 cards)