the patient Flashcards

(159 cards)

1
Q

What is teething?

A

first tooth usually erupts age 6 to 9 months

Full complement of milk, teeth by age, 2 1/2

It is normal and not an illness

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2
Q

Does teething cause a fever?

A

Some studies have shown a statistically significant rise in temperature about three days before tooth eruption

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3
Q

does teething cause of dribbling?

A

Saliva re glands start functioning at 2 to 3 months of age, which contributes to consistent dribbling

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4
Q

Does teething cause sleepless nights?

A

nocturnal awakening occurs at around eight months of age, when babies develop a sense of object permanence

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5
Q

Does teething, cause diarrhoea and cold symptoms?

A

At about six months of age, maternal antibodies start to decrease

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6
Q

What is non-pharmacological advice can you give for teething?

A

teething rings – some can be stored in the fridge, but can they be sterilised?

Wet, cold, flannel – to bite on

Chilled fruit/vegetable if a child is weaned. Beware of choking.

Extra cool water? Breast milk, ice lollies?

Protect from dribble rash

Clean teeth as soon as they come through and speak to dentist about first checkup

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7
Q

What is pharmacological help? Can you give me the symptoms of teething?

A

paracetamol/ibuprofen – at a suitable dose for age

Teething gels – not recommended as there is little evidence that they work

Be careful to avoid salicylate gels with reyes syndrome.

Teething gel is now behind chemist counter. Think about when you would sell them.

Homeopathic remedies claim to treat physiological symptoms and emotional issues associated with teething. Not recommended.

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8
Q

what is oropharyngeal candidiasis (oral thrush)

A

very young and very old

Identifiable risk factors
Broad spectrum antibiotic
Inhaled corticosteroids
Dentures
Nappy rash

Underlying pathology
Diabetes
Dry mouth
Immuno compromised

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9
Q

What are clinical features of oral thrush?

A

creamy white patches that can’t be right away, leaving a red raw mucosa

Spots of bleeding

Pain and altered taste can lead to a loss in appetite

Babies – do not feed well/nappy rash

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10
Q

treatment for oral thrush

A

miconazole - available OTC

Not for babies
Greater than four months, possible choking
not in Pregnancy

topical effect and systemic absorption
Interactions – warfarin enhanced affect

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11
Q

What is some advice for patients on the treatment of oral thrush?

A

councelling:
Use treatment for two days after symptoms have cleared.
daktarin gel can be used on the nipples of breastfeeding mothers
If using inhaled corticosteroids, use a spacer or rinse out mouth after using inhaler
dental hygiene and dentures – clean thoroughly at night, and then Rub with Daktarin gel
Babies – use of steriliser

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12
Q

red flags and danger symptoms with oral thrush?

A

diabetic patients
Duration greater than three weeks
Treatment failure
Immunocompromised patients
Painless patches
Unexplained numbness on lips and tongue
Changes in speech

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13
Q

what is leukopakia

A

usually a reaction to an irritant
White patch cannot be wiped off
Can also be a precancerous condition
Refer to a dentist immediately

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14
Q

what can mouth cancer be caused by

A

smoking
Alcohol
HPV

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15
Q

what are cold sores

A

herpes simplex virus

primary infection, normally in childhood
Virus enters through mucous membranes, lies dormant in the nerve root

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16
Q

What are the most common triggers of cold sores?

A

menstruation
Stress
Ultraviolet light
Extreme cold
Viral infections
Fever

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17
Q

What is the most effective use of cold sore treatment?

A

most effective if used early in an attack

Five times a day for five days
zovirax

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18
Q

What does a black hairy tongue mean?

A

bumps on your tongue Grow trapping bacteria

associated with poor oral hygiene, antibiotic use, smoking, drinking tea and coffee, and xerostomia

Try brushing/scraping tongue

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19
Q

what are mouth ulcers

A

Round, grey white with a red rim
less than 1 cm in diameter
Painful
Trauma/stress/tiredness
Hormone changes
Other medical conditions
Nutritional deficiency iron/B12

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20
Q

What is the treatment of mouth ulcers?

