The Foundation Exam 2 Flashcards

1. All 75 questions should be attempted. 2. 5 of the 75 questions are under trial and will not contribute to your overall score. There is no indication of which questions are under trial. 3. All answers are to be marked on the answer sheet provided. 4. Please use a pencil and NOT ink to mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. There is only one correct answer per question. 5. You have 1 hour for this paper. 6. You must get 35 or more correct to pass.

1
Q

1 Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?

a) Customers
b) People
c) Benefits
d) Processes

A

1 Syllabus Topic:OV0101 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL1 - Recall the six aspects of project performance to be managed.

a) Incorrect. This is NOT one of the six aspects of project performance. Ref 1.5.2
b) Incorrect. This is NOT one of the six aspects of project performance. Ref 1.5.2
c) Correct. The Project Manager has to have a clear understanding of the purpose of the
project as an investment and make sure that what the project delivers is consistent with
achieving the desired outcome. Ref 1.5.2
d) Incorrect. This is NOT one of the six aspects of project performance. Ref 1.5.2

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2
Q

2 What is a trigger for the Starting up a Project process?

a) Project Brief
b) Project Plan
c) Project mandate
d) Outline Business Case

A

2 Syllabus Topic:SU0203 - Starting up a Project Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Starting up a Project process.

a) Incorrect. This is an output of the Starting up a Project process. Ref 12.4.5
b) Incorrect. This is created in the Initiating a Project process. Ref 14.4.6
c) Correct. This is the trigger for the Starting up a Project process. It is typically created
by corporate or programme management prior to the start of any project activity. Ref
12.3
d) Incorrect. This is an output of the Starting up a Project process. Ref 12.4.4

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3
Q

3 Which is a purpose of the Business Case theme?

a) Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
b) Establish methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified
c) Assess and control uncertain events or situations
d) Describe how, when and at what cost products can be delivered

A

3 Syllabus Topic:BC0201 - Business Case Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Business Case theme.

a) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Progress theme. Ref 10.1
b) Correct. This is a purpose of the Business Case theme, i.e. allows decisions regarding
continued project investment and benefit achievement to be made. Ref 4.1
c) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Risk theme. Ref 8.1
d) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Plans theme. Ref 7.1

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4
Q

4 Which role is responsible for creating a Team Plan in the Managing Product Delivery process?

a) Project Manager
b) Team Manager
c) Project Support
d) Senior User

A

4 Syllabus Topic:MP0203 - Managing Product Delivery Process
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Managing Product Delivery process.

a) Incorrect. The Project Manager is NOT responsible for creating a Team Plan. This is a
responsibility of a Team Manager in the Managing Product Delivery process. Ref 16.4.1
b) Correct. A Team Manager is responsible for creating a Team Plan in the Managing
Product Delivery process. Ref 16.3
c) Incorrect. Project Support is NOT responsible for creating a Team Plan. This is a
responsibility of a Team Manager in the Managing Product Delivery process. Ref 16.4.1
d) Incorrect. The Senior User is NOT responsible for creating a Team Plan. This is a
responsibility of a Team Manager in the Managing Product Delivery process. Ref 16.4.1

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5
Q

5 The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management team supports which
principle?

a) Continued business justification
b) Defined roles and responsibilities
c) Manage by stages
d) Learn from experience

A

5 Syllabus Topic:OV0202 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the seven principles.

a) Incorrect. The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management
team does NOT support the continued business justification principle. This principle
requires that a project has a documented justifiable reason to start which should remain
valid throughout the life of the project. Ref 2.1
b) Correct. The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management team
ensures they are allocated project roles and responsibilities. This principle requires that
a project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities within an organization
structure that engages the business, user and supplier stakeholder interests. Ref 2.3 /
5.2.5
c) Incorrect. The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management
team does NOT support the manage by stages principle. This principle requires that a
project is planned, monitored and controlled on a stage-by-stage basis. Ref 2.4
d) Incorrect. The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management
team does NOT support the learn from experience principle. This principle requires a
project team to learn from experience: lessons are sought, recorded and acted upon
throughout the life of the project. Ref 2.2

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6
Q

6 Which describes risk appetite?

a) An organization’s attitude towards risk-taking
b) Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives
c) Probable timeframe within which a risk may occur
d) Level of risk exposure that, when exceeded, triggers an exception

A

6 Syllabus Topic:RK0207 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the concept of risk appetite and risk tolerance.

a) Correct. An organization’s risk appetite is its unique attitude towards risk taking that in
turn dictates the amount of risk that it considers acceptable. Ref 8.3.2
b) Incorrect. This is the impact of the risk occurring. Ref 8.3.5.2
c) Incorrect. This is a definition of the risk proximity. Ref 8.3.5.2
d) Incorrect. This is risk tolerance. Ref 8.3.3

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7
Q

7 Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
If the Project Manager needs to know the results of a quality review, the [ ? ] will provide a
summary together with the date of any follow-up meeting.

a) Stage Plan
b) Issue Register
c) Daily Log
d) Quality Register

A

7 Syllabus Topic:QU0206.3 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Quality Register.

a) Incorrect. The Stage Plan will contain a schedule of the planned dates of the quality
checks. This will need to be updated with any further activities identified as a result of
the checks carried out. It will NOT provide a summary of the results. Ref A.16.2
b) Incorrect. The Issue Register contains a summary of the Issue Reports raised, some of
which may be as a result of a quality check. This will NOT provide a summary of all
quality checks. Ref A.12.2
c) Incorrect. The Daily Log is used to record problems, required actions or significant
events NOT caught by other registers. This would NOT provide a summary of all quality
checks. Ref A.7.1
d) Correct. The Quality Register records the results from the quality activities. Ref. A.23.1

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8
Q

8 How is the Project Initiation Documentation used during the Closing a Project process?

a) As the basis for comparing the original aim of the project against what was actually achieved
b) Provides the controls for the final stage of the project
c) Updated to include relevant lessons from previous projects
d) Provides the Project Product Description for approval by the Project Board

A

8 Syllabus Topic:CP0202 - Closing a Project Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objective of the Closing a Project process.

a) Correct. The Project Initiation Documentation, baselined in the Initiating a Project
process, is used as the benchmark to review how the project actually performed against
its planned targets and tolerances. Ref 18.2 / 18.4.4
b) Incorrect. The controls for the final stage are contained in the Stage Plan rather than the
PID. Ref 17.4.1
c) Incorrect. The Lessons Log and Lesson Report are NOT part of the Project Initiation
Documentation. Ref A.20.2
d) Incorrect. This is done when authorizing initiation. Ref 13.4.1

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9
Q

9 Which role agrees the techniques, products and constraints for a Work Package with the
Project Manager?

a) Executive
b) Project Assurance
c) Senior Supplier
d) Team Manager

A

9 Syllabus Topic:OR0203.5 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the role of a Team Manager.

a) Incorrect. The Executive is NOT involved in agreeing Work Packages, the role is focused
on ensuring the project delivers the expected benefits. Ref C.2
b) Incorrect. Project Assurance may review aspects of the Work Package, but does NOT
agree it. Ref C.7
c) Incorrect. The Senior Supplier provides resources to deliver the Work Package. Ref C.4
d) Correct. The Work Package is an agreement to deliver one or more products between
the Project Manager and the Team Manager. Ref 5.3.2.7 / 16.4.1

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10
Q

10 Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
PRINCE2 recommends three levels of [ ? ] to reflect the needs of the different levels of
management involved in a project.

a) product
b) activity
c) plan
d) benefit

A

10 Syllabus Topic:PL0101 - Plans Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL1 - Recall the levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2.

