The new shit Flashcards

This deck was created by combining two or more decks

0
Q

What is the modifiable risk factor for the development of cancer of the bladder?

  1. Previous exposure to chemicals.
  2. Pelvic radiation therapy.
  3. Cigarette smoking.
  4. Parasitic infections of the bladder.
A
  1. Cigarette smoking. The risk is directly proportional to the amount of smoking.
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1
Q

Local complications from IV therapy

A
  • infiltration- leakage of a nonvesicant IV solution or medication into the extra vascular tissue. Signs= edema, ski tightening, burning sensation, cool to touch.
  • phlebitis- inflammation of the vein . Signs= pain, redness, edema, vein hard and cordlike
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2
Q

Primary intention healing

A

Surgical wounds and lacerations are usually closed by primary intention.
Wound margins are secured with sutures, staples, or steri-strips.
If no complications develop wounds close by primary intention usually heal in 7-14 days.

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3
Q

Prophylactic surgery is?

A

The removal of at risk tissue to prevent cancer development.

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4
Q

Men should get prostate screening when?

A

50 and older. Every 3 to 5 years. PSA and DRE ( not Doctor DRE.) yearly.

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5
Q

Systemic inflammation signs

A

Fever, increased pulse and respiratory rate, shift to left, malaise, nausea, anorexia

Affects body systems, widespread

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6
Q

Inflammation

Infection

A
  • response to an injury to tissues. Does not mean there is an infection.
  • invasion of a susceptible host by a pathogen, causing disease.
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7
Q

The patient has bladder cancer, what questions do you ask?

A

Any: pain on urination?
Blood in urine?
Cloudy urine?
Increased frequency or urgency in urination?

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8
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

co2 above 45, pH below 7.35, they are hypo ventilating, also caused by narcotics, COPD, head/neck trauma, obesity, cushings, asthma, smoking. give them pain meds, tell them to cough and deep breathe, mechanically ventilate, steroids, low flow o2, give narcan for opioid overdose, make sure their LOC is WNL (earliest sign of hypoxia)

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9
Q

addisons disease

A

hypo function of the adrenal cortex, due to surgery, autoimmune disease, trauma, tumors, atrophy of the gland, they are going to have a bronzy appearance due to an increases MSH and have increased potassium and low sodium, give them d50 w/ insulin, and a loop diuretic, they are going to have hypoglycemia, weight loss, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, the goal is to replace glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids by giving a synthetic aldosterone (cortisone, Florinef) make sure they take this med with meals to prevent to GI upset or bleed. pt may have addisonian crisis (hypovolemic shock due to lack of aldosterone

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10
Q

Secondary intention healing

A

Non surgical wounds are left open to heal. They have significant tissue loss and the wound cavity must fill with granulation tissue which eventually becomes scar tissue. May take weeks or months to heal.

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11
Q

Delays in healing

A
  • nutritional deficiencies- slow tissue repair. Increase protein!! Zincs vitamin a and vitamin e and b6.
  • corticosteroids- suppress immune response.
  • age altered immune response -thymus shrinks tcells have nowhere to mature resulting in very little tcells.
  • DM- decrease O2 and slows capillary growth.
  • stress-impedes immune system
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12
Q

Culture sensitivity

A

Cultures isolate the organism to figure out which med that the organism is most susceptible to.
MATCH DRUG TO THE BUG

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13
Q

You suspect your client has skin cancer. What would you do to assess?

A

Examine skin areas for moles or warts (gross)

Ask the patient about changes in the moles, such as color, edges, sensation.

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14
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes

A

Recognize foreign material, detect if it is dangerous, and then will destroy it.

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15
Q

Prostaglandins

A
  • produced from metabolism of arachidonic acid.. Potent vasodilator. Causes FEVER. NSAIDS BLOCK PROSTAGLANDINS and vasodilation.
  • give enteric coated NSAID to pt with gerd.
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16
Q

Chemotherapy has this goal

A

To decrease cancer cells at primary and metastatic cancer sites. It does this at the cellular level.

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17
Q

normal ABG levels

A

pH- 7.35-7.45
HCO3- 21-28
pCo2- 35-45
02- 80-100

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18
Q

hypothyroidism

A

under active thyroid gland due to thyroidectomy, atrophy of the gland, autoimmune disorders, there is an increased TSH and a decreased t3 and t4, people have slow metabolism, happens to women more than men, they also have cardiomegaly, activity intolerance, high cholesterol, slurred slow speech, altered LOC, and are overweight, treat with synthroid and if they had a thyroidectomy make sure they take this med all their life. put them on a low calorie diet

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19
Q

Which of the following is more likely to develop cancer?

  1. A thirty year old man who lives in Ann arbor?
    2 a 40 year old woman who lives on a farm in wisconsin.
  2. A 70 year old man who lives in new York city?
  3. A 20 year old man who lives in Orlando, Florida?
A

The seventy year old mans due to pollution and oth factors. Plus he is most likely a Yankees fan and that Is worse than cancer.

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20
Q

The nurse is taking the social history from a client diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung or lung cancer. Which information is significant for this disease?

  1. The client worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago.
  2. The client has no family history for this type of lung cancer.
  3. The client has numerous twttoo’s covering his upper and lower arms ( and heather likes him).
  4. The client smoke two packs a day for twenty years.
A

4 smoking two packs a day for twenty years. Smoking is the number one risk factor for lung cancer.

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21
Q

Cancer control or cytoreductive surgery is?

A

Removing part of the tumor and leaving a known amount of the tumor.

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22
Q

What is stage two on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are more abnormal and moderately differentiated.

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23
Q

What should the nurse do when handling cancer drugs?

A

Use extreme care. Double gloves, do not let the medication touch you in any way.

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24
Q

Uterine cancer checks should be done when?

A

18 and older, with an annual pap smear.

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25
Q

Stage 3: remodeling phase

A

During this phase, wound is restored to its greatest strength. The new scar tissue never regains the strength that the tissue had prior to injury.

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26
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?

  1. It doesn’t matter if I smoke now, I already have cancer.
  2. I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appointment.
  3. If I begin to run a fever I should notify my doctor.
  4. I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day.
A
  1. Quit smoking you idiot,
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27
Q

Clients who are receiving radiation therapy should avoid?

A

The sun, large groups,sick people. But especially the sun!

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28
Q

Isotonic fluid

A

Nothing enters cell nothing leaves cell.

  • 0.9% sodium chloride
  • lactated ringers solution
  • 5% dextrose in water
  • ringers solution
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29
Q

What does C.A.U.T.I.O.N. stand for?

A
Changes in bowel or bladder habits
A sore that does not heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge
Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious change in wart or mole
Nagging cough or hoarseness

These are the seven warning signs of cancer.

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30
Q

Risk factors for delays wound healing

A
  • infection
  • compromised blood supply
  • malnutrition
  • chronic disease such as cancer, diabetes, and aids
  • treatment with anticoagulants, chemo
  • age (very young and very old)
  • obesity
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31
Q

Defective cellular proliferation is?

A
Cancer cells that divide.
Normal cels respect other cells boundaries but cancer cells do not.
Stem cells are targeted.
DNA is substituted or rearranged.
Continuous growth of tumor mass.
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32
Q

Tertiary intention healing

A

Open wounds that are eventually closed by suturing or skin grafting are treated as wounds healing by secondary intention while they are open and as wounds healing by primary intention once they are closed.

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33
Q

Side effects of chemo are?

A

Platelt suppression or thrombocytopenia, decreased rbc, decreased WBC, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia.

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34
Q

Wound staging: stage 1

A

Non Blanchable erythema of intact skin

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35
Q

Men and women should get a colon/rectal screening when?

A

Age 50 and older. Every 3-5 years after. Use a flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy.

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36
Q

Non surgical wounds

A

Wounds due to trauma! ( burns, skin tears) leg ulcers ( venous and arterial) pressure ulcers, diabetic ulcers, and dermatological lesions.

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37
Q

Women should get breast cancer screenings when?

A

At age 40, and the. An annual mammogram and complete breast exam, also monthly self. Resist exam. Or as Thorpe says, have some man do it for you/ to you.

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38
Q

Bone marrow transplants are harvested from where?

A

Iliac crest, or sternum

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39
Q

Your patient is in denial about his positive cancer test, and is making comments to deny the results.. What is the best nursing action.

1” face it you are a dead man.”
2 accept his comment.
3 “ maybe you will get better?”
4 advise him to check himself out of the hospital.
5 “ cancer doesn’t kill everyone, but yeah you are going to die. Ever see the Bucket List?”

A

Accept his comments

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40
Q

Hypotonic solution

A

Pulls fluid into the cells.

  • 0.45% sodium chloride
  • 0.33% sodium chloride
  • 0.2% sodium chloride
  • 2.5% dextrose in water
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41
Q

You suspect your client has lung cancer. How do you assess?

A

Observe skin and mucous membranes for color.
How many words can the patient say between breaths?
Ask the patient about:
Cough?
Hoarseness?
Smoking history? Exposure to inhalation irritants?
Shortness of breath?
Activity tolerance?
Frothy or bloody sputum?
Pain in the arms or chest?
Difficulty swallowing?

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42
Q

3 stages of wound healing.

Stage 1: inflammatory

A

This phase begins at time of wounding and continues for 3-5 days. Removal of bacteria and cellular debris happens in this stage.

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43
Q

The ability of cancer cells to spread is called?

A

Metastasize

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44
Q

hypokalemia

A

potassium less than 3.5- caused by loops, steroids, ng tubes vomiting, diarhhea, metabolic alkalosis, these pts have arrhythmia, shallow respirations, low BP, altered LOC, hypoactive bowel sounds, distended abdomen, leg cramps give IV at 10 an hour ONLY on a pump never IV push, monitor site for phlebitis because k is a vesicant and is very irritating to skin, increase potassium intake, give supplements STOP digoxin because of possible dig toxicity

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45
Q

Defective cellular differentiation

A

Malignant transformation
Protoncogenes - normal regulatory cell genes, promote growth.
Normal tumor suppression genes - inhibit growth.
Carcinogens - cause mutations of DNA.
Oncogenes - tumor inducing genes arise from mutations.

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46
Q

Cellular response

A
  • migration of WBCs to inflammation site.
  • neutrophils (largest percentage of WBCs 80%) respond to acute bacterial invasion, appear in 6-12hrs.
  • bands are immature neutrophils which increase the neutrophil count. This is called SHIFT TO THE LEFT.
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47
Q

The nurse is caring for clients on an oncology unit. Which neutropenia precautions should be implemented?

  1. Hold all nenipuncture sites for at least five minutes.
  2. Limit fresh fruits and flowers.
  3. Place all clients in reverse isolation.
  4. Have the clients use a soft-bristle toothbrush.
A

Limit fresh fruits and flowers. They may carry bacteria and the client will have a low WBC.

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48
Q

Wound!

A

Wounds disrupt the clients first line of defense against injury an infection; the intact skin and mucosa!

DUH!

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49
Q

Normal electrolyte levels

A
k- 3.5-5.0 (potassium)
na- 136-145 (sodium)
ca- 9.0-10.5 ( calcium) 
mg- 1.3-2.1 (magnesium)
phosphorous- 3.0-4.5
cl- 98-106 (chloride)
albumin- 3.4-5
hemoglobin 12-16 female 14-18 male
hematocrit 36-47 female 42-52 male
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50
Q

Stage 2: proliferative phase

A

This phase begins 1-4 days post injury and lasts up to 3 weeks. New vessel formation, collagen formation and epithelizAtion are te major processes so that new tissue develops.

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51
Q

thyroidectomy

A

removal of all ( total) or part of the thyroid gland (subtotal) women who are of child bearing age usually have a subtotal thyroidectomy and before either surgery is done the client must have a normal (euthroid) state with iodine if they have a total then they must take synthroid lifelong and if they have a partial they may still produce some thyroid hormone. teach them how to support their head and neck while turning before surgery also teach them how to cough and deep breathe before surgery, and after surgery have calcium gluconate at the bed side because the surgery will cause hypocalcemia and look for chvoteks and trousseaus and stridor can be the first sign of hypocalcemia. check the front and back of their dressings to make sure they are not bleeding have a crash cart, calcium and a trach kit at the bedside also, the parathyroid glands may accidently be removed so this is a risk of doing the surgery

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52
Q

What are the routes for chemo administration?