A

antiseptic
Anaesthetics
Corticosteroids
Saline, mouthwash

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21
Q

Medicines and medical conditions that can cause mouth ulcers

A

viral infections – chickenpox, cold sores, hand, foot and mouth disease

Crohn’s disease
Coeliac disease
Beta blockers
Chemo and radiotherapy
NSAIDs

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22
Q

what is angular chelitis

A

nutritional deficiency – B vitamins and iron and zinc
inflammatory skin disease
Infection
Windburn/sunburn
Licking lips

Treatments can depend on cause
Lip balm, if Winburn/sunburn
miconazole oral gel – antifungal and bacteriostatic
Talk about nutrition and refer to blood tests if necessary

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23
Q

Dietary advice to maintain oral health

A

do not consume sugar, two hours between meals
Sugar-free medicines
Never give pure fruit juice to children
Avoid sweetened dummies
water or Milk only in feeding bottles
Sugar-free gum after meals
Avoid acidic foods and drinks

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24
Q

what is xerostomia

A

dry mouth

Can be caused by:
Radiation
Damage/disease to salivary glands
antidepressants
Antihistamines
anti spasmodics

Can be helped by:
Frequent sips of water
Sucking ice cubes
Sugar-free gum
Artificial saliva

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25
what is dyspepsia
overeating-GORD Stomach irritation: Food Alcohol Nicotine Medicines – GORD
26
Symptoms experienced with dyspepsia
bloating feeling Churning stomach Stomach cramps Discomfort/pain Excess acid Wind Doll stomach ache
27
What is functional dyspepsia?
symptoms can include nausea/discomfort Can occur after gastroenteritis/food poisoning Normally acute but can become chronic Epigastric, pain syndrome – interaction between nerves of the gut and central nervous system Post prandial distress syndromes– problems with stomach, emptying relaxing
28
What is the treatment for functional dyspepsia?
diet – foods to avoid Avoid stress/anxiety drug therapy – PPIs – even though there may be no evidence that excess acid is involved
29
what is GORD heartburn causes
weekend/malfunctioning oesophageal sphincter Pregnancy
30
GORD heartburn symptoms
severe pain in the upper chest Burning in the back of the throat Taste of acid Burning pain rising to mouth Excess acid Sore throat/dry cough
31
Red flags/danger symptoms of heartburn
pain radiating down the arm Cardiac problems Pain radiating to the back or the shoulder Pain waking up the patient Patient is over 50 Bleeding Weight loss Anaemia Assistant vomiting dysphasia Breathlessness and frequent symptoms
32
What is nonpharmacological advice for heartburn?
raise the bed or extra pillow to reduce symptoms at night Stop smoking and reduce caffeine/alcohol intake Decrease weight/low-fat diet Avoid spicy/oily foods, or other foods that may trigger symptoms Small, regular meals
33
What is treatment OTC for heartburn?
antacids Magnesium salt Aluminium salt Sodium salt Calcium salt
34
What is a proton pump inhibitor (OTC)
evidence that they are superior to H2 antagonists at controlling symptoms of heartburn there are many drug interactions If there is no relief of heartburn after two weeks, refer to GP
35
What are causes of constipation?
change of eating/lifestyle/routine Ageing Medication/other medical conditions IBS Pregnancy Depression Toddler constipation Cancer (rare)
36
What is nonpharmacological advice for constipation?
increase fluid intake Increase dietary fibre intake Increase levels and frequency of physical activity no delay in passing a motion
37
What are stimulant laxatives?
stimulate nerve endings in the gut The increase peristalsis Take 8 to 12 hours to work Risk of lazy bowel Caution in pregnancy
38
what are bulk forming laxatives?
same effect as increasing dietary fibre Stool will be easier to pass as volume will be increased must have an adequate fluid intake Side effects can be flatulence and bloating
39
What are osmotic laxative?
where water is drawn into intestines
40
Describe signs of laxative abuse
buying large amount of laxatives Buying laxatives on a regular basis Physical signs: thin Pale clammy skin Dry brittle hair Dark circles around the eyes Malnourished appearance
41
Red flags/danger symptoms of constipation
pain on defecation Patient over 40, with a sudden change in habit with no cause Duration of more than two weeks Tiredness Alternating constipation/diarrhoea (IBS?) Substantial blood loss dark tarry stools