a) Incorrect. PRINCE2 does NOT recommend three levels of product. Ref 7.3.3
b) Incorrect. PRINCE2 does NOT recommend three levels of activity. Ref 7.3.4.1
c) Correct. The three levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2 are the Project Plan, Stage
Plan and Team Plan to reflect the different levels of management involved in a project.
Ref 7.2.3
d) Incorrect. PRINCE2 does NOT recommend three levels of benefit. Ref 4.2.2

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11
Q

11 Which is a purpose of a Configuration Item Record?

a) Record quality issues found in a quality test of the product
b) Explain which procedure should be used for updating the Configuration Item Records of
products completed in the stage
c) Explain which procedure should be used for transferring completed products into the
operational and maintenance environment
d) Record the development status of products in a completed Work Package

A

11 Syllabus Topic:CH0203.2 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a Configuration Item Record.

a) Incorrect. Quality issues are recorded in the quality records of a product, referenced in
the Quality Register. A.23.1
b) Incorrect. This information is documented in the Configuration Management Strategy.
Ref A.6.1
c) Incorrect. Handover procedures are documented in the Configuration Management
Strategy. Ref A.6.1
d) Correct. The Configuration Item Record should be checked to ensure that all records
have been updated and products approved, as suggested in the completed Work
Package. A.5.1

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12
Q

12 When authorizing a stage, in which product would the Project Board look for an explanation of
any deviations from the approved plans that are within tolerance?

a) Lessons Report
b) End Stage Report
c) Benefits Review Plan
d) Project Initiation Documentation

A

12 Syllabus Topic:PG0207.1 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of an End Stage Report.

a) Incorrect. If required, the Project Board reviews the Lessons Report and agrees who
should receive it. This may NOT explain any deviations. Ref. 13.4.3.
b) Correct. The Project Board would ascertain the performance of the project to date,
asking the Project Manager to explain any deviations from the approved plans and to
provide a forecast of project performance for the remainder of the project. Ref. A.9.1 /
13.4.3.
c) Incorrect. The Benefits Review Plan is reviewed and approved to ensure that any benefits
planned to be achieved within the next stage will be measured and reviewed. The
Benefits Review Plan does NOT explain deviations from plans. Ref. 13.4.3.
d) Incorrect. The strategies and project controls in the (updated) Project Initiation
Documentation will be confirmed as adequate for the remainder of the project. These will
NOT explain deviations from plans. Ref. 13.4.3.

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13
Q

13 Which of the following are a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan?

  1. Define how a measurement of the achievement of the project’s benefits can be made
  2. Define what benefits assessments need to be undertaken
  3. Define the project, in order to form the basis for its management and an assessment of
    its overall success
  4. Define the activities required to measure the expected project’s benefits
    a) 1, 2, 3
    b) 1, 2, 4
    c) 1, 3, 4
    d) 2, 3, 4
A

13 Syllabus Topic:BC0202.2 - Business Case Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Benefits Review Plan.

a) Incorrect. (4) Defines how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project’s
benefits, expected by the Senior User, can be made. Ref A.1.1
b) Correct. (3) This is a purpose of the Project Initiation Documentation. Ref A.20.1
c) Incorrect. (2) The Benefits Review Plan identifies the reviews needed to capture the
actual benefits realized both during the project and after project closure. Ref A.1.1
d) Incorrect. (1) The plan has to cover the activities to find out whether the expected
benefits of the products have been realized and how the products have performed when
in operational use. Ref A.1.1

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14
Q

14 Which is a purpose of the Organization theme?

a) Define the total resource requirements of the project
b) Capture the project acceptance criteria
c) Define the responsibilities for managing teams
d) Establish mechanisms to judge whether the project is desirable and achievable

A

14 Syllabus Topic:OR0201 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Organization theme.

a) Incorrect. Resources should include human and non-human resources. A definition of
total resource requirements is NOT part of the Organization theme. The theme defines
the roles and responsibilities NOT the resource needs. Resource needs are defined
within the Plans theme. Ref 7.3.6.3 / 7.3.6.7
b) Incorrect. The project acceptance criteria are captured in the Project Product
Description, defined in the Quality theme. Ref 6.3.1.3
c) Correct. The Organization theme does establish responsibilities for managing teams
(along with accountability). Ref 5.1
d) Incorrect. The purpose of the Business Case theme is to establish mechanisms to judge
whether the project is (and remains) desirable, viable and achievable as a means to
support decision making in its (continued) investment. Ref 4.1

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15
Q

15 Which is a purpose of a Project Brief?

a) Define how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project’s benefits can be made
b) Define any lessons from previous projects and how they may affect this project
c) Communicate the quality techniques and standards to be applied to achieve the required
quality levels
d) Provide sufficient information for the decision on whether to initiate the project

A

15 Syllabus Topic:SU0204 - Starting up a Project Process
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a Project Brief.

a) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan. Ref A.1.1
b) Incorrect. The Lessons Log is created during the Starting up a Project process and is
updated throughout the project. This may contribute to, but is NOT a purpose of, the
Project Brief. Ref 12.4.2
c) Incorrect. The Quality Management Strategy provides this information. Ref 14.4.3
d) Correct. A Project Brief is used to provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of the
project. A.19.1

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16
Q

16 Which is a purpose of a Risk Management Strategy?

a) Communicate how risk management will be implemented throughout the wider corporate
organization
b) Capture and maintain information on all identified risks relating to the project
c) Document specific actions for responding to risks
d) Describe the procedures and techniques for managing project risks

A

16 Syllabus Topic:RK0206.1 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a Risk Management Strategy.

a) Incorrect. This is defined in an organization’s risk management policy. Ref 8.3.2
b) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Risk Register. Ref 8.3.4
c) Incorrect. Specific risk responses are decided in the Plan step of the risk management
procedure. Ref 8.3.5.3
d) Correct. The Risk Management Strategy describes the specific risk management
techniques and standards to be applied and the responsibilities for achieving an effective
risk management procedure. Ref A.24.1

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17
Q

17 Which is NOT a purpose of the Plans theme?

a) Facilitate communication
b) Establish the project’s structure of accountability
c) Define the means of delivering the products
d) Ensure targets are achievable

A

17 Syllabus Topic:PL0201 - Plans Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Plans theme.

a) Incorrect. The purpose of the Plans theme is to facilitate communication and control by
defining the means of delivering the products (the where and how, by whom, and
estimating the when and how much). Ref 7.1
b) Correct. This is a purpose of the Organization theme. Ref 5.1
c) Incorrect. The purpose of the Plans theme is to facilitate communication and control by
defining the means of delivering the products (the where and how, by whom, and
estimating the when and how much). Ref 7.1
d) Incorrect. The purpose of the Plans theme is to facilitate communication and control by
defining the means of delivering the products (the where and how, by whom, and
estimating the when and how much). Ref 7.1

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18
Q

18 Which is a purpose of the Directing a Project process?

a) Enable the Project Board to exercise overall control of a project
b) Document a solid foundation for the project
c) Establish the prerequisites for the initiation of a project
d) Assign Work Packages

A

18 Syllabus Topic:DP0201 - Directing a Project Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Directing a Project process.

a) Correct. The purpose of the Directing a Project process is to enable the Project Board to
be accountable for the project’s success by making key decisions and exercising overall
control while delegating day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager.
Ref 13.1
b) Incorrect. The Initiating a Project process establishes solid foundations for the project.
Ref 14.1
c) Incorrect. The Starting up a Project process ensures the prerequisites are in place for
initiating a project. Ref 12.1
d) Incorrect. The Controlling a Stage process enables the Project Manager to assign work
to be done, monitor such work, deal with issues, report progress to the Project Board
and take corrective action. Ref 15.1

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19
Q

19 What takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

a) Periodic review of progress against the Stage Plan
b) Obtain approvals for all completed products
c) Escalation of Issue Reports created during the current stage
d) Review of the business justification for the project

