The Patient Flashcards

(384 cards)

1
Q

How long is the small intestine?

A

20 feet

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2
Q

Which enzymes are secreted from the salivary glands?

A

Amylase

Lipase

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3
Q

What are the three types of salivary galnds?

A

Sublingual
Submandibular
Parotid

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4
Q

Which gland does mups affect?

A

Parotid

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5
Q

Which nerves are involved in the process of swallowing?

A

Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, hypoglossal and vagus

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6
Q

What is hiatus hernia?

A

Part of stomach moves up into chest and is associated with hiatus hernia

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7
Q

What are people with Barrett’s oesophagus more at risk of?

A

Adenocarcinoma - a type of cancer

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8
Q

What are the gastric cell types?

A

Mucous cells
G-cells
Chief cells
Parietal cells

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9
Q

Which drugs can reduce acid reflux?

A

H2 receptor agonists

PPI’s

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10
Q

How do H2 receptor agonists work?

A

Block histamine receptors to reduce acid production

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11
Q

How do PPI’s work?

A

Irreversibly bind to the -SH groups and block protein function

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12
Q

What is the ailmentary canal?

A

The whole passage along which food passes through the body from mouth to anus during digestion

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13
Q

Why is insulin hard to deliver?

A

Pepsin is a protease that hydrolyses it

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14
Q

Examples of drugs absorbed in the stomach

A

Aspirin, paracetamol, warfarin

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15
Q

What prevents self digestion?

A

Pepsin released as Pepsinogen (zymogen) which is inactive of surface of cell tissues

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16
Q

Why does the HCl secreted by the stomach not cause 1st and 2nd degree burns?

A

Mucus secreted by foveolar cells
Tight juctions
High cell turnover

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17
Q

What affects does mucus have?

A

Neutralises HCl
Moves along mucosa
Forms a physical barrier preventing exposure

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18
Q

What affect do tight junctions have?

A

Protein complexes lock epithelial cells

Restricts movement of acid/protease between cells down to underlaying tissue

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19
Q

What affect does a high cell turnover have?

A

Every 2-3 days damaged cells replaced - cells from gastric pits

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20
Q

What would happen if there is a breakdown in mucus barrier function?

A

Epithelial cells exposed to HCl and pepsin
Gastric/duodenal ulcer which may extend and damage blood vessels and cause haemorrhage
Severe cases - complete erosion through tract wall called perforated ulcer which can lead to peritonitis

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21
Q

What does Helicobacter pylori do?

A

Infects gastric mucosa

Decreases barrier efficacy so ulcer caused

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22
Q

How do you treat H.pylori?

A

2 x antibiotics + PPI

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23
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

The wave of muscular contraction along GI tract

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24
Q

What is the process of peristalsis?

A

Circular muscles contract behind
Longitudinal muscles contract to push along
Then the same thing happens again