42
What is haemorrhoids?
prolapsed anal cushions rare under the age of about 20
43
What are the symptoms of haemorrhoids?
pain when passing motion with external haemorrhoids Itching Mucus discharge Bleeding – bright, red, fresh blood
44
Risk factors of haemorrhoids
constipation Straining Being overweight Lack of exercise Heavy lifting Those who stand or sit for long periods of time Pregnancy or after child birth Genetic disposition
45
What are treatment for haemorrhoids?
consider formulation – cream or ointment or suppository Local anaesthetic – effect is short lived anatrigents - little evidence they work corticosteroids – hydrocortisone reduces swelling, and inflammation. Not in pregnancy. You have to be over 18.
46
Red flags/danger symptoms of haemorrhoids
Patient over 40 with sudden change in habits with no cause Treatment failure Patience, manually, reducing haemorrhoids Severe pain Blood mixed in with stool Significance of bleeding
47
what are two types of viral diarrhoea
rotavirus Norovirus
48
what is rotavirus
highly infectious virus resulting in 10% of children, and then up in hospital, due to dehydration Vaccine introduced in 2013, and it has decreased cases by 70%
49
what is norovirus
winter vomiting bug Small particles of vomit, or stores from person, getting in your mouth, contaminated, food, airborne, touching contaminated surfaces Virus mutates, so no chance to get an immunity
50
Why is diarrhoea associated with travel?
cholera – bacterial infection Typhoid – bacterial infection Associated with severe diarrhoea, dehydration, dysentery (blood in stool) Vaccinations are available for travel. Travellers should still follow personal/food hygiene advice.
51
Food hygiene advice for travellers
bottled water not tap Sterilised tap water? Food freshly prepared and hot Avoid uncooked vegetables Eat fruit, that can be peeled Avoid ice cubes Avoid locally produced ice cream/mayonnaise and other sauces
52
what is diarrhoea caused by protozoa (giardiasis)
caused by contaminated, drinking water aboard always ask about foreign holidays when patients have diarrhoea Watery, foul, smelling, diarrhoea, epigastric, pain, bloating, and wind Refer to GPS suspected
53
Other less common causes of diarrhoea
anxiety Food intolerance Medication IBS Impaction
54
Oral rehydration therapy for diarrhoea (ORT)
glucose/rice powder with salt made up with water to form an isotonic solution Often prescribed – check suitable ages over the counter Make up with a 200 mL of plain water Taken after each loose bowel movement Discard if not drunk after 24 hours
55
treatment that is GSL and P for diarrhoea
loperamide It’s reduces duration by 30 to 50% It allows for reabsorption of fluid to take place Should not be taken within 24 hours of fever, or if a bacterial cause of diarrhoea is suspected age 12 and over – take two capsules initially, and one capsule after each episode of diarrhoea and up to 6 capsules in one day. Side-effects include nausea, abdominal pain, drowsiness, dizziness, and dry mouth.
56
Non-pharmacological advice for diarrhoea
wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water after going to the toilet and before eating Don’t prepare food for others Clean the toilet, including the handle on the seat with disinfectant after each bout of diarrhoea avoid sharing towels, flannels, cutlery Don’t visit the people if unwell Stay off work for two days after symptoms have cleared Avoid swimming pools for up to 2 weeks after diarrhoea
57
Red flag and dangerous symptoms of diarrhoea
medication such as diuretics Patients are unable to drink Change in bowel habit in patient over 50 Recent travel to tropical/subtropical climate Blood or mucus in stool Suspected impaction in children/elderly Severe abdominal pain Intolerance
58
Signs of dehydration in children and adults
feeling thirsty and lightheaded Dry mouth Passing water less than four times a day Having dark coloured/strong, smelling urine Passing urine, less often than usual serious signs Extreme Tiredness Weak, rapid pulse Dizziness that does not go away Seizures
59
signs of dehydration in babies
Seem drowsy Breathe fast Have a few or no tears when they cry Have a soft spot on the head that sinks inwards Have a dry mouth Have a dark yellow urine How cold and blotchy looking hands and feet Have not passed water in the last 12 hours