A

19 Syllabus Topic:SB0203 - Managing a Stage Boundary Process
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Managing a Stage Boundary process.

a) Incorrect. Reviewing stage status takes place in the Controlling a Stage process. Ref
15.4.4
b) Incorrect. Approvals for completed products should be obtained during the Managing
Product Delivery process. Ref 16.4.2
c) Incorrect. This happens throughout the Controlling a Stage process and is ad-hoc, as
and when an Issue Report arises. Escalation is NOT left until the end of the stage. Ref
15.4.7
d) Correct. The Business Case may be updated in light of any changes from the previous
stage, and to reflect any changes in the original estimated costs and timescales of the
next Stage Plan. Ref 17.3

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20
Q

20 Which is a type of issue?

a) Problem/concern
b) Follow-on action recommendation
c) Exception Report
d) Identified threat

A

20 Syllabus Topic:CH0101 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL1 - Recall of the 3 types of issue.

a) Correct. This can often be dealt with informally. Problems or concerns may later be
transferred to the Issue Register if after examining them it is decided they need to be
treated more formally. Ref 9.2.4 / Table 9.1
b) Incorrect. This is NOT a type of issue. Ref Table 9.1. Follow-on action recommendations
are recommended actions related to unfinished work, ongoing issues and risks, and any
other activities needed to take a product to the next phase of its life. Ref 18.4.3
c) Incorrect. An Exception Report may be raised as a result of an issue. This is NOT a
type of issue. Ref Table 9.1.
d) Incorrect. This is NOT a type of issue. This is a risk. Ref Table 9.1 / 8.2.1

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21
Q

21 Which is a characteristic of a project?

a) Low risk
b) Avoids stresses and strains between organizations
c) Business as usual
d) Cross-functional

A

21 Syllabus Topic:OV0203 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the characteristics of a project

a) Incorrect. Projects introduce threats and opportunities over and above those we typically
encounter in the course of business as usual. Ref 1.3
b) Incorrect. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization and
sometimes span entirely different organizations. This frequently causes stresses and
strains. Ref 1.3
c) Incorrect. A project is a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products. There are a number of characteristics of
project work that distinguishes it from business as usual. Ref 1.3
d) Correct. Projects involve a team of people with different skills working together to
introduce a change that will impact others outside the team. Ref 1.3

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22
Q

22 Which is NOT a recommended response type to respond to a threat?

a) Avoid
b) Reject
c) Share
d) Transfer

A

22 Syllabus Topic:RK0102 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL1 - Recall the risk response types for a threat.

a) Incorrect. This is a recommended response type used to avoid a threat. Ref Table 8.2
b) Correct. This is a recommended response type used for an opportunity. Ref Table 8.2
c) Incorrect. This is a recommended response type used for either a threat or an
opportunity in a pain/gain formula. Ref Table 8.2
d) Incorrect. This is a recommended response type used to transfer a threat to a third
party. Ref Table 8.2

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23
Q

23 Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

a) Request authorization to start the next stage
b) Ensure that all threats and opportunities for the current stage have been closed
c) Make certain that work on products allocated to the team for the next stage is authorized and
agreed
d) Implement actions to resolve tolerance deviations from the Stage Plan

A

23 Syllabus Topic:SB0202 - Managing a Stage Boundary Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objectives of the Managing a Stage Boundary process.

a) Correct. An objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process is for the Project
Manager to request authorization from the Project Board to start the next stage. Ref
17.2
b) Incorrect. Risks do NOT have to be closed at the end of a stage. During each of the
activities within the Managing a Stage Boundary process, the Issue Register and Risk
Register are updated as necessary. Ref 17.4
c) Incorrect. This is an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process, which ensures
that work on products allocated to a team is authorized and agreed in a Work Package.
Ref. 16.2
d) Incorrect. An Exception Plan may be prepared in this process to show how to recover
from a tolerance deviation, but selecting and putting into force actions to resolve the
deviation would occur when taking corrective action in the Controlling a Stage process.
Ref. 15.4.8

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24
Q

24 In which process are the project’s risk management techniques and standards defined?

a) Starting up a Project
b) Directing a Project
c) Initiating a Project
d) Managing Product Delivery

A

24 Syllabus Topic:IP0202 - Initiating a Project Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objectives of the Initiating a Project process.

a) Incorrect. In the Starting up a Project process the project is verified as worthwhile and
viable, but the Risk Management Strategy is prepared in the Initiating a Project process.
Ref 12.1
b) Incorrect. The Directing a Project process does NOT cover management of risk, it is a
Project Board decision-making process. Ref 13.1
c) Correct. The Risk Management Strategy prepared in the Initiating a Project process
identifies the risk techniques and standards to be used. Ref 14.2 / 14.4.1
d) Incorrect. The Managing Product Delivery process is used to deliver project work and
does NOT describe risk management techniques. Ref 16.1

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25
Q

25 Which is a purpose of a Daily Log?

a) Record the products and activities planned for the stage
b) Record informal issues
c) Record and track the status of all products produced during a stage
d) Update the Project Board on the progress of a stage

A

25 Syllabus Topic:PG0206.1 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Daily Log.

a) Incorrect. This information is captured in the Stage Plan. Ref A.16.2
b) Correct. The Project Manager should record issues that are being managed informally in
the Daily Log. Ref 10.3.3.2 / A.7.1
c) Incorrect. This information is captured in a Product Status Account and Configuration
Item Records, NOT the Daily Log. Ref A.18.2 / A.5.2
d) Incorrect. This information is captured in a Highlight Report. Ref A.11.2

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26
Q

26 Which is an objective of the quality review technique?

a) Determine whether a product has been created
b) Agree the quality method that will be applied to a product
c) Formulate ideas on how the product will be developed
d) Provide consultation with a range of interested parties on a product’s fitness for purpose

A

26 Syllabus Topic:QU0203 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objectives of the quality review technique.

a) Incorrect. This is a project control exercise. Ref 6.3.2
b) Incorrect. This is part of quality planning. Ref 6.2.4
c) Incorrect. The product is developed before a quality review is conducted. Ref 6.3.2
d) Correct. This is a defined objective of the quality review technique. An objective of all
quality methods is to involve the people who are interested in the product to gain their
acceptance. Ref 6.3.2.1

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27
Q

27 When does the Directing a Project process start?

a) On completion of the Starting up a Project process
b) On completion of the Initiating a Project process
c) When the Starting up a Project process commences
d) After the project has been authorized

A

27 Syllabus Topic:DP0203 - Directing a Project Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Directing a Project process.

a) Correct. The Directing a Project process starts on completion of the Starting up a
Project process and is triggered by the request to initiate a project. Ref 13.3
b) Incorrect. The Directing a Project process starts on completion of the Starting up a
Project process and is triggered by the request to initiate a project. Ref 13.3
c) Incorrect. The Directing a Project process starts on completion of the Starting up a
Project process and is triggered by the request to initiate a project. Ref 13.3
d) Incorrect. The Directing a Project process starts on completion of the Starting up a
Project process and is triggered by the request to initiate a project. Ref 13.3

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28
Q

28 Which plan is mandatory?

a) Team Plan
b) Exception Plan
c) Project Plan
d) Programme Plan

A

28 Syllabus Topic:PL0202 - Plans Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the levels of plans, their purpose and the interrelationships between
the Project Plan, Stage Plans, Team Plans and an Exception Plan.

a) Incorrect: This plan is optional depending on the size and complexity of the project and
the number of resources required. Ref 7.2.6
b) Incorrect. This plan replaces a Project, Stage or Team Plan that is in exception. Ref
7.2.7
c) Correct. All projects should have a Project Plan, even if this simply comprises of Product
Descriptions and a schedule. Ref 19.5.1.1
d) Incorrect. NOT all projects are part of a programme. Ref 7.2.3