A

IV, intra arterial, intra peritoneal, intrathecal ( through the cns), intra viscal ( through the bladder), or implanted pumps.

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53
Q

TNM stands for?

A

T is for tumor size
N is for spread to lymph Nodes
M is for Metastasis.

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54
Q

What is the first stage of cancer?

A

Initiation or the mutation of the cells DNA, for example: smoking.

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55
Q

calcium

A

when calcium is up, phosphate is down, when calcium is low, the pt can have trousseaus and chvoteks, nerve impulses, skeletal, muscle contractions, if pt had thyroid or neck surgery they can also have low calcium,

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56
Q

Defenses

A
  • skin is a mechanical barrier to microorganisms. It is the biggest barrier.
  • mucous membranes -saliva washes away particles
  • vaginal mucosa
  • respiratory- cilia traps microbes (the little hairs)
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57
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Internal, insertion of radioactive material into or close to a tumor. This makes the client radioactive.

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58
Q

cushings syndrome

A

excessive secretion of cortisol from the adrenal glands, excess glucocorticoids, excess secretion of ACTH and aldosterone, pt’s will have weight gain, pinpoint pupils, low potassium and high sodium, high blood glucose, delayed wound healing and poor nutrition, do strict i&O’s and a low sodium diet, and restrict fluid, highest risk is a patient on long term steroids, if they have an adrenalectomy it’s to remove the adrenal glands due to hyperfunction, if they can’t operate on pt due to cancer of adrenal cortex, MITOTANE is given

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59
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

HCO3 above 28 pH above 7.45, k is low, caused by antacid use (tums) TPN therapy, they are going to complain of muscle weakness, vomiting, you want to give antiemetics

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60
Q

hyperkalemia

A

potassium above 5- caused by excessive intake, too much IV, k sparing diuretics(aldactalone,spiractalone) can cause muscle weakness, arrythmias, cardiac arrest, GI upset, give k-exelate, give a loop, give insulin d50

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61
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer has been told it has metastasized to the brain. Which intention should the nurse implement?

  1. Discuss implementing an advance directive.
  2. Explain the use of chemotherapy for brain involvement.
  3. Teach the client to discontinue driving.
  4. Have the significant other make decisions for the client.
A
  1. Discuss an advance directive
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62
Q

PEG tube

A

Type of feeding tube placed through the skin into the stomach without major surgery.

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63
Q

The patient has colorectal cancer. What questions should you ask?

A

Ask the patient whether bowel habits have changed over the past year.
Is there obvious blood in the stool?
Have you had a colonoscopy

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64
Q

hypernaturemia

A

sodium over 145- caused by steroids, sweating, cushings pt, over infusing IV, infection, fever pt will have a decreased LOC, muscle twitching, full bounding pulse, pad the side rails because they can seize, give a loop, hypotonic IV, eat low sodium less than 2 gram, stop smoking, exercise, fresh fruits and veggies

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65
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

sustained release of thyroid hormone (over active) increased level of t3 and t4 and a decreased level of TSH, causes are autoimmune (graves) or goiters, everything speeds up so tachycardia, increased metabolism, increased systolic BP, frequent bowel movements, fast RR, warm moist skin, muscle weakness, restlessness, increased temperature give an anti thyroid med PTU, a b-blocker to manage their hypertension and tachycardia(propranolol, inderal) an iodine solution SSKI, Lugol) and tapazole

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66
Q

Radiation has some side effects. Pick the one the nurse should expect to see

  1. Bone marrow suppression
    2 kidney swelling
    3 finger nail clubbing
    4 becoming a Yankee fan
A

1 bone marrow suppression.

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67
Q

What is stage three on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are abnormal and poorly differentiated.

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68
Q

Complication of bone marrow transplants include:

A

Infections, bacterial, fungal and viral

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69
Q

Describe grade four in the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are immature and primitive. It is the worst of all the stages.

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70
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

HCO3 below 21 pH below 7.35, caused by renal disease, uncontrolled diabetic, DKA, seizures, diarhhea(out your ass) k-sparings, your gonna see and increases RR, kussmauls respirations, give k-exelate to get rid of k, also give d50 w/ insulin

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71
Q

Precautions the nurse should take for the bone marrow transplant client.

A

Protective isolation, and use hepa filters for the room.

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72
Q

You suspect your client has leukemia. How do you assess?

A
Observe the skin for color or ecchymosis
Ask the patient about:
Fatigue?
Bruising? 
Tendency to bleed?
History of infections or illnesses.
Night sweats?
Unexplained fevers?
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73
Q

Who is a pat smear?

A

Former guitarist for nirvana and the foo fighters.

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74
Q

Sump tubes and drains

A

The term SUMP indicates a tube or drain with an air vent.
Air vent acts as irrigant.
Air flows down the tube an back through the suction tube.
Continuous suction is needed.

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75
Q

PEJ tube

A

Feeding tube placed through a larger gastrostomy tube that is already placed in the stomach. Placed in the small intestine

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76
Q

Cancer cells are

A

Abnormal, serve no useful function, and are harmful to normal tissues.

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77
Q

hypoalbuminemia

A

low protein, caused by dehydration, malnutrition, dehydration, starving, dieting, burns liver disease, chronic infection

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78
Q

loop diuretics

A

examples (lasix,bumex) they lose k+, calcium and sodium, given for SIADH and FVE, know BP, k level, creatinine, BUN before you give also STOP them when a pt has FVD or is dehydrated or metabolic alkalosis K low)

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79
Q

A 53 year old client is receiving an inserted radiologic device to treat her cancer of the cervix. In caring for the client what should you not do?
1. Allow guests to stay for only thirty minutes.
2 alleviate clients anxiety by maintaining close contact.
3. Not bring anything new into or out of the room
4 warm up your dinner by placing it on the clients radioactive site.

A

2 don’t maintain close contact with the client. Keep space to avoid radiation.

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80
Q

Diagnostic surgery or biopsy is ?

A

The removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination or testing.

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81
Q

What is TDS in caring for a radioactive client?

A

Time, Distance, and Shielding. This limits the nurse’s exposure to radioactive materials.

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82
Q

Full thickness

A

Wounds that involve a subq layer or extend into muscle or bone are considered full thickness wounds.

Ex. Deep leg ulcers, stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcers and deep burns

Nursing dx is impaired tissue integrity

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83
Q

How often should you get a sigmoidoscopy?

  1. Whenever you feel like it.
    2 age 40 and every five years after.
    3 age 50 and every 3-5 years after.
    4 age 50 and every 10 years after that.
A

Age 50 and every 3 - 5 years after.

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84
Q

Curative surgery is?

A

Focuses on the removal of all cancer tissue.

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85
Q

What happens in colonoscopy

A

A hollow tube is passed through the rectum.

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86
Q

A person who is immuno suppressed is more or less likely to get cancer?

A

More

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87
Q

What is the third stage of cancer?

A

Progression or increased growth of tumor, increased invasion, or metastasis.

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88
Q

Localized inflammation signs

A

Redness, heat, pain, and swelling

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89
Q

What is the histologic grading of cancer’s first stage?

A

Grade 1 - cells differ slightly for normal cells. They are well differentiated.

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90
Q

Systemic complications of IV therapy

A

Involves entire vascular system.

Ex. Circulatory overload, speed shock, allergic reaction, catheter embolism, pneumothorax, hemothorax, cyclothorax, hydrothorax, air embolism

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91
Q

Lymphocytes

A
  • B lymphocytes mature in bone marrow. These produce protein based antibodies and immunoglobulins.
  • T lymphocytes mature in thymus. These attack antigens and are antigen specific.
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92
Q

The nurse writes a problem of “impaired gas exchange” for a client diagnosed with cancer of the lung. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care. Select all that apply.

  1. Apply o2 nasal cannula
  2. Have the dietician plan for six small meals a day
  3. Place the client in respiratory isolation.
  4. Asses vital signs for a fever.
  5. Listen to lung sounds every shift.
A

1, 2, 4, 5

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93
Q

Partial thickness

A

Wound that involve the epidermis and extend Into but not through the dermis are considered partial thickness.

Ex: adhesive tape burns, sunburn, blisters, some skin tears, and stage 2 pressure ulcers

Nursing dx is impaired ski integrity

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94
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

co2 below 35, pH above 7.45, caused mostly by fear and anxiety, also aspirin toxicity, they are hyperventilating (give a mask or paper bag) give mucomyst for aspirin tox

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95
Q

hyponaturemia

A

less than 136 low sodium caused by diuertics, ace inhibitors, addisons patient, diarrhea and vomitting, drowning, renal failure, diabetic, may have altered LOC, cerebral edema, anxious, hyper, muscle weakness, twitching, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia treat the cause, increase intake, give normal saline or lactated ringers (isotonic) or a hypertonic IV solution, restrict fluids to people with water intoxication (dilutional hyponaturemia) (low na but over hydrated)

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96
Q

Dehiscence and evisceration

A

Dehiscence- separation of wound edges.
Evisceration- wound separates intestines intrude.

Cover with sterile saline, then call dr!!!

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97
Q

What is the second stage of cancer?

A

Promotion or enhancement of growth of initiated cells.

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98
Q

Hot cold compress

A

Heat-therapeutic, promotes muscle relaxation, vasodilates and increases circulation to site.
Cold- relieves swelling and inflammation.

On 20 min off 20 min to prevent reverse vasoconstriction. In the hospital there will be a regulator. Don’t lay on it, no longer than 20 min

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99
Q

Anaplasia is

A

A featured of cancer cells, they lose the specific appearance of their parent cells.

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100
Q

Wound assessment

A

Look at size, color, odor, exudate, location, length, width, depth in cm.

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101
Q

Drainage tube

A

Tube used for discharge of matter.

Device used for allowing escape of pus, serum, blood or other drainage from a wound, abscess, etc.

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102
Q

Cellular response (cont)

A

-monocytes are second to arrive, appearing within 3-7 days. Thy clean the area. “they move from vascular system into cellular system where organism is attacking and become macrophages which CHOMP destroy bacteria, create pus, and clean up area for healing to occur.”

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103
Q

Vascular response

A

Stage 1-Hyperemia- increased blood flow which is good it gets WBCs to site, increased capillary permeability and edema.

Stage 2-neutrophilia- neutrophils really increase, pus forms and the shift has occurred.

Stage 3-tissue repair And replacement- induction of healthy cell division and scar formation occurs.

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104
Q

Vancomycin and gentamycin

A

Look at kidney function (BUN and Cre) and oto function because it can be ototoxic!

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105
Q

These people are more susceptible to cancer

A

Older clients, autoimmune disorder clients, immuno compromised clients, and steroid users.

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106
Q

Your suspect your client has prostate cancer. What questions do you ask?

A
Ask your client about:
Hesitancy in urination.
Change of size of the urine stream?
Pain in the back of the legs?
History of UTI's?
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107
Q

Surgical wounds

A

Are incisions made during surgical procedures. Skin grafts and donor sites are also considered surgical wounds.

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108
Q

Defective cellular proliferation is?

A
Cancer cells that divide.
Normal cels respect other cells boundaries but cancer cells do not.
Stem cells are targeted.
DNA is substituted or rearranged.
Continuous growth of tumor mass.
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109
Q

Cancer cells are

A

Abnormal, serve no useful function, and are harmful to normal tissues.

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110
Q

What is the first stage of cancer?

A

Initiation or the mutation of the cells DNA, for example: smoking.

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111
Q

You suspect your client has lung cancer. How do you assess?

A

Observe skin and mucous membranes for color.
How many words can the patient say between breaths?
Ask the patient about:
Cough?
Hoarseness?
Smoking history? Exposure to inhalation irritants?
Shortness of breath?
Activity tolerance?
Frothy or bloody sputum?
Pain in the arms or chest?
Difficulty swallowing?