60
personal hygiene to prevent threadworms and parasitic worms
wear close-fitting underwear at night remove in the bath and in the morning Wear cotton gloves at night to avoid collecting eggs, when scratching Wash hands and scrub under the nails regularly Discourage nailbiting and finger sucking Don’t share towels/flannels
61
Environmental hygiene to prevent threadworms and parasitic worms
vacuum and dust thoroughly Wash toys Throwaway Play-Doh Change and wash clothes daily Change and wash, bedlinen/towels, following treatment
62
Treatment for threadworms and parasitic worms mebendazole
treat the whole family, even if not, all members are showing symptoms Repeat treatment after 14 days to cover the whole life cycle works by stopping the worm from absorbing glucose There are interactions with anti-epileptics Avoid in pregnancy Suitable for children over 2
63
Red flags/danger symptoms when treating threadworms and parasitic worms
treatment failure Secondary infection, due to scratching around the anus
64
What is the large intestine?
digested residues are further processed here water and electrolytes absorbed Leftover compact is to become stool
65
How do we poo?
Peristatic waves move the stool into the sigmoid colon and rectum Sensory nerves in rectum are stimulated Individual becomes aware of the need to defecate Stool moves into the anal canal, when the internal and external sphincters relax
66
what is acute diarrhoea?
last for less than three days, probably due to an acute infection from Saturn pathogens, or from medications, with diarrhoea as a side effect
67
What is chronic diarrhoea?
lasts for more than three days, probably due to several reasons. Could also be due to more severe problems such as ulcerative colitis
68
What are some causes of diarrhoea?
norwalk virus Rotavirus Travellers diarrhoea amoeba which causes amebiasis Expired food Side-effects of medications like antibiotics
69
diarrhoea can be classed into three subtypes. What are these?
Secretory diarrhoea osmotic diarrhoea exudative diarrhoea
70
what is exudative diarrhoea?
Due to chronic diseases
71
What is osmotic diarrhoea?
Due to increased salt and sugar
72
What is secretory diarrhoea?
Due to increased active secretion of mucus
73
What is constipation?
happens when the stool remains in the large intestine for too long
74
What can cause constipation?
in adequate diet Infrequent exercise Stress and anxiety Suppression of the urge to defecate Pregnancy
75
What is the appendix?
A vestigial organ. Tubular in shape and about 8 cm long. The lumen joins the cecum
76
what is IBS
Icronic gastrointestinal disorder of an unknown cause 20% of people experience it at some point in life
77
Symptoms of IBS
abdominal pain or cramping Diarrhoea or constipation Flatulence Bloated feeling Feeling of incomplete bowel movement Mucus in stool
78
what is IBD
Inflammatory bowel disease
79
Symptoms of IBD
abdominal pain or cramping Bloody diarrhoea Weight loss Extreme tiredness Inflammation of the got Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis
80
what is an ostomy
Surgically creating an opening in the stomach in the abdominal wall for the elimination of dietary waste – maybe permanent or temporary
81
what is a colostomy
a ostomy from a section of the colon
82
what is a ileostomy
an ostomy from a section of the ileum
83
What is the function of the kidney?
to remove waste products Regulation of extra cellular fluid volume Regulation of osmolarity Regulation of ion balance Regulation of pH Production of hormones
84
How is urine produced?
water and solutes from plasma Nephrons of the kidneys ureters Bladder Urethra Excreted as urine
85
Tell me about the nephrons
there are 10 million nephrons per kidney 80% are in the cortical 20% in the juxtamedullary Juxtamedullary nephrons are important in producing concentrated urine glomeruli all lie in the cortex
86
What is the renal vascular system?
renal artery Smaller arteries Afferent arterioles Capillaries of the glomerulus Afferent arterioles Peritubular capillaries Venules and small veins Renal vein
87
What happens in the nephron?
excretion Filtration and secretion Reabsorption
88
What is filtration?
movement of fluid and salute from blood into lumen of tubule Plasma proteins and erythrocytes are not filtered this occurs in the renal corpuscle The glomerulus and Bowmans capsule
89
what are the filtration barriers?