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29
Q

29 On which environment is PRINCE2 based?

a) Information technology
b) Customer/supplier
c) Procurement
d) Programme

A

29 Syllabus Topic:OV0104 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL1 - Recall the customer/supplier context of a PRINCE2 project

a) Incorrect. PRINCE2 is NOT IT orientated. Ref 5.1
b) Correct. PRINCE2 is based on a customer/supplier environment. Ref 5.1
c) Incorrect. PRINCE2 does NOT cover procurement projects to any depth. Ref 5.1
d) Incorrect. A project may be stand-alone. Ref 5.1

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30
Q

30 Which theme assesses and controls uncertainty within a project?

a) Progress
b) Risk
c) Change
d) Plans

A

30 Syllabus Topic:RK0201 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Risk theme.

a) Incorrect. The Progress theme establishes mechanisms to monitor and compare
achievements against planned. Ref 10.1
b) Correct. The purpose of the Risk theme is to identify, monitor and control uncertainty
and, as a result, improve the ability of the project to succeed. Ref 8.1
c) Incorrect. The Change theme assesses and controls potential and approved changes to
the baseline. Ref 9.1
d) Incorrect. The Plans theme defines the means of delivering the products. Ref 7.1

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31
Q

31 Which of the following is funded from a change budget?

a) Fallback plan
b) Request for change
c) Action to reduce a threat
d) Change Authority

A

31 Syllabus Topic:CH0202 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a change budget.

a) Incorrect. This is risk response and should be funded from a risk budget. Ref 8.3.6
b) Correct. A change budget is a sum of money that the customer and supplier agree will
be used to fund the cost of requests for change, and possibly also their analysis costs.
Ref 9.3.1.1
c) Incorrect. A risk reduction action should be funded from the risk budget. Ref 8.3.6
d) Incorrect. The Change Authority is a project management team role, funded from the
project budget along with other members of the team. Ref 9.3.1.1

32
Q

32 Which is an aim of the Starting up a Project process?

a) Understand how and when the project’s products will be delivered and at what cost
b) Ensure that there is authority to deliver the project’s products
c) Do the minimum necessary in order to decide whether it is worthwhile to even initiate the
project
d) Create the set of management products required to control the project

A

32 Syllabus Topic:SU0201 - Starting up a Project Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Starting up a Project process.

a) Incorrect. This is an objective of the Initiating a Project process. Ref 14.1
b) Incorrect. This is an objective of the Directing a Project process. Ref 13.1
c) Correct. The Starting up a Project process is a lighter process compared to the more
detailed and thorough Initiating a Project process. Ref 12.1
d) Incorrect. The suite of management products make up the Project Initiation
Documentation which is created during the Initiating a Project process. Ref 14.3

33
Q

33 Which is a responsibility of the Project Manager?

a) Delegating responsibility for changes to the Change Authority
b) Documenting the Communication Management Strategy
c) Approving stage tolerances
d) Approving the customer’s quality expectations

A

33 Syllabus Topic:OR0203.2 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the role of the Project Manager.

a) Incorrect. The Project Board is responsible for change control and only they can decide
to delegate responsibility for this. Ref 9.3.1.1
b) Correct. The Project Manager is responsible for documenting the Communication
Management Strategy during the Initiating a Project process. Ref 5.3.5.3
c) Incorrect. Setting of stage tolerance is a Project Board responsibility. Ref 10.3.1.1
d) Incorrect. The Project Manager will document the customer’s quality expectations in the
Starting up a Project process, but they are approved by the Project Board NOT the
Project Manager. Ref 12.4.4 / 13.4.1

34
Q

34 Which is NOT a factor to consider when defining management stages?

a) How long the project is
b) When Team Managers are available
c) When key decisions are required on the project
d) The amount of risk within the project

A

34 Syllabus Topic:PG0204 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the factors in identifying management stages.

a) Incorrect. The number of management stages required will be dictated by the nature and
duration of the project. For short-duration projects, the introduction of multiple stages
could result in unnecessary overheads and additional costs. Ref 10.3.2.1
b) Correct. The availability of Team Managers is NOT a consideration when defining
management stages. Management stages equate to commitment of resources and
authority to spend. Ref 10.3.2.3
c) Incorrect. Defining management stages is fundamentally a process of balancing where
the key decision points need to be on the project. Ref 10.3.2.1
d) Incorrect. Management stages can be very useful as a means of bringing Project Board
control to risky projects. Stage breaks can be inserted at key points when risks to the
project can be reviewed before major commitment of money or resources. Ref 10.3.2.2

35
Q

35 Which process ensures that plans for achieving the expected benefits are managed and
reviewed?

a) Managing Product Delivery
b) Initiating a Project
c) Directing a Project
d) Starting up a Project

A

35 Syllabus Topic:DP0202 - Directing a Project Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objectives of the Directing a Project process.

a) Incorrect. The Managing Product Delivery process is focused on accepting, executing
and delivering the product work. Ref 16.1
b) Incorrect. The Benefits Review Plan is created in this process, but it is a Project Board
responsibility to ensure that it is managed and reviewed within the Directing a Project
process. Ref 14.4.7 / 13.2
c) Correct. Plans for achieving the expected benefits should be created in the Initiating a
Project process, but it is an objective of the Directing a Project process to ensure that
the plan is managed and reviewed. Ref 14.4.7 / 13.2
d) Incorrect. This is too early as the Benefits Review Plan has NOT been created at this
point in the project. The Benefits Review Plan is created in the Initiating a Project
process, which follows the Starting up a Project process. Ref 13.2

36
Q

36 Which of the following are a purpose of an Issue Report?

  1. Document an off-specification
  2. Record an issue’s resolution
  3. Capture all problems or concerns within the project
  4. Capture recommendations for handling a request for change

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4

A

36 Syllabus Topic:CH0203.3 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of an Issue Report.

a) Incorrect. (4) An Issue Report is a report containing the description, impact assessment
and recommendations for a request for change, off-specification or problem/concern. Ref
A.13.1
b) Correct. (3) An Issue Report is only created for those issues that need to be handled
formally. Ref A.13.1
c) Incorrect. (2) The Issue Report is amended in order to record the option decided upon,
and finally updated when the implementation has been verified and the issue is closed.
Ref A.13.1
d) Incorrect. (1) Any off-specification that the Project Manager wishes to manage formally
should be added to the Issue Register and an Issue Report created for it to capture
details already known about the issue. Ref A.13.1/ 9.3.3.1

37
Q

37 Which product establishes the baseline against which the project’s actual performance is
compared?

a) Project Brief
b) Product Status Account
c) Project Initiation Documentation
d) Configuration Item Record

A

37 Syllabus Topic:IP0204 - Initiating a Project Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Project Initiation Documentation.

a) Incorrect. In the Initiating a Project process, the Project Brief is extended and refined in
the Project Initiation Documentation, after which the Project Brief is no longer
maintained. Ref A.19.1
b) Incorrect. The Product Status Account provides information about the status of products.
Ref A.18.1
c) Correct. The purpose of the Project Initiation Documentation is to define the project, in
order to form the basis for its management and an assessment of its overall success.
Ref A.20.1
d) Incorrect. A Configuration Item Record records the history, status, version and variant of
each configuration item. Ref A.5.1

38
Q

38 Which is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure?

a) Products to be created by internal resources
b) Products to be modified
c) Resources required to produce the products
d) Products to be created by an external third party

A

38 Syllabus Topic:PL0203 - Plans Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the product-based planning technique.