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25
What happens during diarrhoea?
Reduced longitudinal smooth muscle activity so retain contents of the intestine longer so exposed to epithlium to increased water absorption
26
What controls muscle contractions during peristalsis?
A neurone in the Myenteric plexus
27
How does loperamide work to stop diarrhoea?
Binds to µ opiod receptors of the MP and reduced contraction of the muscles
28
What are the side effects of opioid pain relief?
Constipation
29
Why are bile acids important?
When released into the intestine the emulsify lipids to lead to absorption Vitamins A,D,E,K are absorbed this way
30
Where are bile acids stored?
In the liver
31
Where do the bile acids move?
Bile duct duodenum Ileum Back into the liver
32
What is dyspepsia?
Persistent or recurrent pain or discomfort in upper abdomen
33
What are the causes of dyspepsia?
Lifestyle factors Medication Diseases
34
What is GORD and what causes it?
Symptoms/complications resulting from reflux gastric contents into oesophagus, oral cavity or lung due to lower oesophageal sphincter relaxation ``` Obesity Genetic Lifestyle Medication Age ```
35
What are peptic ulcers and what are the two types?
Open sores that develop on the inside lining of the oesophagus, stomach or upper portion small intestine >5mm diameter with associated inflammation Imbalance in agents that protect the epithelium and those which attack Gastric or duodenal
36
What are the symptoms of a peptic ulcer?
``` Upper abdominal pain, tenderness, discomfort Heartburn/reflux Bloating Early satiety Nausea and vomiting ```
37
What are the symptoms of a GASTRIC peptic ulcer?
Pain radiates to back Mainly occurs at night Aggravated by food Lose weight
38
What are the symptoms of a DUODENAL peptic ulcer?
Epigastric pain Anytime – empty stomach Relieved by food/antacids Gain weight
39
What are the alarm signs for PUC
``` Anemia Weight loss Anorexia Recurrent problems (>55) Melaena/haematemesis Swallowing problems ```
40
How do antacids work and when are they used?
Neutralise acids | Use when requires, between meals and bedtimes, 4+ times daily
41
What are the side effects of antacids?
Mg - laxative effects Al - constipation effecr Ca - possible rebound acid secretion/hypercalcaemia
42
What is low sodium content in an antacid classed as?
less than 1 mmol
43
If an antacid interacts with other meds, what may happen?
Impaired absorption of other drugs Raises pH so may damage enteric coatings May affect pH dependent renal excretion
44
How do alginates work?
Increase viscosity of stomach contents | Form a raft that floats on top of stomach contents and protects mucosa
45
How do Histamine H2 receptor antagonists work?
Reduce gastric acid output by blocking histamine H2 receptor bloackade
46
What are Histamine H2 receptor antagonists licensed for?
``` GORD Maitainance treatment NSAID prophylaxis Functional dyspepsia Stress ulcer prophylaxis ```
47
Give Histamine H2 receptor antagonists examples
Ranitidine Cimetidine Famotidine
48
What interactions does Cimetidine have
Warfarin Phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate Theophylline Sildenafil
49
How do PPI's work?
Block gastric H,K-ATPase, inhibiting gastric acid secretion | (final pathway in gastric acid production)
50
Give examples of PPI's
``` Esomeprazole Lansoprazole Omeprazole Pantoprazole Rabeprazole ```
51
How many times a day do you take PPI's
Once or twice generally
52
What are the indications for PPI's?
Dyspepsia GORD Treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers Maintenance treatment NSAID prophylaxis Excessive gastric acid secretion stress ulcer prophylaxis, peri-operatively
53
Long term PPI therapy is associated with the risk of adverse effects - what do these include?
``` Gastric cancer H Pylori infection Pneumonia C diff infection Bacterial overgrowth, reduced calcium absorption leading the hip fracture ```
54
What do PPI's interact with?
Antireterovirals Methotrexate Citalopram Omeprazole reduces efficacy of Clopidogrel
55
What does H Pylori cause?
Gastritis
56
How do we test for H Pylori
Antibodies Urea breath test Stool antigen test Mucosal biopsies
57
Why do we need to take a careful drug history when testing for H Pylori?
Some drugs can give false positives or false negatives
58
What is the treatment for H Pylori?
2 day, BD course of PPI plus 2 antibiotics 1st line - PPI full dose BD, Amoxicillin 1g BD, Clarithromycin 500mg BD or Metronidazole 400mg BD If penicillin allergy, just PPI+Clarithromycin 500mg BD and Metronidazole 400mg BD If penicillin allergic and previous clarithromycin exposure/treatment failure - PPI+ combination of two or more bacterials (bisulth, tetracycline, quinolone, metronidazole, clarithromycin)
59
When treating H Pylori, what interactions should you warn the patient about?
Clarithromycin and statins | Metronidazole and alcohol
60
What are the risk factors for an NSAID bleed?
``` Age > 60 Multiple NSAIDs Smoker H pylori infection Concurrent medication including steroids, anticoagulants Higher dose/longer duration ```
61
What is the mechanism for NSAID induced ulcers?
Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis impairs mucosal defences so there is an erosive breach of the epithelial barrier Acid attack deepens into frank ulceration Low pH encourages passive absorption of NSAID so trapped in mucosa
62
What are the indirect mechanisms of NSAID damage?
Reduced gastric blood flow Reduced mucus and bicarbonate production Leads to decreased cell repair
63
What is done to manage NSAID induced PUD?
Stop NSAID id possible Test for H Pylori Treat with full dose PPI or H2 receptor antagonist for 8 weeks If H Pylori present give eradication therapy AFTER If they need to stay on the NSAID, give gastroprotection - low dose PPI, H2 receptor antagonist, Misoprostol
64
Misoprostol Use Side effects Contraindications