endothelium of glomerular capillaries Basal lamina The epithelium of Bowmans capsule
90
How much plasma do the kidneys filter each day?
180 L 3 L of blood volume Approximately 1.5 L of urine is produced daily.
91
what is the GFR
glomerular filtration rate volume of plasma filters in a given time Indication of how well kidneys are functioning This is affected by: Net filtration, pressure (blood pressure and blood flow) Filtration, coefficient (surface area of capillaries and permeability)
92
How do we regulate the GFR
auto regulation of renal blood pressure to maintain GFR over a range of systemic blood pressure If the systemic blood pressure increases/decreases, then renal blood flow, increase/decrease GFR will also increase/decrease if not regulated
93
Regulation of GFR: myogenic response
an increased stretch of smooth muscle cells in the afferent arteriole (due to increased systemic blood pressure) This triggers contraction of the afferent arteriole, thereby reduced blood flow. Maintaining GFR If systemic blood pressure decreases afferent arteriole will dilate
94
regulation of GFR: tubuloglomerular response
The distal convoluted tubule (DCT) runs between the afferent and efferent arterioles specialise, macula, densa cells in DCT release paracrine factors. That act on juxtaglomerular cells in afferent arterioles If flow increases in the distal convoluted tubule. Factors released to constrict afferent, arteriole
95
Regulation of GFR: systemic hormones
angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor prostaglandin’s are vasodilators
96
Regulation of GFR: sympathetic nervous system
its of a drop in blood pressure will result in an increased sympathetic output Vasoconstriction of arterioles with reduce GFR and conserve fluid
97
What is secretion?
movement of substances from plasma to tubular filtrate Active transport of potassium, ions, hydrogen ions, organic acids, and bases, foreign substances, and metabolite Uses selective membrane proteins to move molecules across the epithelium
98
what is H+ secreted in for
Na+ in the PCT and DCT
99
what is K+ secreted in exchange for
Na+ in the DCT and collecting duct
100
what is reabsorption
99% of filtrate is reabsorbed 70% happens in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) Fine regulation in the DCT and collecting duct reabsorption is an active process, as filtrate is isosmotic with extra cellular fluid It is driven by the sodium potassium pump and ATPase. On basolateral membrane of the tubular epithelial cells.
101
Describe How re absorption occurs
sodium moves from the lumen into the epithelial cells down an electrochemical gradient Pumped out of the cell into interstitial fluid against a concentration gradient Water is reabsorbed by osmosis Fluid moves from the interstitium into the capillaries due to low pressure in the capillaries sodium linked, secondary active transport Energy from sodium electrochemical gradient is used to move glucose into the epithelial cells against a concentration gradient Facilitated diffusion of the carrier moves glucose out of the cell
102
how are small proteins reabsorbed
trancytosis
103
How can I active transport become saturated?
glucose carriers Filtration is proportional to the plasma concentration Reabsorption proportional to plasma concentration until maximum transport to rate is reached Urinary excretion of glucose is evident above the threshold concentration
104
Where is water reabsorbed?
In the descending loop of Henley
105
Where are electrolytes reabsorbed?
in the ascending loop of Henley Sodium ions, potassium, ions, and chloride ions
106
Why is maintaining extra cellular fluid? (ECF) homeostasis important
maintains blood pressure and perfusion Maintains cell integrity and function coordinated by cardiovascular, respiratory, Renal and behavioural responses Kidneys regulate sodium and water balance
107
what is the role of the RAAS
it acts synergistically with the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure and tissue perfusion It’s increases vascular tone Stimulates aldosterone secretion (Increases sodium retention) Stimulates vasopressin (ADH) secretion (Increases water retention)
108
what are triggers for renin release
juxtaglomerular (JG) cells detect a drop in pressure in the afferent arterial macula densa cells in distal tubule detect, a drop, infiltrate flow and sodium concentration
109
what increases renin release?
prostaglandins
110
what decreases renin release