a) Incorrect. All major products are shown in the product breakdown structure: those that
are to be created by internal resources, and those to be created by an external third
party supplier. Ref 7.3.3.2
b) Incorrect. The product breakdown structure should identify all those products that are
within the scope of the plan. Ref 7.3.3.2
c) Correct. A product breakdown structure does NOT identify resources required to produce
the products. Ref 7.3.3.2
d) Incorrect. All major products are shown in the product breakdown structure: those that
are to be created in the project, and those to be created by an external third party
supplier. Ref 7.3.3.2

39
Q

39 Which statement regarding a project’s outputs, outcomes and benefits is correct?

a) All outputs have tangible benefits
b) Outcomes are the long term results of benefits
c) Outputs are changes in the way the project’s products are used
d) Benefits are improvements resulting from project outcomes

A

39 Syllabus Topic:BC0101 - Business Case Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL1 - Recall the definition of a project output, an outcome, a benefit and a dis-benefit.

a) Incorrect. An output is any of the project’s specialist products and can be either tangible
or intangible. Ref 4.2.2
b) Incorrect. An outcome is derived from using the project outputs, whereas benefits may
NOT be realized for some time after project closure. Ref 4.2.2
c) Incorrect. An output is any of the project’s specialist products, and the way they are
used is part of the outcome. Ref 4.2.2
d) Correct. A benefit is the measurable improvement resulting from an outcome that is
perceived as an advantage by one or more stakeholders. Ref 4.2.2

40
Q

40 What process covers the acceptance and execution of project work by external suppliers?

a) Controlling a Stage
b) Managing a Stage Boundary
c) Managing Product Delivery
d) Directing a Project

A

40 Syllabus Topic:MP0201 - Managing Product Delivery Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Managing Product Delivery process.

a) Incorrect. This is where work is assigned and monitored. Ref 15.1
b) Incorrect. This is where a project is reviewed and its continued viability confirmed. Ref
17. 1
c) Correct. This is a purpose of Managing Product Delivery. Ref 16.1
d) Incorrect. This is where a project is given approval to proceed. Ref 13.1

41
Q

41 Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?

a) The principles
b) The techniques
c) The themes
d) Tailoring to the project environment

A

41 Syllabus Topic:OV0103 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL1 - Recall the 4 integrated elements.

a) Incorrect. Principles is one of the integrated elements, being the core on which
PRINCE2 is based. Ref 1.5.3
b) Correct. Techniques is NOT one of the integrated elements. Ref 1.5.3
c) Incorrect. Themes is one of the integrated elements. Ref 1.5.3
d) Incorrect. Tailoring the method to suit the environment is one of the integrated elements.
Ref 1.5.3

42
Q

42 What is the goal of the ‘Identify context’ step within the risk management procedure?

a) Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case
b) Understand the specific objectives that are at risk
c) Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board
d) Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project’s objectives

A

42 Syllabus Topic:RK0202 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the steps within the recommended risk management procedure.

a) Incorrect. This is part of the risk management procedure activity to plan responses to the
risk. Ref 8.3.5.3
b) Correct. The primary goal of the ‘Identify context’ step is to obtain information about the
project in order to understand the specific objectives that are at risk and to formulate the
Risk Management Strategy for the project. Ref 8.3.5.1
c) Incorrect. This is done in when reporting highlights as part of the risk management
procedure to communicate risks. Ref 8.3.5.5
d) Incorrect. This is part of the ‘Identify Risks’ step, rather than the ‘Identify Context’ step.
Ref 8.3.5.1

43
Q

43 Which is a purpose of the Project Product Description?

a) Defines the reporting structure to be used by the project
b) Provides information on what the project is about and how it is being managed
c) Describes what the project has to produce to obtain customer acceptance
d) Provides input to the creation of the project mandate

A

43 Syllabus Topic:QU0206.1 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Project Product Description.

a) Incorrect. This is recorded in the controls section of Project Initiation Documentation. Ref
A.20.1
b) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Project Initiation Documentation. Ref A.20.1
c) Correct. The purpose of the Project Product Description is to define what the project has
to deliver in order to gain acceptance. Ref A.21.1
d) Incorrect. The project mandate is the trigger for the project and it provides input to the
creation of the Project Product Description. Ref 12.4.4

44
Q

44 Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?

a) Agree, perform and deliver project work
b) Draft a plan for the next stage
c) Agree stage tolerances
d) Take action to make sure that the stage remains within tolerance

A

44 Syllabus Topic:CS0201 - Controlling a Stage Process
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Controlling a Stage process.

a) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Managing Product Delivery process. Ref 16.1
b) Incorrect. This is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process. Ref 17.1
c) Incorrect. The Stage Plan for the next stage is created in the Managing a Stage
Boundary process and approved in the Directing a Project process. Ref 17.1 / 13.4.3
d) Correct. The purpose of the Controlling a Stage process is to assign work, monitor it,
deal with issues, report progress and take corrective action to ensure that the stage
remains within tolerance. Ref 15.1

45
Q

45 Which of the following roles can the Project Manager also perform?

  1. Change Authority
  2. Project Assurance
  3. Project Support
  4. Team Manager

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4

A

45 Syllabus Topic:OR0203.2 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the role of Project Assurance.

a) Incorrect. (4) The Project Manager can also perform the role of Team Manager if no
additional Team Manager staff are used. Ref 5.3.2.7
b) Incorrect. (3) The Project Manager can also perform the role of Project Support if no
additional Project Support staff are used. Ref 5.3.2.8
c) Correct. (2) The Project Manager CANNOT perform the role of Project Assurance; these
two roles must always be kept independent of each other. Ref 5.3.2.3
d) Incorrect. (1) The Project Manager can also perform the role of Change Authority if
delegated to them by the Project Board. Ref 5.3.2.4

46
Q

46 What defines the sequence in which the products of a plan should be developed?

a) Product Description
b) Product breakdown structure
c) Project Product Description
d) Product flow diagram

A

46 Syllabus Topic:PL0203 - Plans Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the product-based planning technique.

a) Incorrect. This describes a product, NOT the sequence of development of products. Ref
7.3.3.3
b) Incorrect. This is a hierarchical structure which shows the Project Product Description
broken down into its major products which are then further broken down until an
appropriate level of detail is reached. It does NOT show the sequence of development of
products. Ref 7.3.3.2
c) Incorrect. This is a special form of Product Description that defines what the project has
to deliver in order to gain customer acceptance. It does NOT show the sequence of
development of products. Ref 7.3.3.1
d) Correct. This defines the sequence in which the products of the plan will be developed,
and any dependencies between them. Ref 7.3.3.4

47
Q

47 If a Work Package is forecast to exceed its tolerances, how should a Team Manager inform
the Project Manager?

a) Raise an Exception Report
b) Issue an Exception Plan
c) Raise an issue
d) Raise a risk

A

47 Syllabus Topic:PG0205 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand when and how tolerances are set and exceptions reported.

a) Incorrect. If a Team Manager is forecast to exceed tolerances agreed in a Work
Package, they should raise an issue to the Project Manager. The Project Manager will
then advise on corrective actions required. Ref 10.3.4
b) Incorrect. If a Team Manager is forecast to exceed tolerances agreed in a Work
Package, they should raise an issue to the Project Manager. The Project Manager will
then advise on corrective actions required. Ref 10.3.4
c) Correct. If a Team Manager is forecast to exceed tolerances agreed in a Work Package,
they should raise an issue to the Project Manager. The Project Manager will then advise
on corrective actions required. Ref 10.3.4
d) Incorrect. If a Team Manager is forecast to exceed tolerances agreed in a Work
Package, they should raise an issue to the Project Manager. The Project Manager will
then advise on corrective actions required. Ref 10.3.4

48
Q

48 Which process enables an organization to understand the work to be done on a project before
the project’s approval?

a) Directing a Project
b) Initiating a Project
c) Starting up a Project
d) Controlling a Stage

A

48 Syllabus Topic:IP0201 - Initiating a Project Process
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Initiating a Project process.