It is a prostaglandin analogue Preventing NSAID induced PUD SE - diarrhoea c/i - pregnancy as its a uterine stimulant
65
Why is dyspepsia and GORD more likely in pregnancy?
Less sphincter tone so more likely to get reflux | Mechanical and hormonal factors
66
Why is GORD and reflux common in children and when does it resolve?
GIT is still developing | Usually resolves by 12-18 months
67
How can you manage GORD and reflux in children?
``` Change frequency and volume of feed Feed thickener or thickened formula feed Use alginate instead of thickened feeds H2 receptor antagonist PPI ```
68
How is GORD and dyspepsia in pregnancy managed?
Dietary and lifestyle changes Antacid or alginate (but avoid sodium bicarbonate or magnesium trisilicate) If symptoms severe or persist give Ranitidine or Omeprazole
69
What can the small intestines surface are be compared to?
A tennis court
70
What adaptions does the small intestine have?
Pilcae Epithlium Enzymes
71
Describe the pilcae on small intestine
Folds Covered with finger like projections called villi (1mm high) Villi lined with epithelial cells that have microvilli
72
Describe the small intestine epithelium
1 cell thick | So minimal barrier to transfer of molecules from lumen
73
What do the enzymes in the small intestine do?
Convert non-absorbable macromolecules to absorbable small molecules
74
What are the products of sucrose, lactose and maltose digestion?
sucrose -Glucose and fructose Lactose - glucose and galactose maltose - glucose and glucose
75
How does glucose cross the epithelium?
SGLT1 Transporter in basolateral membrane Glucose binds to glucose transporter High conc of sodium ions outside too -Sodium ions bind to transporter Transporter has a conformational change and flips to face inside the cell Glucose and sodium ions move into the cell
76
How does fructose cross the epithelium?
GLUT5 transporter in basolateral membrane | Also sodium dependent
77
How do proteins cross the epithelium wall?
Digested to smaller peptides then to AA Small peptides - PEPT1 transporter H+ dependent
78
What aspect of drug transport do drug designers exploit?
Drug UPTAKE transporters are very efficient
79
Give examples of drugs that are PEPT1 Substrates
``` Cephalosporins Penicillins Enalapril α-Methlydopa-phenylalanine Val-acyclovir ```
80
Give examples of drugs which are OCTN2 substrates
``` quinidine verapamil imatinib Valproic acid α-Methlydopa-phenylalanine Val-acyclovir ```
81
Give examples of drugs which are OATP2B1 substrates
Pravastatin Rosuvastatin Atorvastatin Fexofenadine
82
What do drug efflux transporters do?
Eject compounds from the cell - drugs enter enterocytes and are actively effluxed into the gut lumen Uses ATP Can be detrimental to drug absorption
83
Give examples are efflux transporters
P-gp | BCRP
84
Give examples of P-gp substrates
HIV PI Immunosuppressants Antibiotics Cardiotonics (digoxin, quinidine) Verapamil, Quinidine, Imatinib are OCTN2 substrates so there is a competition between uptake and efflux
85
What is extravasation and what does it cause?
Drug leaks onto surrounding tissue and causes necrosis (conc drug)
86
In a study, oral anti cancer drugs and a P-gp modulator were given, what was the outcome? Which drugs were used?
All increased toxicity Etoposide Doxorubicin Paclitaxel
87
Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window - which clinical P-gp interactions can occur? What affect does this have?
Ritonavir Atorvastatin Talinolol Increase in digoxin AUC and side effects
88
What are the two blood supplies to the liver?
``` Arterial blood (20% hepatic artery) Venous blood (80% portal vein ```
89
What are the functions of the liver?
``` Metabolism Synthesis Immunological Storage Homeostasis Production of bile Clearance ``` Need to learn the substrates of these
90
What are the main patterns of liver damage and what do they lead to?
Cholestatic Hepatocellular Leas to fibrosis and cirrhosis
91
What is cholestasis? What are the two types? What does it cause?
Bile sites in bile ducts and causes damage Intrahepatic - bilary ductules Extrahepatic - mechanical obstruction Increase in liver enzymes Impaired biliary excretion and reduced absorption of fatty substances Accumulation - damage of hepatocytes - jaundice and itching
92
What is Hepatocellular disease? What are the two types? What does it cause?
``` Injury to hepatocytes by toxins or viruses Fatty infiltration - steatosis Inflammation - Hepatitis Necrosis if it persists Increase in liver enzymes ```
93
What is fibrosis and how does it lead to cirrhosis?
Persistent, extensive hepatocyte damage -active formation and deposition of collagen formation of scar tissue (fibrosis) Disruption of blood flow and more scar tissue Erratic regeneration nodules can form Lead to cirrhosis (extensive damage)
94
What affect does alcohol have on the liver?
Stenosis and hepatitis (cells change shape, fat deposits and inflammation) Cirrhosis - blood doesn't flow through well
95
What is the usual range of Bilirubin?
5-20mmol/L
96
What is bilirubin a product of?
RBC breakdown
97
What do higher levels of bilirubin increase?
Haemolysis Hepatocellular damage Cholestasis
98
What level of bilirubin classifies clinical jaundice?
50mmol/L
99
What is AST and what should levels be?
Aspartate transferase | 0-40iu/L
100
What is ALT and what should levels be?
Alanine transferase 5-30 iu/L Liver specific enzymes
101
What is ALP and what should levels be?
Alkaline Phosphatase | 30-120 iu/L
102
What is GGT and what should levels be?
γ-Glutamyltransferase 5-55 iu/L Levels increase by enzyme inducers
103
What is albumin and what should levels be?
One of the proteins produced by the liver 35-50 g/dL Lower - oedema
104
What are PT/INR?
Clotting factors produced by the liver
105
How do we interpret LFT's?
If 2 X ULN then considered abnormal Trends not isolation LFTs aren't always abnormal in patients with cirrhosis Abnormal LFT's aren't always due to liver disease
106
What are the symptoms of liver disease?