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112
Q

TNM stands for?

A

T is for tumor size
N is for spread to lymph Nodes
M is for Metastasis.

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113
Q

addisons disease

A

hypo function of the adrenal cortex, due to surgery, autoimmune disease, trauma, tumors, atrophy of the gland, they are going to have a bronzy appearance due to an increases MSH and have increased potassium and low sodium, give them d50 w/ insulin, and a loop diuretic, they are going to have hypoglycemia, weight loss, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, the goal is to replace glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids by giving a synthetic aldosterone (cortisone, Florinef) make sure they take this med with meals to prevent to GI upset or bleed. pt may have addisonian crisis (hypovolemic shock due to lack of aldosterone

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114
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

co2 above 45, pH below 7.35, they are hypo ventilating, also caused by narcotics, COPD, head/neck trauma, obesity, cushings, asthma, smoking. give them pain meds, tell them to cough and deep breathe, mechanically ventilate, steroids, low flow o2, give narcan for opioid overdose, make sure their LOC is WNL (earliest sign of hypoxia)

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115
Q

Describe grade four in the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are immature and primitive. It is the worst of all the stages.

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116
Q

What is stage two on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are more abnormal and moderately differentiated.

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117
Q

What is the second stage of cancer?

A

Promotion or enhancement of growth of initiated cells.

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118
Q

Precautions the nurse should take for the bone marrow transplant client.

A

Protective isolation, and use hepa filters for the room.

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119
Q

Radiation has some side effects. Pick the one the nurse should expect to see

  1. Bone marrow suppression
    2 kidney swelling
    3 finger nail clubbing
    4 becoming a Yankee fan
A

1 bone marrow suppression.

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120
Q

normal ABG levels

A

pH- 7.35-7.45
HCO3- 21-28
pCo2- 35-45
02- 80-100

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121
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

HCO3 above 28 pH above 7.45, k is low, caused by antacid use (tums) TPN therapy, they are going to complain of muscle weakness, vomiting, you want to give antiemetics

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122
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

sustained release of thyroid hormone (over active) increased level of t3 and t4 and a decreased level of TSH, causes are autoimmune (graves) or goiters, everything speeds up so tachycardia, increased metabolism, increased systolic BP, frequent bowel movements, fast RR, warm moist skin, muscle weakness, restlessness, increased temperature give an anti thyroid med PTU, a b-blocker to manage their hypertension and tachycardia(propranolol, inderal) an iodine solution SSKI, Lugol) and tapazole

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123
Q

thyroidectomy

A

removal of all ( total) or part of the thyroid gland (subtotal) women who are of child bearing age usually have a subtotal thyroidectomy and before either surgery is done the client must have a normal (euthroid) state with iodine if they have a total then they must take synthroid lifelong and if they have a partial they may still produce some thyroid hormone. teach them how to support their head and neck while turning before surgery also teach them how to cough and deep breathe before surgery, and after surgery have calcium gluconate at the bed side because the surgery will cause hypocalcemia and look for chvoteks and trousseaus and stridor can be the first sign of hypocalcemia. check the front and back of their dressings to make sure they are not bleeding have a crash cart, calcium and a trach kit at the bedside also, the parathyroid glands may accidently be removed so this is a risk of doing the surgery

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124
Q

Your patient is in denial about his positive cancer test, and is making comments to deny the results.. What is the best nursing action.

1” face it you are a dead man.”
2 accept his comment.
3 “ maybe you will get better?”
4 advise him to check himself out of the hospital.
5 “ cancer doesn’t kill everyone, but yeah you are going to die. Ever see the Bucket List?”

A

Accept his comments

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125
Q

What does C.A.U.T.I.O.N. stand for?

A
Changes in bowel or bladder habits
A sore that does not heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge
Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious change in wart or mole
Nagging cough or hoarseness

These are the seven warning signs of cancer.

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126
Q

cushings syndrome

A

excessive secretion of cortisol from the adrenal glands, excess glucocorticoids, excess secretion of ACTH and aldosterone, pt’s will have weight gain, pinpoint pupils, low potassium and high sodium, high blood glucose, delayed wound healing and poor nutrition, do strict i&O’s and a low sodium diet, and restrict fluid, highest risk is a patient on long term steroids, if they have an adrenalectomy it’s to remove the adrenal glands due to hyperfunction, if they can’t operate on pt due to cancer of adrenal cortex, MITOTANE is given

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127
Q

The patient has colorectal cancer. What questions should you ask?

A

Ask the patient whether bowel habits have changed over the past year.
Is there obvious blood in the stool?
Have you had a colonoscopy

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128
Q

hyponaturemia

A

less than 136 low sodium caused by diuertics, ace inhibitors, addisons patient, diarrhea and vomitting, drowning, renal failure, diabetic, may have altered LOC, cerebral edema, anxious, hyper, muscle weakness, twitching, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia treat the cause, increase intake, give normal saline or lactated ringers (isotonic) or a hypertonic IV solution, restrict fluids to people with water intoxication (dilutional hyponaturemia) (low na but over hydrated)

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129
Q

You suspect your client has leukemia. How do you assess?

A
Observe the skin for color or ecchymosis
Ask the patient about:
Fatigue?
Bruising? 
Tendency to bleed?
History of infections or illnesses.
Night sweats?
Unexplained fevers?
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130
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

co2 below 35, pH above 7.45, caused mostly by fear and anxiety, also aspirin toxicity, they are hyperventilating (give a mask or paper bag) give mucomyst for aspirin tox

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131
Q

calcium

A

when calcium is up, phosphate is down, when calcium is low, the pt can have trousseaus and chvoteks, nerve impulses, skeletal, muscle contractions, if pt had thyroid or neck surgery they can also have low calcium,

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132
Q

Your suspect your client has prostate cancer. What questions do you ask?

A
Ask your client about:
Hesitancy in urination.
Change of size of the urine stream?
Pain in the back of the legs?
History of UTI's?
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133
Q

Anaplasia is

A

A featured of cancer cells, they lose the specific appearance of their parent cells.

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134
Q

Men should get prostate screening when?

A

50 and older. Every 3 to 5 years. PSA and DRE ( not Doctor DRE.) yearly.

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135
Q

What is the modifiable risk factor for the development of cancer of the bladder?

  1. Previous exposure to chemicals.
  2. Pelvic radiation therapy.
  3. Cigarette smoking.
  4. Parasitic infections of the bladder.
A
  1. Cigarette smoking. The risk is directly proportional to the amount of smoking.
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136
Q

Uterine cancer checks should be done when?

A

18 and older, with an annual pap smear.

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137
Q

Prophylactic surgery is?

A

The removal of at risk tissue to prevent cancer development.

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138
Q

Normal electrolyte levels

A
k- 3.5-5.0 (potassium)
na- 136-145 (sodium)
ca- 9.0-10.5 ( calcium) 
mg- 1.3-2.1 (magnesium)
phosphorous- 3.0-4.5
cl- 98-106 (chloride)
albumin- 3.4-5
hemoglobin 12-16 female 14-18 male
hematocrit 36-47 female 42-52 male
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139
Q

These people are more susceptible to cancer

A

Older clients, autoimmune disorder clients, immuno compromised clients, and steroid users.

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140
Q

Who is a pat smear?

A

Former guitarist for nirvana and the foo fighters.

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141
Q

What is TDS in caring for a radioactive client?

A

Time, Distance, and Shielding. This limits the nurse’s exposure to radioactive materials.

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142
Q

How often should you get a sigmoidoscopy?

  1. Whenever you feel like it.
    2 age 40 and every five years after.
    3 age 50 and every 3-5 years after.
    4 age 50 and every 10 years after that.
A

Age 50 and every 3 - 5 years after.

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143
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?

  1. It doesn’t matter if I smoke now, I already have cancer.
  2. I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appointment.
  3. If I begin to run a fever I should notify my doctor.
  4. I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day.
A
  1. Quit smoking you idiot,
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144
Q

hypokalemia

A

potassium less than 3.5- caused by loops, steroids, ng tubes vomiting, diarhhea, metabolic alkalosis, these pts have arrhythmia, shallow respirations, low BP, altered LOC, hypoactive bowel sounds, distended abdomen, leg cramps give IV at 10 an hour ONLY on a pump never IV push, monitor site for phlebitis because k is a vesicant and is very irritating to skin, increase potassium intake, give supplements STOP digoxin because of possible dig toxicity

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145
Q

The ability of cancer cells to spread is called?

A

Metastasize

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146
Q

The patient has bladder cancer, what questions do you ask?

A

Any: pain on urination?
Blood in urine?
Cloudy urine?
Increased frequency or urgency in urination?

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147
Q

Curative surgery is?

A

Focuses on the removal of all cancer tissue.

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148
Q

Chemotherapy has this goal

A

To decrease cancer cells at primary and metastatic cancer sites. It does this at the cellular level.

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149
Q

loop diuretics

A

examples (lasix,bumex) they lose k+, calcium and sodium, given for SIADH and FVE, know BP, k level, creatinine, BUN before you give also STOP them when a pt has FVD or is dehydrated or metabolic alkalosis K low)

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150
Q

Men and women should get a colon/rectal screening when?

A

Age 50 and older. Every 3-5 years after. Use a flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy.

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151
Q

Defective cellular differentiation

A

Malignant transformation
Protoncogenes - normal regulatory cell genes, promote growth.
Normal tumor suppression genes - inhibit growth.
Carcinogens - cause mutations of DNA.
Oncogenes - tumor inducing genes arise from mutations.

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152
Q

The nurse is caring for clients on an oncology unit. Which neutropenia precautions should be implemented?

  1. Hold all nenipuncture sites for at least five minutes.
  2. Limit fresh fruits and flowers.
  3. Place all clients in reverse isolation.
  4. Have the clients use a soft-bristle toothbrush.
A

Limit fresh fruits and flowers. They may carry bacteria and the client will have a low WBC.

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153
Q

Clients who are receiving radiation therapy should avoid?

A

The sun, large groups,sick people. But especially the sun!

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154
Q

A person who is immuno suppressed is more or less likely to get cancer?

A

More

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155
Q

hypernaturemia

A

sodium over 145- caused by steroids, sweating, cushings pt, over infusing IV, infection, fever pt will have a decreased LOC, muscle twitching, full bounding pulse, pad the side rails because they can seize, give a loop, hypotonic IV, eat low sodium less than 2 gram, stop smoking, exercise, fresh fruits and veggies

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156
Q

Which of the following is more likely to develop cancer?

  1. A thirty year old man who lives in Ann arbor?
    2 a 40 year old woman who lives on a farm in wisconsin.
  2. A 70 year old man who lives in new York city?
  3. A 20 year old man who lives in Orlando, Florida?
A

The seventy year old mans due to pollution and oth factors. Plus he is most likely a Yankees fan and that Is worse than cancer.

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157
Q

What should the nurse do when handling cancer drugs?

A

Use extreme care. Double gloves, do not let the medication touch you in any way.

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158
Q

Cancer control or cytoreductive surgery is?

A

Removing part of the tumor and leaving a known amount of the tumor.

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159
Q

You suspect your client has skin cancer. What would you do to assess?

A

Examine skin areas for moles or warts (gross)

Ask the patient about changes in the moles, such as color, edges, sensation.

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160
Q

hypoalbuminemia

A

low protein, caused by dehydration, malnutrition, dehydration, starving, dieting, burns liver disease, chronic infection

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161
Q

Women should get breast cancer screenings when?

A

At age 40, and the. An annual mammogram and complete breast exam, also monthly self. Resist exam. Or as Thorpe says, have some man do it for you/ to you.

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162
Q

What is the histologic grading of cancer’s first stage?

A

Grade 1 - cells differ slightly for normal cells. They are well differentiated.

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163
Q

Side effects of chemo are?

A

Platelt suppression or thrombocytopenia, decreased rbc, decreased WBC, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia.