a) Incorrect. The purpose of the Directing a Project process is to enable the Project Board
to be accountable for the project’s success by making key decisions and exercising
overall control while delegating day-to-day management of the project to the Project
Manager. Ref 13.1
b) Correct. The Initiating a Project process establishes solid foundations for the project. Ref
14.1
c) Incorrect. The Starting up a Project process ensures the prerequisites are in place for
initiating a project. Ref 12.1
d) Incorrect. The Controlling a Stage process enables the Project Manager to assign work
to be done, monitor such work, deal with issues, report progress to the Project Board
and take corrective action. Ref 15.1

49
Q

49 Which is a responsibility of the Project Assurance role?

a) Inform the Project Manager about the status of the project’s products
b) Document the Project Board’s reporting needs
c) Ensure the Project Manager is aware of the need to use any existing corporate standards
d) Inform corporate or programme management about the project’s status

A

49 Syllabus Topic:OR0203.3 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the role of Project Assurance.

a) Incorrect. This is a Team Manager responsibility NOT a Project Assurance
responsibility. Ref 5.3.2.7
b) Incorrect. The Project Board reporting needs are agreed between the Project Board and
the Project Manager and then documented by the Project Manager. Ref 5.3.2.6
c) Correct. Project Assurance have the responsibility to ensure the Project Manager is
aware of any corporate standards that apply to the project. Ref 5.3.2.3
d) Incorrect. This is an Executive responsibility NOT a Project Assurance one. Ref 5.3.2.2

50
Q

50 When is it confirmed if a project’s objectives have been achieved?

a) During the Closing a Project process
b) During the final end stage assessment
c) During the post-project review
d) During the Managing Product Delivery process

A

50 Syllabus Topic:CP0201 - Closing a Project Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Closing a Project process.

a) Correct. The purpose of the Closing a Project process is to provide a fixed point at which
acceptance of the project product is confirmed, and to recognize that objectives set out
in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved, or that the project
has nothing more to contribute. Ref 18.1
b) Incorrect. There is NOT an end stage assessment at the end of the final stage. Ref 18.3.
See rationale A.
c) Incorrect. The post-project review occurs after the project has closed. Ref 18.3. See
rationale A.
d) Incorrect. The Managing Product Delivery process is used to control delivery of the
project’s products at Work Package level and interfaces with the Controlling a Stage
process. Ref 16.1. See rationale A.

51
Q

51 Which is a definition of a risk cause?

a) The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
b) The source of a risk
c) The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case
d) How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation

A

51 Syllabus Topic:RK0205 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - The difference between the cause, event and effect of a risk.

a) Incorrect. Risk cause is the trigger of the risk and does NOT describe risk impact. Also
risk impact is the effect on the delivery of the project objectives, NOT tolerance. Ref
8.3.5.1
b) Correct. The cause should describe the source of the risk, i.e. the event or situation that
gives rise to the risk. Ref 8.3.5.1.
c) Incorrect. This is a definition of the risk effect which is the impact on objectives. Ref
8.3.5.1
d) Incorrect. Likelihood describes the probability of the risk. Ref 8.3.5.2

52
Q

52 When would the Team Manager be required to produce a Checkpoint Report?

a) When a Work Package is being negotiated
b) At the frequency agreed in the Work Package
c) On completion of the quality-checking activities for each product
d) When reviewing how a stage is progressing

A

52 Syllabus Topic:MP0202 - Managing Product Delivery Process
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the objectives of the Managing Product Delivery process..

a) Incorrect. This is where the Project Manager and Team Manager agree the timing of
Checkpoint Reports. Ref 10.3.3.4 / 16.4.1
b) Correct. A Team Manager is required to provide Checkpoint Reports at the frequency
agreed with the Project Manager in the relevant Work Package. Ref 16.2 / 10.3.3.4 /
16.4.2
c) Incorrect. Checkpoints are a time-driven control and done at a frequency agreed in the
Work Package, NOT driven by such events as completing quality-checking activities.
Ref 10.3.3.4 / 16.4.2
d) Incorrect. The Team Manager is NOT involved in this activity. Ref 10.3.3.2 / 15.4.4

53
Q

53 Which is a recommended quality review team role?

a) Project Manager
b) Presenter
c) Project Support
d) Producer

A

53 Syllabus Topic:QU0101 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL1 - Recall the recommended quality review team roles.

a) Incorrect. The recommended quality review roles are Chair, Presenter, Reviewer and
Administrator. Ref 6.3.2.1
b) Correct. The recommended quality review roles are Chair, Presenter, Reviewer and
Administrator. Ref 6.3.2.1
c) Incorrect. The recommended quality review roles are Chair, Presenter, Reviewer and
Administrator. Ref 6.3.2.1
d) Incorrect. The recommended quality review roles are Chair, Presenter, Reviewer and
Administrator. Ref 6.3.2.1

54
Q

54 Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and
foreseeable?

a) Continued business justification
b) Manage by exception
c) Focus on products
d) Manage by stages

A

54 Syllabus Topic:OV0202 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understanding of the seven principles.

a) Incorrect. The continued business justification principle supports the need for a
documented justification for the start, continuation and termination of a project. It
ensures that decisions are made based on business justification. Ref 2.1
b) Incorrect. The manage by exception principle supports the need for defined tolerances
for each project objective to establish limits of delegated authority. It ensures that
decisions are made at the right level in the organization. Ref 2.5
c) Incorrect. The focus of products principle supports focusing on the definition and delivery
of products, in particular their quality requirements. It ensures there is a common
understanding of what is to be delivered. Ref 2.7
d) Correct. A PRINCE2 project is planned, monitored and controlled on a stage-by-stage
basis. An outline plan is prepared for the long term, while a detailed plan is only valid for
the short term. Ref 2.4

55
Q

55 In which situation might the Controlling a Stage process be used?

a) Managing a long initiation stage of a complex project
b) Managing the activities of a complex programme
c) Managing support activities following the handover of the products to the operational
environment
d) Creating an Exception Plan to replace the current Stage Plan

A

55 Syllabus Topic:CS0203 - Controlling a Stage Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - The context of the Controlling a Stage process.

a) Correct. For complex projects with a large initiation stage, the Controlling a Stage
process can be used to control the activities. Ref 15.3
b) Incorrect. The Controlling a Stage process is used by the Project Manager to manage
the day-to-day activities of a stage, NOT a programme. Ref 15.3
c) Incorrect. Support activities are business as usual. Controlling a Stage is a project
process. Ref 15.3
d) Incorrect. Creating an Exception Plan is an activity within the Managing a Stage
Boundary process. Ref 17.4

56
Q

56 Which is a responsibility of the business representative on the Project Board?

a) Setting tolerance levels for the project
b) Ensuring the project represents value for money
c) Confirming the project delivers the required functionality
d) Checking the required quality levels are achieved by the project’s products

A

56 Syllabus Topic:OR0202 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the three project interests.

a) Incorrect. Project tolerance levels are set by corporate or programme management. The
Project Board sets stage tolerance levels. Ref 5.3.1
b) Correct. The Executive is appointed to ensure that the project is focused on achieving
and delivering a product that will achieve the forecast benefits and will deliver value for
money. Ref 5.3.2.2 / 5.2.5
c) Incorrect. This is part of the responsibilities/focus of the Senior User who is appointed by
the Executive. Ref 5.3.2.2
d) Incorrect. This is part of the responsibilities/focus of the Senior Supplier who is
appointed by the Executive. Ref 5.3.2.2

57
Q

57 Which statement correctly describes the relationship between Project Assurance and quality
assurance?

a) Project Assurance provides assurance to the project’s stakeholders whereas quality
assurance provides assurance to the wider corporate or programme organization
b) They are both the responsibility of the Project Board, but Project Assurance may be
delegated.
c) They are both independent of the project
d) Project Assurance and quality assurance are both the responsibility of corporate or
programme management