``` Many asymptomatic Initially general Abdominal pain Jaundice Pale stool and dark urine Pruritus Spider naevi Finger clubbing Bruising and bleeding Gynaecomastia Liver palms ``` In the end stage: Ascites Oesophageal and gastric varices Encephalopathy
107
What is ascites?
Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity leading to a sowellen abdomen
108
What is the treatment for ascites?
``` Fluid/sodium restriction Diuretics Daily weight Daily U+E's Paracentesis (fluid drained off) ```
109
What is Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis?
Infection of the ascitic fluid without an obvious intra-abdominal source of sepsis
110
How do you treat Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis?
Treat with broad spectrum IV antibiotic 3rd gen cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, tazocin (for at least 5 days) Norfloxacin/Ciprofloxacin as prophylaxis after iv antibiotic course if getting recurring infections
111
What is Hepatic Encephalopathy and what are the symptoms?
Theories but not clear Liver not working well so accumulation of toxins, increase BBB permeability, more neurotransmitters int he brain so cause these behavioral changes Spectrum of neuropsychiatric changes including changes in mood and behaviour, confusion, poor sleep rhythm and eventually delirium and coma
112
What is the treatment of Hepatic Encephalopathy?
Laxatives - for ammonia (Lactulose 20-30ml BD-TDS) Antibiotics - kill bacteria producing ammonia (Rifaxamin 550mg BD) Supplement urea cycle
113
What is portal hypertension and what do varices do?
Build up of pressure in portal vein caused by increased resistance to flow and disruption of hepatic architecture and compression of hepatic venules by regenerating nodules Varicies enable blood to bypass the liver
114
What happens when varices bleed?
``` A medical emergency Vomiting loads of blood Resuscitation Endoscopy Balloon tamponade Terlipressin iv 1-2mg bolus then every 2-6 hrs until bleeding stops Octreotide infusion Antibiotics PPI ```
115
What is secondary prophylaxis for varices bleeding?
Propranolol 20-40mg BD Splanchnic vasoconstriction Cardiac output results in reduced portal pressures
116
Why does pruritus occur with liver disease?
Build up of bile salts
117
What is the treatment for Pruritus?
``` Colestyramine UDCA Antihistamines Topical Resisant cases - Ondansetron Rifampicin Naltrexone, Naloxone ```
118
What are the causes of liver disease?
``` Alcohol Viral infection NAFLD Inherited and metabolic disorders Immune disease of the liver Vascular abnormalities Cancer Biliary tract disorders Other infections ```
119
What are intrinsic reactions?
``` Predictable Reproducible Dose dependent Tend to occur rapidly e.g. within hours Tend to cause necrosis, acute liver failure ```
120
What are idiosyncratic reactions?
Not predictable Not reproducible Not dose dependent Tend to take longer to occur Can result from metabolic idiosyncrasy or immunoallergic reaction Can cause any type of liver injury e.g. increased LFTs, jaundice, fever, rash, eosinophilia
121
Examples of idiosyncratic reactions and causative agents
Cholestasis – OCP, warfarin, azathioprine, flucloxacillin ALF – allopurinol, cyclophosphamide, NSAIDS, MDMA, Steatosis – amiodarone, corticosteroids, TPN Fibrosis and cirrhosis – methotrexate Vascular disorders – OCP, azathioprine Acute hepatitis – phenytoin, isoniazid Chronic hepatitis - isoniazid
122
What are the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
``` Delirium, marked tremor Fear and delusions, restlessness and agitation Fever Rapid pulse Dehydration Seizures ```
123
What is the treatment for alcohol withdrawal?
sedatives and vitamin supplementation Chlordiazepoxide + Pabrinex IV Oral vitamin B co strong and thiamine
124
How does Chlordiazepoxide work in Alcohol withdrawal?
Works on GABA receptors to minimise symptoms
125
Describe Hepatitis A
``` Most common Faecal Oral route Mild, self-limiting Can clear when young Doesnt progress to chronic liver disease or carrier status ```
126
Describe Hepatitis b
Enveloped DNA virus Highly contagious (blood, saliva, urine, semen, vaginal fluids ) Young more likely to get chronic hep Leading cause of HCC (hepatic cellular carcinoma) Diagnose by Hep B surface antigen
127
What is the treatment of Hep B?
Oral antivirals – entecavir or tenofovir LONG TERM Pegylated Interferon Aiming for “functional cure” – HBsAg loss, undetectable serum HBV DNA +/- HBsAb seroconversion Vaccination is available
128
Describe Hep D
Delta virus Can only replicate in presence of Hepatitis B virus Acquired in blood, saliva, urine, semen, vaginal fluids Combination of HBV and HDV increase risk of progression to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis
129
What is the treatment for Hep D?
Pegylated interferon and oral antivirals as HBV
130
Describe Hep E
Similar to Hep A Oral-Faecal Often mild Doesn't progress
131
Describe Hep C
``` Blood bourne Six genotypes Diagnose by antibodies, HCV RNA and genotype Many people undiagnosed as asymptomatic Silent Killer ```
132
What is the treatment for Hep C?
Curable as doesn't integrate into cells DNA Looking for a sustained virological response viral eradicatiom Finate courses of treatments developed over years 1997-Interferon alpha 2b 2000 – Pegylated Interferon 2001 – Pegylated Interferon and Ribavirin 2011 – First generation directly-acting antivirals (DAAs) – Boceprevir and Telaprevir – added to Pegylated Interferon and Ribavirin regimens 2014 – Second generation DAAs – Sofosbuvir, Sofosbuvir/Ledipasvir, Daclatasvir – “interferonfree” regimens 2015 - Ombitasvir/Paritaprevir/Ritonavir with or without Dasabuvir introduced 2016 – Velpatasvir/Sofosbuvir – “pan-genotypic”, Elbasvir/Grazoprevir introduced 2017 – Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir/Voxilaprevir and Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir introduced. Both pan-genotypic
133