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164
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

HCO3 below 21 pH below 7.35, caused by renal disease, uncontrolled diabetic, DKA, seizures, diarhhea(out your ass) k-sparings, your gonna see and increases RR, kussmauls respirations, give k-exelate to get rid of k, also give d50 w/ insulin

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165
Q

hyperkalemia

A

potassium above 5- caused by excessive intake, too much IV, k sparing diuretics(aldactalone,spiractalone) can cause muscle weakness, arrythmias, cardiac arrest, GI upset, give k-exelate, give a loop, give insulin d50

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166
Q

What happens in colonoscopy

A

A hollow tube is passed through the rectum.

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167
Q

hypothyroidism

A

under active thyroid gland due to thyroidectomy, atrophy of the gland, autoimmune disorders, there is an increased TSH and a decreased t3 and t4, people have slow metabolism, happens to women more than men, they also have cardiomegaly, activity intolerance, high cholesterol, slurred slow speech, altered LOC, and are overweight, treat with synthroid and if they had a thyroidectomy make sure they take this med all their life. put them on a low calorie diet

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168
Q

A 53 year old client is receiving an inserted radiologic device to treat her cancer of the cervix. In caring for the client what should you not do?
1. Allow guests to stay for only thirty minutes.
2 alleviate clients anxiety by maintaining close contact.
3. Not bring anything new into or out of the room
4 warm up your dinner by placing it on the clients radioactive site.

A

2 don’t maintain close contact with the client. Keep space to avoid radiation.

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169
Q

The nurse writes a problem of “impaired gas exchange” for a client diagnosed with cancer of the lung. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care. Select all that apply.

  1. Apply o2 nasal cannula
  2. Have the dietician plan for six small meals a day
  3. Place the client in respiratory isolation.
  4. Asses vital signs for a fever.
  5. Listen to lung sounds every shift.
A

1, 2, 4, 5

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170
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Internal, insertion of radioactive material into or close to a tumor. This makes the client radioactive.

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171
Q

Diagnostic surgery or biopsy is ?

A

The removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination or testing.

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172
Q

What is the third stage of cancer?

A

Progression or increased growth of tumor, increased invasion, or metastasis.

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173
Q

What are the routes for chemo administration?

A

IV, intra arterial, intra peritoneal, intrathecal ( through the cns), intra viscal ( through the bladder), or implanted pumps.

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174
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer has been told it has metastasized to the brain. Which intention should the nurse implement?

  1. Discuss implementing an advance directive.
  2. Explain the use of chemotherapy for brain involvement.
  3. Teach the client to discontinue driving.
  4. Have the significant other make decisions for the client.
A
  1. Discuss an advance directive
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175
Q

Bone marrow transplants are harvested from where?

A

Iliac crest, or sternum

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176
Q

The nurse is taking the social history from a client diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung or lung cancer. Which information is significant for this disease?

  1. The client worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago.
  2. The client has no family history for this type of lung cancer.
  3. The client has numerous twttoo’s covering his upper and lower arms ( and heather likes him).
  4. The client smoke two packs a day for twenty years.
A

4 smoking two packs a day for twenty years. Smoking is the number one risk factor for lung cancer.

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177
Q

Complication of bone marrow transplants include:

A

Infections, bacterial, fungal and viral

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178
Q

What is stage three on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are abnormal and poorly differentiated.

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179
Q

Men should get prostate screening when?

A

50 and older. Every 3 to 5 years. PSA and DRE ( not Doctor DRE.) yearly.

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180
Q

Defective cellular differentiation

A

Malignant transformation
Protoncogenes - normal regulatory cell genes, promote growth.
Normal tumor suppression genes - inhibit growth.
Carcinogens - cause mutations of DNA.
Oncogenes - tumor inducing genes arise from mutations.

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181
Q

Cancer control or cytoreductive surgery is?

A

Removing part of the tumor and leaving a known amount of the tumor.

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182
Q

What are the routes for chemo administration?

A

IV, intra arterial, intra peritoneal, intrathecal ( through the cns), intra viscal ( through the bladder), or implanted pumps.

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183
Q

What is TDS in caring for a radioactive client?

A

Time, Distance, and Shielding. This limits the nurse’s exposure to radioactive materials.

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184
Q

TNM stands for?

A

T is for tumor size
N is for spread to lymph Nodes
M is for Metastasis.

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185
Q

What is stage three on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are abnormal and poorly differentiated.

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186
Q

What is the histologic grading of cancer’s first stage?

A

Grade 1 - cells differ slightly for normal cells. They are well differentiated.

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187
Q

What is the second stage of cancer?

A

Promotion or enhancement of growth of initiated cells.

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188
Q

Who is a pat smear?

A

Former guitarist for nirvana and the foo fighters.

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189
Q

Cancer cells are

A

Abnormal, serve no useful function, and are harmful to normal tissues.

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190
Q

Anaplasia is

A

A featured of cancer cells, they lose the specific appearance of their parent cells.

191
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer has been told it has metastasized to the brain. Which intention should the nurse implement?

  1. Discuss implementing an advance directive.
  2. Explain the use of chemotherapy for brain involvement.
  3. Teach the client to discontinue driving.
  4. Have the significant other make decisions for the client.
A
  1. Discuss an advance directive
192
Q

The nurse is taking the social history from a client diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung or lung cancer. Which information is significant for this disease?

  1. The client worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago.
  2. The client has no family history for this type of lung cancer.
  3. The client has numerous twttoo’s covering his upper and lower arms ( and heather likes him).
  4. The client smoke two packs a day for twenty years.
A

4 smoking two packs a day for twenty years. Smoking is the number one risk factor for lung cancer.

193
Q

What is the modifiable risk factor for the development of cancer of the bladder?

  1. Previous exposure to chemicals.
  2. Pelvic radiation therapy.
  3. Cigarette smoking.
  4. Parasitic infections of the bladder.
A
  1. Cigarette smoking. The risk is directly proportional to the amount of smoking.
194
Q

A 53 year old client is receiving an inserted radiologic device to treat her cancer of the cervix. In caring for the client what should you not do?
1. Allow guests to stay for only thirty minutes.
2 alleviate clients anxiety by maintaining close contact.
3. Not bring anything new into or out of the room
4 warm up your dinner by placing it on the clients radioactive site.

A

2 don’t maintain close contact with the client. Keep space to avoid radiation.

195
Q

Your patient is in denial about his positive cancer test, and is making comments to deny the results.. What is the best nursing action.

1” face it you are a dead man.”
2 accept his comment.
3 “ maybe you will get better?”
4 advise him to check himself out of the hospital.
5 “ cancer doesn’t kill everyone, but yeah you are going to die. Ever see the Bucket List?”

A

Accept his comments

196
Q

A person who is immuno suppressed is more or less likely to get cancer?

A

More

197
Q

Clients who are receiving radiation therapy should avoid?

A

The sun, large groups,sick people. But especially the sun!

198
Q

Precautions the nurse should take for the bone marrow transplant client.

A

Protective isolation, and use hepa filters for the room.

199
Q

Side effects of chemo are?

A

Platelt suppression or thrombocytopenia, decreased rbc, decreased WBC, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia.

200
Q

The patient has colorectal cancer. What questions should you ask?

A

Ask the patient whether bowel habits have changed over the past year.
Is there obvious blood in the stool?
Have you had a colonoscopy

201
Q

Your suspect your client has prostate cancer. What questions do you ask?

A
Ask your client about:
Hesitancy in urination.
Change of size of the urine stream?
Pain in the back of the legs?
History of UTI's?
202
Q

You suspect your client has skin cancer. What would you do to assess?

A

Examine skin areas for moles or warts (gross)

Ask the patient about changes in the moles, such as color, edges, sensation.

203
Q

You suspect your client has lung cancer. How do you assess?

A

Observe skin and mucous membranes for color.
How many words can the patient say between breaths?
Ask the patient about:
Cough?
Hoarseness?
Smoking history? Exposure to inhalation irritants?
Shortness of breath?
Activity tolerance?
Frothy or bloody sputum?
Pain in the arms or chest?
Difficulty swallowing?

204
Q

Diagnostic surgery or biopsy is ?

A

The removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination or testing.

205
Q

Women should get breast cancer screenings when?

A

At age 40, and the. An annual mammogram and complete breast exam, also monthly self. Resist exam. Or as Thorpe says, have some man do it for you/ to you.

206
Q

Men and women should get a colon/rectal screening when?

A

Age 50 and older. Every 3-5 years after. Use a flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy.

207
Q

Defective cellular proliferation is?

A
Cancer cells that divide.
Normal cels respect other cells boundaries but cancer cells do not.
Stem cells are targeted.
DNA is substituted or rearranged.
Continuous growth of tumor mass.
208
Q

Curative surgery is?

A

Focuses on the removal of all cancer tissue.

209
Q

These people are more susceptible to cancer

A

Older clients, autoimmune disorder clients, immuno compromised clients, and steroid users.

210
Q

Chemotherapy has this goal

A

To decrease cancer cells at primary and metastatic cancer sites. It does this at the cellular level.

211
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Internal, insertion of radioactive material into or close to a tumor. This makes the client radioactive.

212
Q

Describe grade four in the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are immature and primitive. It is the worst of all the stages.

213
Q

What is stage two on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are more abnormal and moderately differentiated.

214
Q

What is the third stage of cancer?

A

Progression or increased growth of tumor, increased invasion, or metastasis.

215
Q

What is the first stage of cancer?

A

Initiation or the mutation of the cells DNA, for example: smoking.

216
Q

Uterine cancer checks should be done when?

A

18 and older, with an annual pap smear.

217
Q

The ability of cancer cells to spread is called?

A

Metastasize

218
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?

  1. It doesn’t matter if I smoke now, I already have cancer.
  2. I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appointment.
  3. If I begin to run a fever I should notify my doctor.
  4. I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day.
A
  1. Quit smoking you idiot,
219
Q

The nurse writes a problem of “impaired gas exchange” for a client diagnosed with cancer of the lung. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care. Select all that apply.

  1. Apply o2 nasal cannula
  2. Have the dietician plan for six small meals a day
  3. Place the client in respiratory isolation.
  4. Asses vital signs for a fever.
  5. Listen to lung sounds every shift.
A

1, 2, 4, 5

220
Q

The nurse is caring for clients on an oncology unit. Which neutropenia precautions should be implemented?

  1. Hold all nenipuncture sites for at least five minutes.
  2. Limit fresh fruits and flowers.
  3. Place all clients in reverse isolation.
  4. Have the clients use a soft-bristle toothbrush.
A

Limit fresh fruits and flowers. They may carry bacteria and the client will have a low WBC.

221
Q

What happens in colonoscopy

A

A hollow tube is passed through the rectum.

222
Q

How often should you get a sigmoidoscopy?

  1. Whenever you feel like it.
    2 age 40 and every five years after.
    3 age 50 and every 3-5 years after.
    4 age 50 and every 10 years after that.
A

Age 50 and every 3 - 5 years after.

223
Q

Radiation has some side effects. Pick the one the nurse should expect to see

  1. Bone marrow suppression
    2 kidney swelling
    3 finger nail clubbing
    4 becoming a Yankee fan
A

1 bone marrow suppression.

224
Q

Which of the following is more likely to develop cancer?

  1. A thirty year old man who lives in Ann arbor?
    2 a 40 year old woman who lives on a farm in wisconsin.
  2. A 70 year old man who lives in new York city?
  3. A 20 year old man who lives in Orlando, Florida?
A

The seventy year old mans due to pollution and oth factors. Plus he is most likely a Yankees fan and that Is worse than cancer.

225
Q

Complication of bone marrow transplants include:

A

Infections, bacterial, fungal and viral

226
Q

Bone marrow transplants are harvested from where?

A

Iliac crest, or sternum

227
Q

What should the nurse do when handling cancer drugs?

A

Use extreme care. Double gloves, do not let the medication touch you in any way.

228
Q

The patient has bladder cancer, what questions do you ask?

A

Any: pain on urination?
Blood in urine?
Cloudy urine?
Increased frequency or urgency in urination?

229
Q

Prophylactic surgery is?

A

The removal of at risk tissue to prevent cancer development.

230
Q

You suspect your client has leukemia. How do you assess?