adenosine
111
what is ACE angiotensin converting enzyme
membrane-bound enzyme on surface of endothelial cells Peptidase – remove dipeptide units from C terminals at the end of peptides inactivates other peptides, for example brandykinin
112
what is the II-mediated affect?
vasoconstriction Secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex Increase in, nor adrenaline released from sympathetic nerve terminals Cell growth Increase sodium absorption from proximal tubule
113
what is aldosterone
steroid hormones made in the adrenal cortex It’s increases sodium reabsorption Decrease is potassium, reabsorption Release is increased by: Decreased plasma osmolality And increased plasma potassium ion concentration angiotensin II It’s acts on principle P cells in the distal tubule and collecting duct It increases sodium reabsorption It promotes excretion of potassium
114
What is fluid and electrolyte homeostasis?
maintaining extracellular fluid (ECF), homeostasis important: Maintains blood pressure and perfusion Maintains sell integrity and function Coordinated by cardiovascular, raspatory, renal and behavioural responses Kidneys regulate sodium and water balance
115
What is water balance?
kidneys conserve water If fluid volume drops, less urine will be excreted Urine osmolality can range from 50 to 1200 mOsm It depends on the permeability of the collecting duct to water
116
What is the countercurrent multiplier?
high osmolality of intestinal fluid of renal medulla is essential for water reabsorption maintained by countercurrent multiplier action of the loop of Henley Descending limb is permeable to water but not electrolytes Filtrates becomes more concentrated descends from the core to the medulla The ascending limb is impermeable to water, but actively reabsorbs electrolytes Blood in the vasa recta flows in opposite directions to the filtrate in the tubule The osmotic gradient is created by active transport of electrolytes from the ascending limb of the loop of Henley Is not diluted by water reabsorbed from the descending limb
117
what is vasopressin
Its release is stimulated by the increase of plasma osmolality or decrease blood pressure/volume it is released from the posterior pituitary It acts on collecting duct cells to promote incision of aquaporin 2 water channels into Luminal membrane It increases water permeability It increases water reabsorption
118
what is micturition
The bladder hold approximately 500 mL urine Stretch receptors in bladder sends signals to the spinal cord Reflex can be overridden by Imput from higher brain centres
119
What does the GFR show us?
glomerular filtration rate Volume of plasma, filtered in a given time (millilitres/min) It is an indication of how well the kidneys are functioning It is affected by: Net filtration, pressure Filtration, coefficient
120
what is GFR and clearance
you cannot measure GFR directly creatinine clearance: can be used to give estimate of renal function It is the volume of plasma passing through the kidney, which has been totally cleared of creatine in a given time (ml/min) Creatine as a product of muscle metabolism (it is filtered, but not reabsorbed, and very little is secreted)
121
how do you calculate creatinine clearance? (ClCr)
ClCr = excretion rate, creatine (mg/min) / plasma concentration, creatine (mg/ml) a healthy adult ClCr is 125ml/min
122
What is hypersensitivity?
unnecessary reactions to innocuous antigens types I-IV
123
What is auto immunity?
another set of chronic immune diseases Auto immune diseases It is a response to self antigens (autoantigens) Mediated by autoreactive antibodies, and T cells Antibodies can block normal physiology T cells can damage healthy tissues A failure of the immune system An unwanted adaptive immune response against self antigens Loss of tolerance
124
What is tolerance?
it is a state of immunological on responsiveness to particular antigens Requires education Our immune system must learn what is self so that it can recognise non-self
125
Mechanisms that contribute to immunological self tolerance
negative selection in the bone marrow, and thymus Expression of tissue specific proteins in the thymus No lymphocyte access to some tissues Suppression of autoimmune responses by regulatory T cells Induction of anenergy in autoreactive, Reactive B and T cells
126
Describe B. Cell development – central tolerance