What is the difference between Crohns and UC?
Crohns- Whole of GI tract from mouth to anus can be affected-patchy UC - mucosa of colon and rectum - diffuse
134
What are the causes of IBD?
``` It is not fully understood Genetic Envrionmental Immunological factors Gut microbes Smoking Infection Diet Medication ```
135
IBD symptoms
``` Abdominal Pain Diarrhoea - watery, bloody, mucus Tiredness and fatigue Urgency Weight loss Anaemia Fever Nausea and vomiting Abdominal bloating and distension ```
136
IBD extra-intestinal manifestation
Swollen joints-arthritis Eye problems - episcleritis, iritis, uveitis Erythema nodosum – swollen fat under skin causing redness, bumps and lumps Pyoderma gangrenosum – skin ulceration Primary sclerosing cholangitis
137
What are strictures and fistulas and what do they occur in?
Strictures - narrowed segments of bowel causing blockages, acute dilation and perforation Fistulas - new little abnormal channels forming lined with granulation tissue
138
What investigations are doe for IBD?
``` Blood tests Stool cultures (rule out C diff ect) Coeliac screen Faecal calprotectin Abdominal imagine Endoscopy including capsule endoscopy Colonoscopy Bisopises take to differentiate ```
139
Which index is used to classify UC?
Truelove and Witt's
140
Which index is used to classify Crohns?
``` Looks at lots of different parameters: Number of liquid or soft stools Severity of abdominal pain General well-being Presence of complications Fever Use of loperamide Presence anaemia Body weight Abdominal mass absent or present ```
141
Are drugs used to get IBD patients into remission used whilst they are in remission?
No - they aren't good at maintaining remission
142
Why do IBD drugs require a lot of monitoring?
They target the immune system
143
Are drug treatments for Crohns and UC the same?
There is some overlap but no as different parts of the GIT are affected
144
Is one drug used to treat IBD?
No, often a combination of drugs is used
145
Which formulation goes furthest into the colon?
Enema>foam>suppository
146
What are the treatments for IBD?
``` Antibiotics if infection/complication Corticosteroids Aminosalicylates Immunomodulating agents Antibiotics Novel treatments ```
147
Which corticosteroids are used for IBD? What doses are given?
Prednisolone Hydrocortisone Budesonide Prednisolone 40mg OD, reduced by 5mg/week If acute-severe, iv hydrocortisone 100mg QDS in hospital then switch to oral prednisolone
148
Which aminosalicylates are used for IBD?
Sulfasalazine Mesalazine Balsalazide Olsalazine
149
Which immunomodulating agents are used for IBD?
Thiopurines – Azathioprine and Mercaptopurine Methotrexate, Ciclosporin, Tacrolimus Biologics – Infliximab, Adalimumab, Vedolizumab, Ustekinumab
150
Which novel treatments can be used for IBD?
Faecal Microbiota Transplant | Probiotics
151
How are corticosteroids used in IBD?
Induce remission but do not prevent progression of disease or development of complications Dampen inflammatory reaction so you can add another drug to aid remission If flare up is severe, give iv
152
What are the disadvantages of corticosteroids?
Side effects Infection risk Osteoporosis risk Steroid treatment card
153
Can you give oral and topical preps of aminosalicylates together?
Yes
154
What types of topical (rectal) aminosalicylate preparations are available?
``` Suppositories Foams Enemas Tablets Granules ```
155
What was the first aminosalicylate to be used for IBD and what were the problems?
Sulfasalazine Side effects - headache, nausea, rashes These limited the dose you could use
156
What are the newer aminosalicylates called?
Balsalazide Olsalazine Mesalazine
157
Why can't you switch brands of mesalazine?
They all release in different places in the GIT
158
What are the side effects of aminosalicylates?
Arthralgia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, dizziness | Blood dyscrasias
159
What is important to monitor when giving aminosalicylates?
``` Renal function (baseline, 3 months then annually – more frequent if impairment) Blood dyscrasias ```
160
Why might thiopurines be used?
If you can't get control on steroids - first line immunomodulators for IBD Induce and maintain remission Steroid sparing 3-6 months for full effects
161
Azathioprine is a pro-drug, what is it converted to? What happens to this?
Mercaptopurine Then converted to TGN (active metabolite) TMPT then converts to MeMP (not active and can cause side effects)
162
What is the dose of thiopurines?
Azathioprine - 2-2.5mg/kg/day | Mercaptopurine - 1-1.5mg/kg/day
163
What measurements must be done for thiopurine treatment and what do they mean?
TMPT levels - prior to, repeated one month after or if not responding to treatment Low - reduce dose (risk myelosuppression) High - risk hepatotoxicity as more going down this metabolic pathway Full blood count weekly (4 weeks) then at least every 3 months
164
What are the side effects of thiopurines?
Hypersensitivity reaction – immediate withdrawal Myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression) Neutropenia and thrombocytopenia GI – nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea Liver disorders
165
When is Methotrexate used in IBD and what must it be prescribed with?
For maintainance if Azathioprine can't be used | Co-prescription of folic acid
166
Why is Tacrolimus used is IBD?
Can induce remission in mild-mod UC if not responsive to other treatments
167
Why is Ciclosporin used is IBD?
To induce remission in severe-acute UC refractory to steroids
168
What are biologics, how do they work and give examples
Monoclonal antibodies Bind to cytokine - Tumour Necrosis Factor-α (TNF- α) and inhibit inflammatory effects Infliximab and Adalimumab Ustekinumab and Vedolizumab
169
Why are steroids given pre treatment for Inflicimab?
Murine and human amino acid sequences so can get an infusion related reaction
170
What future therapies are being considered for IBD?