A
Observe the skin for color or ecchymosis
Ask the patient about:
Fatigue?
Bruising? 
Tendency to bleed?
History of infections or illnesses.
Night sweats?
Unexplained fevers?
231
Q

What does C.A.U.T.I.O.N. stand for?

A
Changes in bowel or bladder habits
A sore that does not heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge
Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious change in wart or mole
Nagging cough or hoarseness

These are the seven warning signs of cancer.

232
Q

PEG tube

A

Type of feeding tube placed through the skin into the stomach without major surgery.

233
Q

Cellular response (cont)

A

-monocytes are second to arrive, appearing within 3-7 days. Thy clean the area. “they move from vascular system into cellular system where organism is attacking and become macrophages which CHOMP destroy bacteria, create pus, and clean up area for healing to occur.”

234
Q

Cellular response

A
  • migration of WBCs to inflammation site.
  • neutrophils (largest percentage of WBCs 80%) respond to acute bacterial invasion, appear in 6-12hrs.
  • bands are immature neutrophils which increase the neutrophil count. This is called SHIFT TO THE LEFT.
235
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes

A

Recognize foreign material, detect if it is dangerous, and then will destroy it.

236
Q

Sump tubes and drains

A

The term SUMP indicates a tube or drain with an air vent.
Air vent acts as irrigant.
Air flows down the tube an back through the suction tube.
Continuous suction is needed.

237
Q

Lymphocytes

A
  • B lymphocytes mature in bone marrow. These produce protein based antibodies and immunoglobulins.
  • T lymphocytes mature in thymus. These attack antigens and are antigen specific.
238
Q

Dehiscence and evisceration

A

Dehiscence- separation of wound edges.
Evisceration- wound separates intestines intrude.

Cover with sterile saline, then call dr!!!

239
Q

Delays in healing

A
  • nutritional deficiencies- slow tissue repair. Increase protein!! Zincs vitamin a and vitamin e and b6.
  • corticosteroids- suppress immune response.
  • age altered immune response -thymus shrinks tcells have nowhere to mature resulting in very little tcells.
  • DM- decrease O2 and slows capillary growth.
  • stress-impedes immune system
240
Q

Vascular response

A

Stage 1-Hyperemia- increased blood flow which is good it gets WBCs to site, increased capillary permeability and edema.

Stage 2-neutrophilia- neutrophils really increase, pus forms and the shift has occurred.

Stage 3-tissue repair And replacement- induction of healthy cell division and scar formation occurs.

241
Q

Wound assessment

A

Look at size, color, odor, exudate, location, length, width, depth in cm.

242
Q

Primary intention healing

A

Surgical wounds and lacerations are usually closed by primary intention.
Wound margins are secured with sutures, staples, or steri-strips.
If no complications develop wounds close by primary intention usually heal in 7-14 days.

243
Q

Prostaglandins

A
  • produced from metabolism of arachidonic acid.. Potent vasodilator. Causes FEVER. NSAIDS BLOCK PROSTAGLANDINS and vasodilation.
  • give enteric coated NSAID to pt with gerd.
244
Q

Systemic complications of IV therapy

A

Involves entire vascular system.

Ex. Circulatory overload, speed shock, allergic reaction, catheter embolism, pneumothorax, hemothorax, cyclothorax, hydrothorax, air embolism

245
Q

Inflammation

Infection

A
  • response to an injury to tissues. Does not mean there is an infection.
  • invasion of a susceptible host by a pathogen, causing disease.
246
Q

Surgical wounds

A

Are incisions made during surgical procedures. Skin grafts and donor sites are also considered surgical wounds.

247
Q

Hypotonic solution

A

Pulls fluid into the cells.

  • 0.45% sodium chloride
  • 0.33% sodium chloride
  • 0.2% sodium chloride
  • 2.5% dextrose in water
248
Q

Tertiary intention healing

A

Open wounds that are eventually closed by suturing or skin grafting are treated as wounds healing by secondary intention while they are open and as wounds healing by primary intention once they are closed.

249
Q

Hot cold compress

A

Heat-therapeutic, promotes muscle relaxation, vasodilates and increases circulation to site.
Cold- relieves swelling and inflammation.

On 20 min off 20 min to prevent reverse vasoconstriction. In the hospital there will be a regulator. Don’t lay on it, no longer than 20 min

250
Q

Partial thickness

A

Wound that involve the epidermis and extend Into but not through the dermis are considered partial thickness.

Ex: adhesive tape burns, sunburn, blisters, some skin tears, and stage 2 pressure ulcers

Nursing dx is impaired ski integrity

251
Q

3 stages of wound healing.

Stage 1: inflammatory

A

This phase begins at time of wounding and continues for 3-5 days. Removal of bacteria and cellular debris happens in this stage.

252
Q

Isotonic fluid

A

Nothing enters cell nothing leaves cell.

  • 0.9% sodium chloride
  • lactated ringers solution
  • 5% dextrose in water
  • ringers solution
253
Q

Drainage tube

A

Tube used for discharge of matter.

Device used for allowing escape of pus, serum, blood or other drainage from a wound, abscess, etc.

254
Q

Non surgical wounds

A

Wounds due to trauma! ( burns, skin tears) leg ulcers ( venous and arterial) pressure ulcers, diabetic ulcers, and dermatological lesions.

255
Q

Stage 2: proliferative phase

A

This phase begins 1-4 days post injury and lasts up to 3 weeks. New vessel formation, collagen formation and epithelizAtion are te major processes so that new tissue develops.

256
Q

Culture sensitivity

A

Cultures isolate the organism to figure out which med that the organism is most susceptible to.
MATCH DRUG TO THE BUG

257
Q

Risk factors for delays wound healing

A
  • infection
  • compromised blood supply
  • malnutrition
  • chronic disease such as cancer, diabetes, and aids
  • treatment with anticoagulants, chemo
  • age (very young and very old)
  • obesity
258
Q

Wound!

A

Wounds disrupt the clients first line of defense against injury an infection; the intact skin and mucosa!

DUH!

259
Q

Defenses

A
  • skin is a mechanical barrier to microorganisms. It is the biggest barrier.
  • mucous membranes -saliva washes away particles
  • vaginal mucosa
  • respiratory- cilia traps microbes (the little hairs)
260
Q

Local complications from IV therapy

A
  • infiltration- leakage of a nonvesicant IV solution or medication into the extra vascular tissue. Signs= edema, ski tightening, burning sensation, cool to touch.
  • phlebitis- inflammation of the vein . Signs= pain, redness, edema, vein hard and cordlike
261
Q

Full thickness

A

Wounds that involve a subq layer or extend into muscle or bone are considered full thickness wounds.

Ex. Deep leg ulcers, stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcers and deep burns

Nursing dx is impaired tissue integrity

262
Q

Localized inflammation signs

A

Redness, heat, pain, and swelling

263
Q

PEJ tube

A

Feeding tube placed through a larger gastrostomy tube that is already placed in the stomach. Placed in the small intestine

264
Q

Wound staging: stage 1

A

Non Blanchable erythema of intact skin

265
Q

Vancomycin and gentamycin

A

Look at kidney function (BUN and Cre) and oto function because it can be ototoxic!

266
Q

Stage 3: remodeling phase

A

During this phase, wound is restored to its greatest strength. The new scar tissue never regains the strength that the tissue had prior to injury.

267
Q

Secondary intention healing

A

Non surgical wounds are left open to heal. They have significant tissue loss and the wound cavity must fill with granulation tissue which eventually becomes scar tissue. May take weeks or months to heal.

268
Q

Systemic inflammation signs

A

Fever, increased pulse and respiratory rate, shift to left, malaise, nausea, anorexia

Affects body systems, widespread

269
Q

A person who is immuno suppressed is more or less likely to get cancer?

A

More

270
Q

Men should get a prostarate screening when?

A

50 and older. Every 3 to 5 years. PSA and DRE ( not Doctor DRE.) yearly.

271
Q

loop diuretics

A

examples (lasix,bumex) they lose k+, calcium and sodium, given for SIADH and FVE, know BP, k level, creatinine, BUN before you give also STOP them when a pt has FVD or is dehydrated or metabolic alkalosis K low)

272
Q

What is stage two on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are more abnormal and moderately differentiated.

273
Q

Who or what is a pat smear?

A

Former guitarist for nirvana and the foo fighters.

274
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

HCO3 below 21 pH below 7.35, caused by renal disease, uncontrolled diabetic, DKA, seizures, diarhhea(out your ass) k-sparings, your gonna see and increases RR, kussmauls respirations, give k-exelate to get rid of k, also give d50 w/ insulin

275
Q

Chemotherapy has this goal

A

To decrease cancer cells at primary and metastatic cancer sites. It does this at the cellular level.

276
Q

The patient has bladder cancer, what questions do you ask?

A

Any: pain on urination?
Blood in urine?
Cloudy urine?
Increased frequency or urgency in urination?

277
Q

What is the first stage of cancer?

A

Initiation or the mutation of the cells DNA, for example: smoking.

278
Q

hypothyroidism

A

under active thyroid gland due to thyroidectomy, atrophy of the gland, autoimmune disorders, there is an increased TSH and a decreased t3 and t4, people have slow metabolism, happens to women more than men, they also have cardiomegaly, activity intolerance, high cholesterol, slurred slow speech, altered LOC, and are overweight, treat with synthroid and if they had a thyroidectomy make sure they take this med all their life. put them on a low calorie diet

279
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

sustained release of thyroid hormone (over active) increased level of t3 and t4 and a decreased level of TSH, causes are autoimmune (graves) or goiters, everything speeds up so tachycardia, increased metabolism, increased systolic BP, frequent bowel movements, fast RR, warm moist skin, muscle weakness, restlessness, increased temperature give an anti thyroid med PTU, a b-blocker to manage their hypertension and tachycardia(propranolol, inderal) an iodine solution SSKI, Lugol) and tapazole

280
Q

The nurse is taking the social history from a client diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung or lung cancer. Which information is significant for this disease?

  1. The client worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago.
  2. The client has no family history for this type of lung cancer.
  3. The client has numerous twttoo’s covering his upper and lower arms ( and heather likes him).
  4. The client smoke two packs a day for twenty years.
A

4 smoking two packs a day for twenty years. Smoking is the number one risk factor for lung cancer.

281
Q

normal ABG levels

A

pH- 7.35-7.45
HCO3- 21-28
pCo2- 35-45
02- 80-100

282
Q

Which of the following is more likely to develop cancer?

  1. A thirty year old man who lives in Ann arbor?
    2 a 40 year old woman who lives on a farm in wisconsin.
  2. A 70 year old man who lives in new York city?
  3. A 20 year old man who lives in Orlando, Florida?
A

The seventy year old mans due to pollution and oth factors. Plus he is most likely a Yankees fan and that Is worse than cancer.

283
Q

Cancer control or cytoreductive surgery is?

A

Removing part of the tumor and leaving a known amount of the tumor.

284
Q

hypokalemia

A

potassium less than 3.5- caused by loops, steroids, ng tubes vomiting, diarhhea, metabolic alkalosis, these pts have arrhythmia, shallow respirations, low BP, altered LOC, hypoactive bowel sounds, distended abdomen, leg cramps give IV at 10 an hour ONLY on a pump never IV push, monitor site for phlebitis because k is a vesicant and is very irritating to skin, increase potassium intake, give supplements STOP digoxin because of possible dig toxicity

285
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

co2 below 35, pH above 7.45, caused mostly by fear and anxiety, also aspirin toxicity, they are hyperventilating (give a mask or paper bag) give mucomyst for aspirin tox

286
Q

What is the third stage of cancer?

A

Progression or increased growth of tumor, increased invasion, or metastasis.

287
Q

You suspect your client has skin cancer. What would you do to assess?

A

Examine skin areas for moles or warts (gross)

Ask the patient about changes in the moles, such as color, edges, sensation.

288
Q

Anaplasia is

A

A featured of cancer cells, they lose the specific appearance of their parent cells.