immature B. Cells in bone marrow: no self reaction – migrate to periphery, mature B cell Multi valent, self-antigen – clonal deletion - apoptosis Soluble, self-antigen – migrate to periphery , aneroid B cell
127
Describe T cell development – central tolerance
positive selection of T cells by cortical epithelial cells in the thymus Negative selection of tea cells by dendritic cells, macrophages, and other cells in the thymus
128
what are similar effector mechanisms to hypersensitivity
type II like antibodies against cell/matrix antigen Frequently directed at the blood cells type III like Immune complex mediated (soluble antigens) type IV like Effector, T cells mediated IgE never causes autoimmunity
129
what is autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
IgG and IgM bind red cells and activate complement classical activation Ab and C3b coated removal of cells
130
what is coombs test
Abs are shown attached to antigens on the RBC surface
131
what is complement lysis
Where are part of the immune system causes the destruction or lysis of target cells. Particularly foreign cells or pathogens.
132
What is the complement system?
A group of proteins that work together to defend the body against pathogens, clear, immune complexes, and supports various immune functions
133
describe autoAbs to other blood cells
other blood cells are not so sensitive to compliment lysis Clearance by phagocytosis Neutrophils to neutropaenia The white blood cell with antibodies and compliment can still function. Treatment can be To slow their removal splenectomy (to reduce clearance rate)
134
what is organ specific
restricted effects Targeted auto antigens in one or just a few tissues
135
What is systemic?
multiple organs are affected Widespread and varied autoantigens
136
give organ specific examples
autoimmune disease of the thyroid graves disease Hyperthyroidism Hashimoto’s Hypothyroidism
137
What is Graves’ disease?
normally: TSH activates release of T3/T4 block TSH release autoimmune: activating Ab to TSH receptor Long, acting, thyroid, stimulating antibodies T3&T4 unregulated release Heat, intolerance, nervousness, weight loss, enlargement of the thyroid. Therapy: removal or destruction of thyroid
138
What is Hashimoto’s disease?
chronic thyroidiyies loss of capacity to make a thyroid hormones Hypothyroidism Antibody and T cells to thyroid. Antigens are generated. Lymphocyte infiltration Th1 and loss of tissue structure and function. Therapy: synthetic, thyroid, hormones
139
Causes of disease can be revealed
transfer of the condition Transfer of autoantibodies will cause disease pregnant, mothers: Transfer of disease symptoms too baby only for IgG mediated
140
what is myasthenia gravis
organ specific type II like auto antibodies to ACh receptors on muscle cells Receptor, uptake and degradation Muscle is less sensitive to neuronal stimulation Progressive muscle, weakness: Droopy, eyelids and double vision Put the muscles are also affected (chest muscles, leading to raspatory infection) therapy: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors Immuno suppressants
141
auto antibodies can be…
Antagonistic, oh agonistic
142
what is SLE
systemic lupus erythematosus more common in African-Americans and Hispanics Many auto antibodies lead to too many antigens leads to a wide range of symptoms malar or butterfly rash is common 50 to 70% Its affects females, 10 times more than males 20 to 40-year-old s
143
What are the symptoms of SLE?
dermatological Musculoskeletal Haematological Inflammation of the lung, liver, kidneys abs to RBC and platelets Self destruction by a compliment activation abs to nuclear antigens are deposited on vascular walls. (immune complex) information vasculitis Activation of compliment and activation of phagocytes
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how do you diagnose SLE
detection against antinuclear antibodies Directed against: ss nucleic acid ds nucleic acid Nucleoprotein Histones nuxleolar RNA
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what triggers autoimmunity? Release of sequestered Ag
some antigens are Hidden (sequestered) From the immune system: Intracellular antigens Immune privileged sites T cell tolerance is not establish Release of hidden, antigens, through trauma or infection, can cause stimulation
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what is sympathetic ophthalmia