Faecal Microbiota Transplant Probiotics New biolohics Small molecule inhibitors of RNA and intracellular cytokine pathways
171
Give examples of elective (non emergency) surgical procedures for IBD
``` Bowel resection Strictureplasty Colectomy Proctocolectomy with ileostomy Fistula treatment Abscess drainage ```
172
What should be co prescribed with corticosteroids and why?
Calcium and vitamin D to prevent osteoporosis
173
What are the routes of administration fo Infliximab and Adalimumab for IBD?
Infliximab - iv infusion | Adalimumab - sc injection
174
What are the risks of Infliximab and Adalimumab for IBD?
Lymphoma/malignancy
175
What does Ustekinumab for IBD target and how is it given? What are the risks?
Blocks IL-12 and IL-23-Inhibits inflammatory effects in gut Initial IV infusion then SC injection Risk of reactivation of infections and malignancy
176
What does Vedolizumab for IBD target and how is it given? What are the risks?
Leucocyte adhesion inhibitor IV infusion Risk of reactivation of infections and malignancy
177
How is a Faecal Microbiota Transplant thought to work?
Composition of gut microbes thought to be abnormal so we try and replace this Use a healthy donor and transfer gut microorganisms into intestinal tract of recipient via colonoscopy or ec tablets Clinical trials ongoing
178
Which IBD complications require immediate surgery?
``` Intestinal blockage Bleeding Perforation Fistula Abscess Toxic megacolon ```
179
What is the definition of diarrhoea?
Not strict definition A change in bowel habits for that person More frequent and looser stools
180
How can diarrhoea be categorised?
Acute - < 14 days Persistent - > 14 days but less than 28 days Chronic > 28 days
181
What is the pathophysiology of diarrhoea?
``` Increased osmotic load in gut lumen Increase in secretion Inflammation of intestinal lining Increased intestinal motility (can be more than one) ```
182
What can cause acute diarrhoea? Give examples
``` Infection or ingestion of toxins Bacterial e.g. Campylobacter, Escherischia coli, Salmonella Viruses e.g. rotavirus or norovirus Drug Parasites Anxiety ```
183
How long does acute diarrhoea last?
Most cases are self limiting and resolve within 72 hours
184
What is travellers diarrhoea and how long does it last?
Experienced by travellers or holiday Usually within the first few days of trip Can last a bit longer but usually resolves within 7 days Some infections (e.g. giardiasis and amoebic dysentery) can cause persistent or recurrent diarrhoea or systemic complications
185
What are the causes of travellers diarrhoea?
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC), Campylobacter Salmonella Enterohaemorrhagic E coli and Shigella, Viruses, protozoa and helminths
186
What are the symptoms of travellers diarrhoea?
Same as acute diarrhoea but can also have bloody diarrhoea (dysentery)
187
What is the treatment for travellers diarrhoea?
More symptomatic relief as per acute. So antibiotic prophylaxis rarely recommended Hygiene, food and drink advice give: wash hands - soap Antiseptic wipes/gel Avoid local water even for teeth Avoid ice cubes, dairy products, ice cream, home distilled drinks and salads Fresh foods- cook, boil, peel Avoid fish and shellfish unless fresh and sure uts not been near sewage Clean, hygenically run esablishments
188
What is chronic diarrhoea?
Recurrent or persistent diarrhoea
189
What are the causes of chronic diarrhoea?
IBS IBD Malabsorption syndromes (e.g. coeliac disease, lactose intolerance) Metabolic disease (e.g. diabetes, hyperthyroidism) Laxative abuse
190
What questions about symptoms of diarrhoea must you ask?
``` Stool frequency Nature e.g. blood, mucus Occurrence – isolated or recurrent Duration Onset Timing Food Recent travel Medication ```
191
When should you refer adults?
``` > 72 hours in healthy adults > 48 hours in elderly > 24 hours if diabetic Associated severe vomiting and fever History of change in bowel habit Blood or mucus in stools Suspected ADR Alternating diarrhoea and constipation in elderly Weight loss Recent hospital treatment or antibiotic treatment Evidence of dehydration Severe pain/rectal pain ```
192
What is given to prevent dehydration?
``` Oral Rehydration Therapy Loperamide Morphine Diphenoxylate Adsorbents Antibiotics ```
193
What should Oral Rehydration Solutions do?
Enhance the absorption of water and electrolytes Replace electrolyte deficit adequately and safely Contain alkalinising agent to counter acidosis Prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea - slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) Simple to use in hospital and at home Palatable and acceptable, especially to children Readily available
194
What does Oral Rehydration Therapy contain and why?
Sodium and potassium-to replace essential ions Citrate and/or bicarbonate-to correct acidosis Glucose or another carbohydrate e.g. rice starch
195
What is the usual ORT dose?
200-400ml after very loose motion
196
How does loperamide work for diarrhoea?
Synthetic opioid analogue - µ (mu) opioid receptor agonist Direct action on opiate receptors in the gut wall Inhibits gut peristalsis
197
What is the adult dose of loperamide?
Initially 4 mg (2 caps), followed by 2 mg for up to 5 days, dose to be taken after each loose stool; usual dose 6–8 mg daily; maximum 16 mg per day.
198
What are the contra-indications for loperamide? | When should it be avoided?
Active ulcerative colitis Antibiotic associated colitis Conditions where inhibition of peristalsis should be avoided Conditions where abdominal distension develops Avoid: Bloody/suspected inflammatory diarrhoea Significant abdominal pain
199
What are the side effects of loperamide?
Abdominal cramps Dizziness Serious cardiac adverse reactions associated with high doses
200
When should antibiotics be given for diarrhoea?
Only when there is a confirmed infection - stool sample taken and causative organism identified first Can use in severe infection (fever > 39oC and prolonged symptoms, in the elderly or immunocompromised)