289
Q

Complication of bone marrow transplants include:

A

Infections, bacterial, fungal and viral

290
Q

Defective cellular differentiation

A

Malignant transformation
Protoncogenes - normal regulatory cell genes, promote growth.
Normal tumor suppression genes - inhibit growth.
Carcinogens - cause mutations of DNA.
Oncogenes - tumor inducing genes arise from mutations.

291
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?

  1. It doesn’t matter if I smoke now, I already have cancer.
  2. I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appointment.
  3. If I begin to run a fever I should notify my doctor.
  4. I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day.
A
  1. Quit smoking you idiot,
292
Q

What is the second stage of cancer?

A

Promotion or enhancement of growth of initiated cells.

293
Q

Your suspect your client has prostate cancer. What questions do you ask?

A
Ask your client about:
Hesitancy in urination.
Change of size of the urine stream?
Pain in the back of the legs?
History of UTI's?
294
Q

A 53 year old client is receiving an inserted radiologic device to treat her cancer of the cervix. In caring for the client what should you not do?
1. Allow guests to stay for only thirty minutes.
2 alleviate clients anxiety by maintaining close contact.
3. Not bring anything new into or out of the room
4 warm up your dinner by placing it on the clients radioactive site.

A

2 don’t maintain close contact with the client. Keep space to avoid radiation.

295
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

HCO3 above 28 pH above 7.45, k is low, caused by antacid use (tums) TPN therapy, they are going to complain of muscle weakness, vomiting, you want to give antiemetics

296
Q

What are the routes for chemo administration?

A

IV, intra arterial, intra peritoneal, intrathecal ( through the cns), intra viscal ( through the bladder), or implanted pumps.

297
Q

The patient has colorectal cancer. What questions should you ask?

A

Ask the patient whether bowel habits have changed over the past year.
Is there obvious blood in the stool?
Have you had a colonoscopy

298
Q

addisons disease

A

hypo function of the adrenal cortex, due to surgery, autoimmune disease, trauma, tumors, atrophy of the gland, they are going to have a bronzy appearance due to an increases MSH and have increased potassium and low sodium, give them d50 w/ insulin, and a loop diuretic, they are going to have hypoglycemia, weight loss, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, the goal is to replace glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids by giving a synthetic aldosterone (cortisone, Florinef) make sure they take this med with meals to prevent to GI upset or bleed. pt may have addisonian crisis (hypovolemic shock due to lack of aldosterone

299
Q

calcium

A

when calcium is up, phosphate is down, when calcium is low, the pt can have trousseaus and chvoteks, nerve impulses, skeletal, muscle contractions, if pt had thyroid or neck surgery they can also have low calcium,

300
Q

The nurse is caring for clients on an oncology unit. Which neutropenia precautions should be implamanted?

  1. Hold all nenipuncture sites for at least five minutes.
  2. Limit fresh fruits and flowers.
  3. Place all clients in reverse isolation.
  4. Have the clients use a soft-bristle toothbrush.
A

Limit fresh fruits and flowers. They may carry bacteria and the client will have a low WBC.

301
Q

Men and women should get a colon/rectal screening when?

A

Age 50 and older. Every 3-5 years after. Use a flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy.

302
Q

What is TDS in caring for a radioactive client?

A

Time, Distance, and Shielding. This limits the nurse’s exposure to radioactive materials.

303
Q

TNM stands for?

A

T is for tumor size
N is for spread to lymph Nodes
M is for Metastasis.

304
Q

Your patient is in denial aboutnhisnsitive cancer test. What is the best nursing action.

1” face it you are a dead man.”
2 accept his comment.
3 “ maybe you will get better?”
4 advise him to check himself out of the hospital.
5 “ cancer doesn’t kill everyone, but yeah you are going to die. Ever see the Bucket List?”

A

Accept his comments

305
Q

You suspect your client has lung cancer. How do you assess?

A

Observe skin and mucous membranes for color.
How many words can the patient say between breaths?
Ask the patient about:
Cough?
Hoarseness?
Smoking history? Exposure to inhalation irritants?
Shortness of breath?
Activity tolerance?
Frothy or bloody sputum?
Pain in the arms or chest?
Difficulty swallowing?

306
Q

Side effects of chemo are?

A

Patent dr or thrombocytopenia, decreased rbc, decreased WBC, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia.

307
Q

The ability of cancer cells to spread is called?

A

Metastasize

308
Q

Clients who are receiving radiation therapy should avoid?

A

The sun, large groups,sick people. But especially the sun!

309
Q

Normal electrolyte levels

A
k- 3.5-5.0 (potassium)
na- 136-145 (sodium)
ca- 9.0-10.5 ( calcium) 
mg- 1.3-2.1 (magnesium)
phosphorous- 3.0-4.5
cl- 98-106 (chloride)
albumin- 3.4-5
hemoglobin 12-16 female 14-18 male
hematocrit 36-47 female 42-52 male
310
Q

Precautions the nurse should take for the bone marrow transplant client.

A

Protective isolation, and use hepa filters for the room.

311
Q

The client diagnosed with lung cancer has been told it has metastasized to the brain. Which intention should the nurse implement?

  1. Discuss implementing an advance directive.
  2. Explain the use of chemotherapy for brain involvement.
  3. Teach the client to discontinue driving.
  4. Have the significant other make decisions for the client.
A
  1. Discuss an advance directive
312
Q

What does C.A.U.T.I.O.N. stand for?

A
Changes in bowel or bladder habits
A sore that does not heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge
Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious change in wart or mole
Nagging cough or hoarseness

These are the seven warning signs of cancer.

313
Q

Curative surgery is?

A

Focuses on the removal of all cancer tissue.

314
Q

hyperkalemia

A

potassium above 5- caused by excessive intake, too much IV, k sparing diuretics(aldactalone,spiractalone) can cause muscle weakness, arrythmias, cardiac arrest, GI upset, give k-exelate, give a loop, give insulin d50

315
Q

Uterine cancer checks should be done when?

A

18 and older, with an annual pap smear.

316
Q

These people are more susceptible to cancer

A

Older clients, autoimmune disorder clients, immuno compromised clients, and steroid users.

317
Q

Defective cellular proliferation is?

A
Cancer cells that divide.
Normal cels respect other cells boundaries but cancer cells do not.
Stem cells are targeted.
DNA is substituted or rearranged.
Continuous growth of tumor mass.
318
Q

cushings syndrome

A

excessive secretion of cortisol from the adrenal glands, excess glucocorticoids, excess secretion of ACTH and aldosterone, pt’s will have weight gain, pinpoint pupils, low potassium and high sodium, high blood glucose, delayed wound healing and poor nutrition, do strict i&O’s and a low sodium diet, and restrict fluid, highest risk is a patient on long term steroids, if they have an adrenalectomy it’s to remove the adrenal glands due to hyperfunction, if they can’t operate on pt due to cancer of adrenal cortex, MITOTANE is given

319
Q

Radiation has some side effects. Pick the one the nurse should expect to see

  1. Bone marrow suppression
    2 kidney swelling
    3 finger nail clubbing
    4 becoming a Yankee fan
A

1 bone marrow suppression.

320
Q

Women should get breast cancer screenings when?

A

At age 40, and the. An annual mammogram and complete breast exam, also monthly self. Resist exam. Or as Thorpe says, have some man do it for you/ to you.

321
Q

You suspect your client has leukemia. How do you assess?

A
Observe the skin for color or ecchymosis
Ask the patient about:
Fatigue?
Bruising? 
Tendency to bleed?
History of infections or illnesses.
Night sweats?
Unexplained fevers?
322
Q

Bone marrow transplants are harvested from where?

A

Iliac crest, or sternum

323
Q

Describe grade four in the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are immature and primitive. It is the worst of all the stages.

324
Q

What is the histologic grading of cancer’s first stage?

A

Grade 1 - cells differ slightly for normal cells. They are well differentiated.

325
Q

Diagnostic surgery or biopsy is ?

A

The removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination or testing.

326
Q

How often should you get a sigmoidoscopy?

  1. Whenever you feel like it.
    2 age 40 and every five years after.
    3 age 50 and every 3-5 years after.
    4 age 50 and every 10 years after that.
A

Age 50 and every 3 - 5 years after.

327
Q

What is the modifiable risk factor for the development of cancer of the bladder?

  1. Previous exposure to chemicals.
  2. Pelvic radiation therapy.
  3. Cigarette smoking.
  4. Parasitic infections of the bladder.
A
  1. Cigarette smoking. The risk is directly proportional to the amount of smoking.
328
Q

The nurse writes a problem of “impaired gas exchange” for a client diagnosed with cancer of the lung. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care. Select all that apply.

  1. Apply o2 nasal cannula
  2. Have the dietician plan for six small meals a day
  3. Place the client in respiratory isolation.
  4. Asses vital signs for a fever.
  5. Listen to lung sounds every shift.
A

1, 2, 4, 5

329
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

co2 above 45, pH below 7.35, they are hypo ventilating, also caused by narcotics, COPD, head/neck trauma, obesity, cushings, asthma, smoking. give them pain meds, tell them to cough and deep breathe, mechanically ventilate, steroids, low flow o2, give narcan for opioid overdose, make sure their LOC is WNL (earliest sign of hypoxia)

330
Q

What happens in colonoscopy

A

A hollow tube is passed through the rectum.

331
Q

Cancer cells are

A

Abnormal, serve no useful function, and are harmful to normal tissues.

332
Q

hyponaturemia

A

less than 136 low sodium caused by diuertics, ace inhibitors, addisons patient, diarrhea and vomitting, drowning, renal failure, diabetic, may have altered LOC, cerebral edema, anxious, hyper, muscle weakness, twitching, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia treat the cause, increase intake, give normal saline or lactated ringers (isotonic) or a hypertonic IV solution, restrict fluids to people with water intoxication (dilutional hyponaturemia) (low na but over hydrated)

333
Q

thyroidectomy

A

removal of all ( total) or part of the thyroid gland (subtotal) women who are of child bearing age usually have a subtotal thyroidectomy and before either surgery is done the client must have a normal (euthroid) state with iodine if they have a total then they must take synthroid lifelong and if they have a partial they may still produce some thyroid hormone. teach them how to support their head and neck while turning before surgery also teach them how to cough and deep breathe before surgery, and after surgery have calcium gluconate at the bed side because the surgery will cause hypocalcemia and look for chvoteks and trousseaus and stridor can be the first sign of hypocalcemia. check the front and back of their dressings to make sure they are not bleeding have a crash cart, calcium and a trach kit at the bedside also, the parathyroid glands may accidently be removed so this is a risk of doing the surgery

334
Q

What should the nurse do when handling cancer drugs?

A

Use extreme care. Double gloves, do not let the medication touch you in any way.

335
Q

What is stage three on the histologic grading scale?

A

Cells are abnormal and poorly differentiated.

336
Q

hypernaturemia

A

sodium over 145- caused by steroids, sweating, cushings pt, over infusing IV, infection, fever pt will have a decreased LOC, muscle twitching, full bounding pulse, pad the side rails because they can seize, give a loop, hypotonic IV, eat low sodium less than 2 gram, stop smoking, exercise, fresh fruits and veggies

337
Q

Prophylactic surgery is?

A

The removal of at risk tissue to prevent cancer development.

338
Q

hypoalbuminemia

A

low protein, caused by dehydration, malnutrition, dehydration, starving, dieting, burns liver disease, chronic infection

339
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Internal, insertion of radioactive material into or close to a tumor. This makes the client radioactive.

340
Q

Entry Inhibitors do not prevent the HIV proteins from binding T/F.

A

False It prevents the cp41from binding to the CCR5 receptor and entering the CD4 T cells

341
Q

What does the typicalHIV/AIDS pt die from

A

opportunistically infections or cancer

342
Q

Health are workers are not at risk of contacting HIV T/F

A

False. needle sticks and sharps are main means of occupational related HIVExposure

343
Q

newly made cells and compatible blood transfusions are not deemed safe by the immune system Tru or False

A

False it is the job of the immune system to recognize them and to monitor for foreign or non self substances

344
Q

Highly Active Antiretrviral Threapy HAART reduces the risk of transmission

A

False risk is always presenting HIV patients to transmit

345
Q

pregnant women with HIV have more likely chance for?