A

57 Syllabus Topic:QU0202 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the relationship between quality assurance and Project Assurance.

a) Correct. Quality assurance provides assurance to corporate or programme management
on the project’s compliance with corporate standards and policies. Project Assurance
provides assurance to the project’s stakeholders that the project is being conducted
properly. Ref Table 6.1
b) Incorrect. Quality assurance is the responsibility of the programme or corporate
organization. Ref 6.2.6
c) Incorrect. Quality assurance is independent of the project, Project Assurance is
independent of the Project Manager but NOT the project. Ref Table 6.1
d) Incorrect. Project Assurance is the responsibility of the Project Board. Quality
assurnace is the responsibility of corporate or programme management. Ref Table 6.1

58
Q

58 Which of the following assists the Project Board in assessing project viability at certain points
as defined in the Project Plan?

a) Receiving regular Checkpoint Reports
b) Authorizing one stage at a time
c) Creating Exception Reports when tolerances are threatened
d) Authorizing project closure

A

58 Syllabus Topic:PG0203 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the concept of management stages and the difference between
management stages and technical stages.

a) Incorrect. These are sent by a Team Manager to the Project Manager, so they do NOT
provide the Project Board with an indication of project viability. Ref 10.3.3.4
b) Correct. Management stages provide review and decision points, giving the Project
Board the opportunity to assess the project viability at regular intervals, rather than let it
run on in an uncontrolled manner. Ref 10.3.2
c) Incorrect. Exception situations are NOT pre-planned within the Project Plan. Ref 10.3.4
d) Incorrect. The authorization of project closure is a Project Board control, planned to take
place after the Closing a Project process. This is too late to assess project viability. Ref
10.3.1.2

59
Q

59 Which is a purpose of the Change theme?

a) Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation
b) Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled
c) Assess and control uncertainty
d) Assess changes to only the specialist products

A

59 Syllabus Topic:CH0201 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Change theme.

a) Incorrect. Change is NOT prevented. It is controlled. Ref 9.1
b) Correct. The aim of change control is NOT to prevent change; it is to ensure that every
change is agreed by the relevant authority before it takes place. Ref 9.1
c) Incorrect. This is a purpose of Risk theme. Ref 8.1
d) Incorrect. Change can affect management and specialist products. Ref 9.3.2

60
Q

60 Which product would confirm the version numbers of all products being developed within a
given stage?

a) Configuration Item Record
b) Product Status Account
c) Stage Plan
d) Work Package

A

60 Syllabus Topic:CH0203.5 - Change Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a Product Status Account.

a) Incorrect. This records details for a single configuration item. Ref A.5.1
b) Correct. The Product Status Account provides information about the state of products
within defined limits. The limits can vary, e.g. the report could cover the entire project, a
particular stage, a particular area of the project, or the history of a specific product. Ref
A.18.1
c) Incorrect. Does NOT include version numbers of all products being developed. Ref A16.1
d) Incorrect. Does NOT include version numbers of all products being developed. Ref A.26.1

61
Q

61 Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

a) Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision-making
b) Participants understand each other’s roles and needs
c) Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
d) All problems are escalated to all stakeholders

A

61 Syllabus Topic:OV0201 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the benefits of PRINCE2.

a) Incorrect. Exclusion of stakeholders is NOT a PRINCE2 concept. Ref 1.7
b) Correct. The allocation of roles and responsibilities helps participants to understand who
makes what decisions. Ref 1.7
c) Incorrect. PRINCE2 ensures that stakeholders are involved in assuring project work
through roles and the Communication Management Strategy. Ref 1.7
d) Incorrect. Problems are escalated to the appropriate level. Minor ones are unlikely to
require escalation to stakeholders. Ref 1.7

62
Q

62 In which product would a product’s quality tolerance be defined?

a) Project Product Description
b) Product Description
c) Stage Plan
d) Quality Management Strategy

A

62 Syllabus Topic:QU0206.2 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a Product Description.

a) Incorrect. The Project Product Description defines the customer’s quality expectations
and acceptance criteria. It does NOT contain the quality tolerance of individual products.
Ref 6.3.1.3 / Table 10.1
b) Correct. Each Product Description defines the quality tolerance for that product. Ref
A.17.1 / 6.3.1.5 / Table 10.1
c) Incorrect. There is no mention of quality tolerance in a Stage Plan. Table 10.1
d) Incorrect. The Quality Management Strategy does NOT define an individual product’s
quality tolerance. Ref 6.3.1.5 / Table 10.1

63
Q

63 When should the Managing a Stage Boundary process be undertaken?

a) Close to the end of a management stage
b) After the completion of each management stage
c) At the end of the final stage
d) At the end of project start-up

A

63 Syllabus Topic:SB0201 - Managing a Stage Boundary Process
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process.

a) Correct. The process should be executed at, or close to the end of, each management
stage. Ref 17.1
b) Incorrect. The activities to manage a stage boundary should be planned to take place at,
or close to the end of, each management stage. Ref 17.1
c) Incorrect. The activities to manage a stage boundary should be planned to take place at,
or close to the end of, each management stage. Ref 17.1
d) Incorrect. The Starting up a Project process is NOT a management stage and therefore
does NOT use the Managing a Stage Boundary process. Ref 12.3

64
Q

64 What is a purpose of a risk budget?

a) To fund risk management activities defined in the risk management procedure
b) To fund the cost of analyzing requests for change while executing a Work Package
c) Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of implementing risk responses
d) Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of identifying risks to the project

A

64 Syllabus Topic:RK0203 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of a risk budget.

a) Incorrect. Activities defined in the risk management procedure will be funded by the
normal project budget, NOT the risk budget.
b) Incorrect. The cost of analyzing a request for change is taken from the change or normal
project budget, NOT the risk budget. Ref 9.3.1.1
c) Correct. A risk budget is used to fund specific responses to risks. Ref 8.3.6
d) Incorrect. The activity of identifying risks will be paid for from the normal project budget.

65
Q

65 Which role is part of the project management team?

a) Corporate or programme management
b) Quality assurance
c) Stakeholder
d) Business assurance

A

65 Syllabus Topic:OR0101 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL1 - Recall roles within the Organization theme.

a) Incorrect. Corporate or programme management is discussed as a level of management
which is pre-existing but is NOT part of the project management team. Ref 5.3.1
b) Incorrect. Quality assurance activities are outside the scope of PRINCE2 as it is the
responsibility of the corporate or programme organization. Ref 6.2.6.
c) Incorrect. A stakeholder is described as any individual, group or organization that can
affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by, an initiative (programme,
project, activity, risk). Ref 5.3.5
d) Correct. The Project Board is responsible, via its Project Assurance role, for monitoring
all aspects of the project’s performance and products independently of the Project
Manager. Project Board members are responsible for the aspects of Project Assurance
aligned to their respective areas of concern. The Executive is responsible for the
business assurance role, which they may appoint a separate individual to perform. Ref
5.3.2.3

66
Q

66 Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
PRINCE2 management stages relate to the [ ? ], which is a factor that differentiates them from
technical stages

a) use of a particular set of technical skills
b) use of a specific set of Team Managers
c) authorization from corporate or programme management
d) commitment of resources

A

66 Syllabus Topic:PG0203 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the difference between management and technical stages.

a) Incorrect. These would relate to technical stages. Ref 10.3.2.3
b) Incorrect. PRINCE2 does NOT insist on the use of Team Managers. Team Managers
relate to technical work, which need NOT coincide with management stages. Ref
10.3.2.3
c) Incorrect. The authorization from corporate has nothing to do with the differentiation from
technical stages. Ref 10.3.2
d) Correct. Technical stages may be combined or split into management stages for the
purpose of commitment of resources. Ref 10.3.2.3