201
What can be caused by reliance on loperamide?
Risk antimicrobial resistance Prolong symptoms as many cause GI side-effects Pre-dispose to Clostridium difficile Worse diarrhoea
202
Why is morphine sometimes given for diarrhoea? What weight content is it?
Direct action intestinal smooth muscle | 0.5-1mg - debated if it is effective for diarrhoea
203
Why is Diphenoxylate sometimes given for diarrhoea? What form does it come in? Why are people put off from taking high doses to get opioid effect?
Synthetic derivative of pethidine – opioid effect to slow gut Comes as a combination product:co-phenotrope (diphenoxylate hydrochloride 2.5mg/atropine 25mcg) Side effects in high amounts
204
Why are Adsorbants sometimes given for diarrhoea? Given examples
Adsorb microbial toxins and micro-organisms in gut and flushes out Kaolin (Kaolin and Morphine) Bismuth subsalicylate
205
What lifestyle advice should a pharmacist give for a patient with diarrhoea?
``` Plenty of clear fluids Avoid drinks high in sugar Avoid milk and milky drinks Eat light, easily digested food Gastroenteritis – infections. Precautions including not returning to work until symptom free for 48 hours, hygiene advice and cleaning of sanitary equipment Check meds as absorption can be reduced ```
206
What is the rotavirus vaccine?
A live, oral vaccine that protects young children against gastro-enteritis caused by rotavirus infection.
207
Is the rotavirus vaccine on the childhood immunisation schedule?
Yes
208
What is the rotavirus vaccine schedule?
the first at 2 months of age, (must be given between 6–14 weeks of age) the second at 3 months of age the second dose should be given after an interval of at least 4 weeks Course should be completed before 25 weeks of age
209
How many people have C diff naturally?
2-3% of the adult population
210
What can C diff lead to?
Pseudomembranous colitis
211
How does C diff become harmful?
Had antibiotics that have killed of normal gut flora so environment there is supportive of C diff growing – also need spore there (May already have or may acquire spore from the hospital) C diff needs to produce particular toxin and not all C diff’s produce this toxin
212
What are risk factors for CDI infection?
``` Antimicrobial choice Antimicrobial duration Acid-suppressing medicines Age - co-morbidities Length of stay Recent hospitalisation ```
213
How is C diff managed?
Depends onseverity STOP antimicrobials and acid supressing med if possible Stop antimotility meds Maintain adequate fluid balance Targeted C diff treatment Infection control - alcohol gels and isolation
214
Which antimicrobial treatments are given for C diff?
``` Oral metronidazole - first line (mild-mod) Oral vancomycin (severe or mild-mod) Oral fidaxomicin (severe recurrent or risk of recurrent) ```
215
What is the dose of oral metronidazole for CDI?
400mg TDS for 10-14 days
216
What is the dose of oral Vancomycin for CDI?
125mg every 6 hours | can give up to 500mg every 6 hours
217
What is the dose of oral fidaxomicin for CDI?
200mg BD for 0 days
218
What is given to treat CDI if critically unwell?
Combination therapy of IV Metronidazole and oral Vancomycin | Iv
219
What non-antimicrobial treatments for CDI are there?
Probiotics Faecal Microbiota Transplant Intravenous Immunoglobulin
220
What is constipation?
Passage of hard stools less frequently than normal Typically less than three bowel movements in one week But varies between people
221
Who does constipation affect?
All people of all ages | More common in women, especially if pregnant, and older people
222
What are the symptoms of constipation?
``` Abdominal discomfort and distension Abdominal cramping Bloating Nausea Difficulty passing stool ```
223
What is functional (idiopathic) constipation?
No anatomical or physiological cause known
224
What is secondary constipation?
Induced by a particular condition or medicine
225
Which non-medical factors pre-dispose to constipation?
``` Inadequate fluid intake Inadequate dietary fibre Dieting Changes in lifestyle Suppressing the urge to defecate ```
226
Which medical factors pre-dispose to constipation?
``` Coeliac disease Depression Diabetes GI obstruction IBS Parkinson’s disease Hypercalcaemia Hypokalaemia Hypothyroidism ```
227
Which medications can cause constipation? Give examples
Antacids containing aluminium and calcium Antihypertensives – diuretics, calcium channel blockers Antidepressants – tricyclics and some monoamine oxidase inhibitors Antimuscarinics – procyclidine, oxybutynin Antiparkinsonian medicines – levodopa, dopamine agonists, amantadine Opioid analgesics Iron
228
What should an opioid be co prescribed with?
A laxative
229
What should a patient with constipation be assessed for?
Bowel habit Examination Try to identify cause Rome III diagnostic criteria
230
What are the aims of treatment for constipation?
Restore normal frequency defecation Achieve regular, comfortable defecation Avoid laxative dependence Relieve discomfort
231
What are the treatments for constipation?
Change primary cause - diet, fluids, lifestyle | Laxatives
232
What are the 4 types of laxatives?
Bulk-forming Stimulant Osmotic Faecal-softening
233
How do bulk-forming laxatives work?
Increase faecal mass through water binding to stimulate peristalsis
234
How long do bulk-forming laxatives take to work?
Take several days for full effect
235
What must the patient do for bulk-forming laxatives to work?
Maintain a good fluid intake as they work through water binding
236
Can bulk-forming laxatives be used long term?
In people prone to constipation (elderly)
237
Give examples of bulk-forming laxatives
Ispaghula husk | Methylcellulose (also a softener)
238
How do stimulant laxatives work?
Increase intestinal motility via muscle contractions | Work on cells in smooth muscle to stimulate peristalsis
239
How long do stimulant laxatives take to work?