A

premature delivery, low birth weight, and transmitting the disease to infant

346
Q

whatis required to receive a diagnosis of AIDS?

A

CD4tcells count lower than 200
or an opportunistic infection
Once diagnosed as AiDS always an aids patient

347
Q

The drug that prevents single stranded HIV RNA to converting to double stranded DNAis

A

Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors NARTIS

348
Q

opertunistic infections are caused by?

A

organisms that are in the normal environment and are kept in check by the normal immune system and maybe responsible forthe clinical manifestations of the progressingHIV patient

349
Q

toxoplasmosis is contracted by?

.

A

through contact with cat feces or ingesting infected undercooked meat.
changes in mental status speech gait, headaches,fever

350
Q

Is

the vaginal area is more susceptible to HIV?

A

True the vaginal area has more mucus membrane then the penis thus HIV like otherSTDs are more easily transmitted
penis in rectalarea same idea for the rectal mucus a

351
Q

name four cancers that occur more readily in AIDS pts

A

Karposi.sarcoma purplish brown raised lesions
Hodgkins lymphoma
non-Hodgkins lymphoma Burkitts
invasive cervical cancer

352
Q

Normal healthy adult has how manyCD4 cells?

A

800-1000 cells/mm3

353
Q

fungal infections include?

A

food may taste funny because the Candidia stomactitis or esophagus is out of control. swallowing may be painful also
retrsternal pain-pain behind the ribs
woman withHIV may have persistent itching ,perineal irritation and a thick white discharge

354
Q

What is a result of HIVinfection immune system abnormalities?

A

lymphocytopenia
increased production of incomplete nonfunctional antibodies
Abnormally functioning macrophages

355
Q

HIV is transmitted by casual contact?T/F

A

False also not by mosquitoes or other insects

356
Q

Once inside a host it is the CD4 t- helper cells that are hijacked

A

True known as CD4 cells, helper inducer cells,T Cells, or T4 cell directs immune system defenses and regulates the activity of the immune system

357
Q

Lymphadenopathy is?

A

Pt has persistently large lymph nodes

358
Q

HIV to AIDS takes years T/F?

A

false it could be months to years depending on the more times the HIV was encountered. more encounters the more likely the process will bested up to AIDS

359
Q

what is a viral load?

A

amount of virus present in blood and other body fluid. The higher the blood level of HIVviremia

the greater risk for sexual transmission

360
Q

HIV protease is?

A

Chemical scissors that cut one long protein strand into functional pieces. These pieces bud off to infect other CD4cells
protease inhibitors work here to inhibit HIV protease

361
Q

AIDS is the most common secondary immune defiecny disease in the world and is caused by a virus

A

True

362
Q

what body fluidics HIV found.

A

blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk, amniotic fluid, feces, urine, saliva, tears,cerebrospinal fluid, lymph odes, cervical cells,corneal tissues, brain tissue
Blood andSemen havethehighest concentration

,

363
Q

when is a Western Blot used?

A

when an ELISA comes back positive. if 2 antibodies are found of the major HIV antigens then the person has tested positive for HIV not AIDS

364
Q

cryptocococsis widely spread with AIDS what are its symptoms

A

fever headache, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, nuchal rigidity-neck pain, mild concussion, and other mental status changes

365
Q

ElISA test may accurately test for HIV antibodies before 3weeks?

A

no the antibody is usually made anywhere from 3 weeks to 3 months and may not be detected up to 36 months after initial infection

366
Q

WORKS should be cleaned with——-?

A

flush used needle And syringe with clean water

fill syringe with bleach shake 30-60seconds

367
Q

during assessment what should the nurse inquire about witha HIVpatient?

A
when diagnoses
clinical symptoms
chronological infection hx
blood transfusion before1978-85
sexual practices
STD
Any TB or HEP
hemophilia or clotting issues
their overall knowledge of disease
368
Q

what are theABCs ofHiV

A

Abstinence
Be faithful
Condoms

369
Q

Intergrase is what?

A

Allows the viral ds viralDNA to be inserted into the host DNA
Intergrase inhibitors is a drug used to prevent viral DNA from integrating

370
Q

What is the first sign a woman may have for a HIV infection?

A

vaginal candidiasis

along with herpes,PID, cervical dysphasia, or cancer

371
Q

What are the precautions for HCW

A

gloves especially with nonintact skin

or weaping dermatitis or open lesions

372
Q

what is a protozoan infection common to HIV

A

PCP pneumocystis jroveci pneumonia is the most common

asses for dyspepsia on exertion, tachycardia, a persistent dry cough, and fever
may have weight loss and fatigue listen for crackles

373
Q

What is the age group thatis most likely to contract AIDS?

A

21-44
men on men sex highest risk46
either sex using intervenors drugs 20
Hispanics african Americans are increasing
women are fastest growing group due to sexual exposure and drug use 16

374
Q

HIV belongs to the group of viruses called———-.

A

Retrovirouses single stranded RNA and converts double stranded DNA

375
Q

HIV pregnant women should not continue HIV drug therapy T/F

A

False they should continue or start HIVtherapy

376
Q

only one infection. an be present at a time T/F

A

False the infection may be protozoan, fungal, bacterial, or viral and must be treAted immediately due to they may progress and cause death

377
Q

cryptospordiosis may result in what fatal syndrome

A

severe wasting syndrome, with electrolyte imbalances

378
Q

what are safer sex practices?

A

latex condom for genital anal sex
a condom or dental dam latex for or genital or oral/anal sex contact
latex gloves for finger or hand contact with vagina or rectum

379
Q

NANDAS for aAIDS
risk for infection related to I mine deficiency
impAired gas exchange related to anemia, respiratory infection PCP,Karposi sarcoma, CMV,anemia, fatigue, pain
Acute pain or chronic pain r/t neuropathy,myelopathy, cancer or infection
Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements r/t high metabolic need, nausea, and vomiting
Diarrhea r/t infection,food intolerance, or drugs
Impaired skin integrity r/t KS , infection, altered nutritional state, incontininance, immobility, hyperthermia, or cancer
Disturbed thought process r/t to AIDS dementia complex, enteral nervous system infection, or cancer
Chronic low self esteem r/t,, infection,changes in body, decreased self esteem or helplessness
Social isolation r/t stigma,virus transmittability infection control practices,or fear

A

additional. NDiagnosis
Activity intolerance r/t fatigue discomfort, cons defect, weakness, or anemia
Risk for injury r/t cons defect, mental status change, depression, or thrombocytopenia
Disturbed sensory preception(visual) r/t to CMV
retinitis or blindness
Sleep deprevation r/t pain discomfort, anxiety, or depression
Ineffective coping r/t the diagnosis of AIDS
Disabled family coping r/t the diagnosis of AIDS
Greiving r/t anticipated loss of role and function or impending death

380
Q

a patientwith AIDS doesn’t have to worry about TB?

A

TB occurs in2-10percent of all AIDS

381
Q

First manifestations of HIV?

A

fever,night sweat, chills, headache, muscle aches, Acute HIVhave rash and sore throats which is confused with mononucleosis and viral meningitis

382
Q

AIDS dementia complexis rareT-F?

A

false about 70percent of AIDS patients from barely noticible to severe dementia

383
Q

what is the most common bacterial infection for -AIDS

A

MAC or my robacterium Adium complex it infects the respiratory and GI tract and is a systemic infection
culture from lymph nodes bone arrow, and blood to diagnose
look for weight loss mailse swollen lymph glands or organ disease

384
Q

Hypotonic has lower sodium. What are examples?

A

.45% solution

385
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Low salt in ecf drives water into the cell.

386
Q

Hypo osmolarity is

A

Below 270

387
Q

Loop diuretics are potassium sparing? T or f

A

True

388
Q

1 liter is equal to

A

1 kg or 2.2 lbs.

389
Q

Osmolarity determines

A

H20 balance

390
Q

Magnesium

A

1.5 - 3.0

391
Q

Osmosis

A

Usage of water to mix salutes

392
Q

.9% solution, lacerated ringers are what kind of solutions

A

Isotonic

393
Q

Calcium values mg/dl

A

9.0 - 10.5

394
Q

Hypertonic solutions cause

A

Shrinkage in cells due to sodium

395
Q

Magneisum values

A

1.3 - 2.1

396
Q

Hyper osmolarity is

A

Above 300

397
Q

Sodium values

A

135 - 145

398
Q

Hypernatremia is

A

Too much salt in the ecf which in turn draws water from cells.

399
Q

Aldosterone does this

A

Balances sodium and water.

400
Q

Potassium values

A

3.5 - 5.5

401
Q

Diffusin

A

Passive mixture or spreading out of particles

402
Q

Hydrostatic pressure is provided by

A

The heart.

403
Q

Calcium values

A

4.5 - 5.2

404
Q

Difference between dehydration and over hydration is

A

Water only not related to electrolytes.

405
Q

Potassium values

A

3.5 - 4.5

406
Q

Phosphorus values

A

3.0 - 4.5 mg/dl

407
Q

cushings syndrome

A

excessive secretion of cortisol from the adrenal glands, excess glucocorticoids, excess secretion of ACTH and aldosterone, pt’s will have weight gain, pinpoint pupils, low potassium and high sodium, high blood glucose, delayed wound healing and poor nutrition, do strict i&O’s and a low sodium diet, and restrict fluid, highest risk is a patient on long term steroids, if they have an adrenalectomy it’s to remove the adrenal glands due to hyperfunction, if they can’t operate on pt due to cancer of adrenal cortex, MITOTANE is given

408
Q

hyperkalemia

A

potassium above 5- caused by excessive intake, too much IV, k sparing diuretics(aldactalone,spiractalone) can cause muscle weakness, arrythmias, cardiac arrest, GI upset, give k-exelate, give a loop, give insulin d50

409
Q

addisons disease

A

hypo function of the adrenal cortex, due to surgery, autoimmune disease, trauma, tumors, atrophy of the gland, they are going to have a bronzy appearance due to an increases MSH and have increased potassium and low sodium, give them d50 w/ insulin, and a loop diuretic, they are going to have hypoglycemia, weight loss, nausea, anorexia, diarrhea, the goal is to replace glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids by giving a synthetic aldosterone (cortisone, Florinef) make sure they take this med with meals to prevent to GI upset or bleed. pt may have addisonian crisis (hypovolemic shock due to lack of aldosterone

410
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

sustained release of thyroid hormone (over active) increased level of t3 and t4 and a decreased level of TSH, causes are autoimmune (graves) or goiters, everything speeds up so tachycardia, increased metabolism, increased systolic BP, frequent bowel movements, fast RR, warm moist skin, muscle weakness, restlessness, increased temperature give an anti thyroid med PTU, a b-blocker to manage their hypertension and tachycardia(propranolol, inderal) an iodine solution SSKI, Lugol) and tapazole

411
Q

hypokalemia

A

potassium less than 3.5- caused by loops, steroids, ng tubes vomiting, diarhhea, metabolic alkalosis, these pts have arrhythmia, shallow respirations, low BP, altered LOC, hypoactive bowel sounds, distended abdomen, leg cramps give IV at 10 an hour ONLY on a pump never IV push, monitor site for phlebitis because k is a vesicant and is very irritating to skin, increase potassium intake, give supplements STOP digoxin because of possible dig toxicity

412
Q

hypoalbuminemia

A

low protein, caused by dehydration, malnutrition, dehydration, starving, dieting, burns liver disease, chronic infection

413
Q

hyponaturemia

A

less than 136 low sodium caused by diuertics, ace inhibitors, addisons patient, diarrhea and vomitting, drowning, renal failure, diabetic, may have altered LOC, cerebral edema, anxious, hyper, muscle weakness, twitching, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia treat the cause, increase intake, give normal saline or lactated ringers (isotonic) or a hypertonic IV solution, restrict fluids to people with water intoxication (dilutional hyponaturemia) (low na but over hydrated)