67
Q

67 Which principle is supported by the Project Product Description?

a) Continued business justification
b) Focus on products
c) Learn from experience
d) Manage by stages

A

67 Syllabus Topic:OV0202 - Overview and Principles
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the seven principles.

a) Incorrect. The continued business justification principle is followed through regular
planned reviews of the Business Case during the life of the project to confirm its
continued viability. Ref 2.1
b) Correct. The Project Product Description supports the focus on products principle
through clearly defining the project’s products, the customer’s quality expectations and
acceptance criteria. Ref 2.6 / A.21.1
c) Incorrect. The learn from experience principle is used to ensure that project teams learn
from previous experience: lessons are sought, recorded and acted upon throughout the
life of the project. Ref 2.2
d) Incorrect. The manage by stages principle enables the extent of senior management
control over projects to be varied according to the business priority, risk and complexity
involved. Ref 2.4

68
Q

68 Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
Quality planning provides the definition of the required products with their [ ? ] as a foundation
for Project Board agreement.

a) customer’s quality expectations
b) quality test results
c) quality criteria
d) owners

A

68 Syllabus Topic:QU0204.1 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the difference between quality planning, quality control and quality
assurance.

a) Incorrect. Customer’s quality expectations relate to the overall project, NOT individual
products. Ref 6.3.1.1
b) Incorrect. Quality test results are NOT determined until the quality check has taken
place, so are NOT part of quality planning. Ref 6.3.2
c) Correct. As defined in the respective Product Descriptions given in the Stage Plan
approved by the Project Board. Ref 6.3.1
d) Incorrect. Determining who will own a product is NOT the subject of Project Board
agreement during quality planning. This is defined in the individual Configuration Item
Records. Ref A.5

69
Q

69 Which is a definition of risk probability?

a) Scale of the risk should it occur
b) Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives
c) Probable timeframe within which the risk may occur
d) A measure of the likelihood of the risk occurring

A

69 Syllabus Topic:RK0204 - Risk Theme
Correct Answer:D
Objective:LL2 - Understand the risk probability, risk impact and risk proximity.

a) Incorrect. The scale or effect of the risk is referred to as its impact. Ref 8.3.5.2
b) Incorrect. This is the impact of the risk occurring. Ref 8.3.5.2
c) Incorrect. This is a definition of the risk proximity. Ref 8.3.5.2
d) Correct. Probability measures the likelihood of the risk occurring. Ref 8.3.5.2

70
Q

70 Which is NOT an event-driven control?

a) Highlight Report
b) Exception Report
c) Project Initiation Documentation
d) End of a stage

A

70 Syllabus Topic:PG0201 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the difference between event-driven and time-driven controls.

a) Correct. A Highlight Report is time-driven. Ref 10.3.3
b) Incorrect. An Exception Report is only produced when a Project Manager believes that a
stage or the project is likely to exceed tolerances. Ref 10.3.3
c) Incorrect. The Project Initiation Documentation is produced by the final event in initiating
a project. Ref 10.3.3
d) Incorrect. The end of a stage is driven by a stage coming to an end and the next stage
needing authorization. Ref 10.3.3

71
Q

71 Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
The Project Board will allocate tolerances [ ? ] to the Project Manager.

a) for each Work Package
b) for the project
c) for each management stage
d) for each technical stage

A

71 Syllabus Topic:PG0101 - Progress Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL1 - Recall the lines of authority and reporting between the four levels of
management.

a) Incorrect. Work Package tolerances are agreed between the Project Manager and Team
Manager. Ref 10.3.1.1
b) Incorrect. Project tolerances are allocated by corporate or programme management. Ref
10.3.1.1
c) Correct. The Project Board has overall control at project level, as long as forecast remain
within project tolerance, and will allocate tolerances for each management stage to the
Project Manager. Ref 10.3.1.1
d) Incorrect. The Project Board has overall control at project level, as long as forecast
remain within project tolerance, and will allocate tolerances for each management stage
to the Project Manager. Ref 10.3.1.1

72
Q

72 Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?

a) Define the time and cost needed to produce the product
b) Define the quality skills required to check the product
c) Define the function and appearance of the product
d) Define the development skills required to produce the product

A

72 Syllabus Topic:QU0206.2 - Quality Theme
Correct Answer:A
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Product Description.

a) Correct. Forecast duration and cost are recorded in the plan containing the Product
Description. Ref A.17.1
b) Incorrect. The Product Description contains the skills required to undertake quality
control. Ref. A.17.1
c) Incorrect. The Product Description contains its purpose, function and appearance. Ref.
A.17.1
d) Incorrect. The Product Description contains the skills required to produce the product.
Ref. A.17.1

73
Q

73 Which is a purpose of a Communication Management Strategy?

a) Ensuring the project team can use the required reporting tools
b) Producing reports for the Project Board
c) Defining the communication method between the Project Board and corporate or programme
management
d) Ensuring stakeholders are aware of their responsibilities

A

73 Syllabus Topic:OR0205 - Organization Theme
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the purpose of the Communication Management Strategy.

a) Incorrect. The Communication Management Strategy does NOT ensure this. It informs
the project team what reporting is required but it does NOT ensure they can use the
required tools. Ref A.4.1
b) Incorrect. The Communication Management Strategy does NOT produce any reports, it
defines reporting requirements. Ref A.4.1
c) Correct. The Communication Management Strategy contains a description of the means
and frequency of communication to parties both internal and external to the project. Ref
A.4.1
d) Incorrect. The Communication Management Strategy documents who the project
stakeholders are and what information they require, but it does NOT ensure they are
aware of their responsibilities. Ref A.4.1

74
Q

74 Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
During the Controlling a Stage process, the [ ? ] is checked for any new or revised threats and
their possible impact on the Business Case.

a) Benefits Review Plan
b) End Stage Report
c) Risk Register
d) Risk Management Strategy

A

74 Syllabus Topic:CS0203 - Controlling a Stage Process
Correct Answer:C
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Controlling a Stage process.

a) Incorrect. The Benefits Review Plan does NOT record the threats (risks) to the project
and their possible impact on the Business Case. The Benefits Review Plan may be
checked during the Controlling a Stage process to see whether any benefits reviews are
due, and execute them as necessary. Ref A.1.1 / 15.4.4
b) Incorrect. An End Stage Report is produced during the Managing a Stage Boundary
process and should be reviewed by the Project Board during the Directing a Project
process. Any new or revised risks identified within the End Stage Report should have
been added to the Risk Register during the Managing a Stage Boundary process. Ref
17.4.4
c) Correct. The Risk Register is checked for any new or revised risks and their possible
impact on the Business Case. Ref 15.3 / 15.4.4
d) Incorrect. The Risk Management Strategy may be reviewed during the Controlling a
Stage process for guidance on the risk management procedure. The Risk Management
Strategy does NOT record the threats (risks) to the project and their possible impact on
the Business Case. Ref 15.4.6 / A.24.2

75
Q

75 In which plan should project closure activities be planned?

a) Closure Stage Plan
b) Stage Plan for the final management stage
c) Initiation Stage Plan
d) Team Plan

A

75 Syllabus Topic:CP0203 - Closing a Project Process
Correct Answer:B
Objective:LL2 - Understand the context of the Closing a Project process.

a) Incorrect. Closure is NOT a stage. Ref 18.3
b) Correct. Activities are planned in the Stage Plan for the stage in which they are
undertaken. Ref 18.3
c) Incorrect. Project closure does NOT take place during the initiation stage. Ref 18.3
d) Incorrect. A Team Manager is NOT responsible for closing a project. The Project
Manager is responsible for closing a project. Their way of controlling the day-to-day
progress of the stage is via the Stage Plan. Ref 18.3