trauma to one eye results in the release of hidden intraocular, protein, antigens released interocular antigen is carried to the lymph nodes and activates T cells Effector, T cells return via bloodstream, and encounter antigen in both eyes
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describe in appropriate MHC expression
normally a professional antigen presenting cell expresses MHCII However, in Greaves disease – thyroid axon at cells express MHCII sensitises T cells to self derived antigens
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what is molecular mimicry
A chance, resemblance of self and a pathogen molecule This highlights the need for T cells All autoimmune diseases involve breaking T cell tolerance
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what is rheumatic feaver
follows S.pyogenes infection Antibodies cross react with a heart, joint and kidneys Transient autoimmunity as a self antigens don’t stimulate Th cells so antibody production is short lived
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what is peptide mimicry
The same MHC molecule presents both a pathogen peptide and a self peptide that mimics it Naive, T cell is activated by the pathogen peptide presented by the particular MHC molecule effector Th1 cell responds to the self peptide, mimic, and activate the macro phage, causing inflammation Self peptide doesn’t activate the T cell, but once a T cell has been activated by the pathogen peptide… This lead to chronic information epitope spreading
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what is chronic inflammation and epitope spreading?
early activation phase: response to few autoantigens Autoantigens are never cleared leading to chronic inflammation Chronic phase: Response expand to include more autoantigens (epitope spreading)
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what are nucleosomes
released from necrotic cells (failed clearance of AC) a single Th cell stimulated multiple B cells
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what is the cerebellum and what does it do
located at the back/posterior of the brain just above the brain stem and below the occipital lobes crucial role in co ordinating volountary movements, balance and posture higher cognitive functions motor control and conordination
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where is the temporal lobe and what does it do
one if the four main lines in the cerebral cortex. outermost layer of the brain sides of the brain near the temples positioned beneath the lateral fissure auditory processing language comprehension memory formation and retrieval visual processing emotion and social cognition
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where is the frontal lobe and what does it do
one of the 4 major lives in the cerebral cortex located at the front of the brain behind the forehead and is speedsters by the parietal lobe and central sulcus motor control executive functions language production social and emotional processing higher level cognition
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Where is it a occipital lobe and what does it do?
One of the four main lobes of the cerebral cortex Located at the posterior region of the brain behind the parietal and temporal lobes. Visual perception Visual field mapping Visual integration Visual memory
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where is the central sulcus and what does it do
also known as rolandic fissure or central fissure. It is a prominent groove that runs horizontally across the lateral surface of the brain, dividing the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. Primary motor cortex Primary somatosensory cortex Has a role in the organisation of cortexes
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where and what does the somatosensory cortex do
S1 it is located in the parietal lobe of the brain just behind the central sulcus. tackles perception tactile perception proprioception Plain and temperature perception Integration with other sensory modalities
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where is the motor cortex and what does it do
primary motor cortex M1 Located in the frontal lobe of the brain, specifically in the precentral gyrus primary function of the motor cortex is to control voluntary muscle movements throughout the body Fine motor control motor planning Motor learning Integration with other brain regions Initiation and execution of movements