414
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

co2 above 45, pH below 7.35, they are hypo ventilating, also caused by narcotics, COPD, head/neck trauma, obesity, cushings, asthma, smoking. give them pain meds, tell them to cough and deep breathe, mechanically ventilate, steroids, low flow o2, give narcan for opioid overdose, make sure their LOC is WNL (earliest sign of hypoxia)

415
Q

loop diuretics

A

examples (lasix,bumex) they lose k+, calcium and sodium, given for SIADH and FVE, know BP, k level, creatinine, BUN before you give also STOP them when a pt has FVD or is dehydrated or metabolic alkalosis K low)

416
Q

normal ABG levels

A

pH- 7.35-7.45
HCO3- 21-28
pCo2- 35-45
02- 80-100

417
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

co2 below 35, pH above 7.45, caused mostly by fear and anxiety, also aspirin toxicity, they are hyperventilating (give a mask or paper bag) give mucomyst for aspirin tox

418
Q

Normal electrolyte levels

A
k- 3.5-5.0 (potassium)
na- 136-145 (sodium)
ca- 9.0-10.5 ( calcium) 
mg- 1.3-2.1 (magnesium)
phosphorous- 3.0-4.5
cl- 98-106 (chloride)
albumin- 3.4-5
hemoglobin 12-16 female 14-18 male
hematocrit 36-47 female 42-52 male
419
Q

thyroidectomy

A

removal of all ( total) or part of the thyroid gland (subtotal) women who are of child bearing age usually have a subtotal thyroidectomy and before either surgery is done the client must have a normal (euthroid) state with iodine if they have a total then they must take synthroid lifelong and if they have a partial they may still produce some thyroid hormone. teach them how to support their head and neck while turning before surgery also teach them how to cough and deep breathe before surgery, and after surgery have calcium gluconate at the bed side because the surgery will cause hypocalcemia and look for chvoteks and trousseaus and stridor can be the first sign of hypocalcemia. check the front and back of their dressings to make sure they are not bleeding have a crash cart, calcium and a trach kit at the bedside also, the parathyroid glands may accidently be removed so this is a risk of doing the surgery

420
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

HCO3 below 21 pH below 7.35, caused by renal disease, uncontrolled diabetic, DKA, seizures, diarhhea(out your ass) k-sparings, your gonna see and increases RR, kussmauls respirations, give k-exelate to get rid of k, also give d50 w/ insulin

421
Q

calcium

A

when calcium is up, phosphate is down, when calcium is low, the pt can have trousseaus and chvoteks, nerve impulses, skeletal, muscle contractions, if pt had thyroid or neck surgery they can also have low calcium,

422
Q

hypernaturemia

A

sodium over 145- caused by steroids, sweating, cushings pt, over infusing IV, infection, fever pt will have a decreased LOC, muscle twitching, full bounding pulse, pad the side rails because they can seize, give a loop, hypotonic IV, eat low sodium less than 2 gram, stop smoking, exercise, fresh fruits and veggies

423
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

HCO3 above 28 pH above 7.45, k is low, caused by antacid use (tums) TPN therapy, they are going to complain of muscle weakness, vomiting, you want to give antiemetics

424
Q

hypothyroidism

A

under active thyroid gland due to thyroidectomy, atrophy of the gland, autoimmune disorders, there is an increased TSH and a decreased t3 and t4, people have slow metabolism, happens to women more than men, they also have cardiomegaly, activity intolerance, high cholesterol, slurred slow speech, altered LOC, and are overweight, treat with synthroid and if they had a thyroidectomy make sure they take this med all their life. put them on a low calorie diet

425
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Serum sodium level less than 135 mEq/L
Sodium deficits cause plasma hypo-osmolality and cellular swelling
Pure sodium deficits
Low intake of sodium
Manifestations include
Lethargy, confusion, decreased reflexes, seizures, and coma

426
Q

Hyperphosphatemia

A

High phosphate levels are related to the low calcium levels

427
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

Decreases the block of Na+ into the cell
Increased neuromuscular excitability (partial depolarization)
Muscle cramps

428
Q

Edema

A

Accumulation of fluid within the interstitial spaces
Causes increase in capillary permeability
loss of plasma proteins
decrease in plasma oncotic pressure
increased tissue oncotic pressure
increases in capillary permeability & Lymph obstruction
Occurs with renal failure and CHF
sodium and H20 retention
kidney senses dec. perfusion or dec. volume

429
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

depression of pCO2 as a result of alveolar hyperventilation

430
Q

Phosphate

A

Like calcium, most phosphate is also located in the bone

Necessary for high-energy bonds located in creatine phosphate and ATP and acts as an anion buffer

431
Q

bones, lungs, and kidneys

A

the major organs involved in the regulation of acid and base balance

432
Q

Hypophosphatemia

A
Osteomalacia (soft bones)
Muscle weakness
Bleeding disorders (platelet impairment)
Anemia
Leukocyte alterations
Antacids bind phosphate
433
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

elevation of pCO2 as a result of ventilation depression

434
Q

buffering pair

A

weak acid and its conjugate base

435
Q

Calcium

A

99% of calcium is located in the bone as hydroxyapatite
Necessary for structure of bones and teeth, blood clotting, hormone secretion, and cell receptor function
Plasma concentration 9 to 10.5 mg/dL

436
Q

Sodium and Chloride Balance

A

Renin-angiotensin system, Aldosterone, Natriuretic peptides

437
Q

With Age,

A

Decreased percent of total body water
Increase adipose and decrease muscle mass
Renal decline
Diminished thirst perception

438
Q

Water Excess

A

Compulsive water drinking
Decreased urine formation
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
ADH secretion in the absence of hypovolemia or hyperosmolality
Hyponatremia with hypervolemia
Manifestations include: cerebral edema, muscle twitching, headache, and weight gain

439
Q

Buffer

A

a chemical that can bind excessive H+ or OH- without a significant change in pH

440
Q

Hypochloremia

A

Usually the result of hyponatremia or elevated bicarbonate concentration
Develops as a result of vomiting and the loss of HCl
Occurs in cystic fibrosis

441
Q

Hyperchloremia

A

Occurs with hypernatremia or a bicarbonate deficit
Usually secondary to pathophysiologic processes
Managed by treating underlying disorders

442
Q

Acids

A

formed as end products of protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism

443
Q

Forces favoring reabsorption

A

Plasma oncotic pressure (water-pulling) +

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

444
Q

Potassium

A

Major intracellular cation
Concentration maintained by Na+/K+ pump
Regulates intracellular electrical neutrality in relation to Na+ and H+
Essential for transmission and conduction of nerve impulses, normal cardiac rhythms, and skeletal and smooth muscle contraction
Changes in pH affect K+ balance
Hydrogen ions accumulate in the ICF during states of acidosis. K+ shifts out to maintain a balance of cations across the membrane.
Aldosterone, insulin, and catecholamines influence serum potassium levels

445
Q

Hypernatremia

A
Serum sodium greater than 147 mEq/L
Related to sodium gain or water loss
Water movement from the ICF to the ECF
Intracellular dehydration
Manifestations
Intracellular dehydration, convulsions, pulmonary edema, hypotension, tachycardia, etc.
446
Q

Extracellular fluid

A

Interstitial fluid + Intravascular fluid

447
Q

Dehydration

A

Water Deficit
Manifestations include
Tachycardia, weak pulses, and postural hypotension, elevated hematocrit and serum sodium level

448
Q

Severe hyperkalemia attacks

A

The cell is not able to repolarize, resulting in muscle weakness, loss or muscle tone, and flaccid paralysis

449
Q

Thirst perception

A

Involves Osmolality receptors

Hyperosmolality and plasma volume depletion

450
Q

Carbonic Acid-Bicarbonate Pair

A

Operates in the lung and the kidney
The greater the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, the more carbonic acid is formed
At a pH of 7.4, the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is 20:1
Bicarbonate and carbonic acid can increase or decrease, but the ratio must be maintained
If the amount of bicarbonate decreases, the pH decreases, causing a state of acidosis
The pH can be returned to normal if the amount of carbonic acid also decreases
This type of pH adjustment is referred to as compensation
The respiratory system compensates by increasing or decreasing ventilation
The renal system compensates by producing acidic or alkaline urine

451
Q

Hypermagnesemia

A
Skeletal muscle depression
Muscle weakness
Hypotension
Respiratory depression
Lethargy, drowsiness
Bradycardia
Hypoactive reflexes
rare
occurs with kidney failure
452
Q

Alkalosis

A

Systemic decrease in H+ concentration

453
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

elevation of HCO3- usually caused by an excessive loss of metabolic acids

454
Q

Starling hypothesis

A

forces favoring filtration minus forces opposing filtration

455
Q

Hypercalcemia

A
Increases the block of Na+ into the cell
Decreased neuromuscular excitability
Muscle weakness
Cardiac arrest
Kidney stones
Constipation
456
Q

Hypokalemia

A

Potassium level <3.5 mEq/L
Potassium balance is described by changes in plasma potassium levels
Causes can be reduced intake of potassium, increased entry of potassium, and increased loss of potassium
Manifestations
Membrane hyperpolarization causes a decrease in neuromuscular excitability, skeletal muscle weakness, smooth muscle atony, and cardiac dysrhythmias

457
Q

most important plasma buffering systems

A

the carbonic acid-bicarbonate system and hemoglobin

458
Q

Total body water (TBW)

A

Intracellular fluid + Extracellular fluid

459
Q

pH

A
ranges from 0 to 14
normally in the body (7.35-7.45)
0 is very acidic
14 is very alkaline
Each number represents a factor of 10
460
Q

Magnesium

A

Intracellular cation
Plasma concentration is 1.8 to 2.4 mEq/L
Acts as a cofactor in intracellular enzymatic reactions
Increases neuromuscular excitability

461
Q

Hypotonic Alterations

A

Decreased osmolality
Hyponatremia or free water excess
Hyponatremia decreases the ECF osmotic pressure, and water moves into the cell
Water movement causes symptoms related to hypovolemia
Free water excess causes symptoms of hypervolemia and water intoxication

462
Q

Chloride

A

Primary ECF anion

Provides electroneutrality

463
Q

Hypomagnesemia

A
Associated with hypocalcemia and hypokalemia
Neuromuscular irritability
Tetany
Convulsions
Hyperactive reflexes
464
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

depression of HCO3- or an increase in noncarbonic acids

465
Q

Normal arterial blood pH

A

7.35 to 7.45

Obtained by arterial blood gas (ABG) sampling

466
Q

Mild hyperkalemia attacks

A

Increased neuromuscular irritability

Tingling of lips and fingers, restlessness, intestinal cramping, and diarrhea

467
Q

Forces favoring filtration

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure (blood pressure) +

Interstitial oncotic pressure (water-pulling)

468
Q

Isotonic alterations

A

Total body water change with proportional electrolyte and water change
Isotonic fluid loss
Isotonic fluid excess

469
Q

Acidosis

A

Systemic increase in H+ concentration

470
Q

Calcium and Phosphate

A

Calcium and phosphate concentrations are rigidly controlled
If the concentration of one increases, that of the other decreases
Plasma concentration 2.5 to 4.5 mg/dL

471
Q

Pitting Edema

A

fluid builds up in the extremities to such a degree that when the fluid filled extremity is gently pushed with a finger, a depression will remain in the flesh

472
Q

Nonvolatile Body acids

A

Sulfuric, phosphoric, and other organic acids

Eliminated by the renal tubules with the regulation of HCO3-

473
Q

Volatile Body acids

A

H2CO3 (can be eliminated as CO2 gas)

474
Q

hypovolemia

A

blood disorder consisting of low volume of circulating blood
caused by pure volume loss
sodium deficit leads to DECREASED osmotic pressure of ECF. Causes water to move into cells, increasing osmotic pressure in cells, and thus decreasing plasma volume

475
Q

Sodium

A

Primary ECF cation
Regulates osmotic forces
Roles: Neuromuscular irritability, acid-base balance, and cellular chemical reactions and membrane transport

476
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

Potassium level >5.5 mEq/L
Hyperkalemia is rare because of efficient renal excretion
Caused by increased intake, shift of K+ from ICF, decreased renal excretion, insulin deficiency, or cell trauma