A few hours - take before bedtime, will work by morning
240
What can stimulant laxatives cause?
Abdominal cramps | Prolonged use - diarrhoea, fluid and electolyte imbalance
241
Give examples of stimulant laxatives
Senna Bisacodyl Dantron (terminal illness)
242
How do osmotic laxatives work?
Work within colonic lumen to retain and draw water into intestine by osmosis and stimulate peristalsis
243
What must the patient maintain for osmotic laxatives to work?
A good fluid intake
244
What types of osmotic laxatives are there and how long do they take to work?
Macrogel powders: 1-3 days Lactulose: 2-3 days Phosphate enema or suppository: 15-30 mins Magnesium hydroxide sachets: 3-6 hours
245
What are magnesium hydroxide sachets used as a laxative for?
Clearing prior to bowel procedures | e.g. colonoscopy
246
How do faecal softening laxatives work?
Stimulate peristalsis by increasing faecal mass: they lower surface tension and allow water and fats to penetrate faeces
247
Give examples of faecal softening laxatives and how long do they take to work?
Docusate sodium: 1-3 days Gylcerol suppository: within 1 hour Arachis oil enema: within 30 mins
248
When must an Arachis oil enema not be used?
If the patient has a nut allergy
249
What complications can constipation cause?
Faecal impaction haemorrhoids Rectal prolapse Anal fissures
250
What is Coeliac disease?
Autoimmune condition affecting the small bowel Genetic predisposition Body’s immune system attacks itself when gluten is eaten – thinks gluten is foreign material Reaction varies between people BUT NOT ALLERGIC REACTION - NO ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK
251
How is Coeliac disease diagnosed in adults?
Serology - look at levels of immunoglobulins person to person Endoscopy for SI biopsy (Repeat biopsy on gluten-free diet) (Gluten challenge (>10g per day, 6/52)
252
What are the symptoms of coeliac disease?
Not every person has symptoms and they vary person to person - mild to severe Headaches Diarrhoea Abdominal pain Lethargy
253
How long do symptoms of Coeliac disease last?
Few hours to a few days
254
Coeliac disease is a 'multi-system disorder' - what does this mean?
symptoms can affect any area of the body and lead to other conditions
255
What complications can Coeliac disease cause?
Long term malabsorption and osteoporosis Refractory coeliac disease – symptoms WITH gluten free diet Ulcerative jejunitis Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma Autoimmune disease
256
What happens the longer you continue to eat gluten with Coeliac disease?
The more you risk triggering another autoimmune disease
257
Is there a cure for Coeliac disease? What happens if you reintroduce gluten? What is being developed?
``` No cure Lifelong gluten free diet Reintroduce gluten=immune system reacts and gut lining becomes damaged again Research underway to develop a vaccine Looking at modifying the immune system ```
258
What is included in a gluten free diet?
Fresh meat, fish, cheese, eggs, milk, fruit and vegetables (watch for contamination) Specially-manufactured wheat starch
259
Why do patients not like gluten free diets?
``` Taste Expensive Difficult to eat out No agreed international consensus on permissible levels Range of symptoms with ingestion Nutritional aspects ```
260
What can be given on prescription for Coeliac disease?
Bread and flour mixes only
261
What is IBS?
Chronic condition At least 6 months of abdominal pain and bowel symptoms (diarrhoea, constipation or combination of both) Cause unclear and can differ patient to patient
262
What is the treatment for IBS?
Poorly understood so cant treat underlaying cause Treatment aimed at symptomatic relief: Dietary changes and exercise Antispasmodics (e.g. mebeverine, hyoscine, peppermint oil) Anti-diarrhoeal (e.g. Loperamide short courses) Laxatives (e.g. bulk-forming, stimulant, osmotic) Probiotics
263
Is one treatment given for IBS?
No, may have different symptoms at different times so swap treatments around
264
Why are antispasmodics given for IBS?
They relax smooth muscle They are well tolerated Peppermint oil capsules can also be used TDS
265
Which antispasmodic is the most common for IBS in the UK and what formulation and dose?
Mebeverine MR capsule | 200mg BD
266
Why is there an extensive blood flow to the kidneys?
Served by renal artery and renal vein
267
What are the two distinct areas when you cut through the kidneys?
Outer - cortex (brown) | Inner - medulla (dark grey)
268
Where are the kidneys attached to?
The back of the abdominal wall (NOT in peritoneal cavity)
269
How do kidneys maintain homeostasis?
Regulate blood volume/pressure Osmolarity - maintain iron levels Acid base balance
270
What do the kidneys excrete?
Metabolites (urea which is a product of AA breakdown) | Ingested chemicals, drugs
271
What is the endocrine function of the kidney?
``` Erythromycin hormone involved in RBC production Vitamin D3 (Ca2+ homeostasis) ```
272
What can happen if Low vitamin D3 levels occur?
Rickets - softer bones which bend under pressure
273
What are the two arterioles in the nephron and which is bigger? why?
Afferent arteriole - bigger Efferent arteriole Afferent bigger to increase pressure to aid filtration into bowmans capsule
274
What is the route of the blood in the nephron?
Blood - afferet arteriole - glomerulus - (some filtrates into bowmans capsules) - efferent arteriole
275
What is the vasa recta?
The capillaries surrounding the nephron
276
Describe filtration in the kidney
Molecules from plasma into Bowman's Capsule
277
Describe secretion in the kidney
Molecules secreted from vasa recta peritubular capillary INTO the tubule (then pass out into urine)
278
Describe reabsorption in the kidney
Valuable compounds back into blood from the nephron
279
What are the three layers of the capillary and how are they arranged?
Capillary endothelium stcik to a basement membrane made of proteins and carbs, with capsule cells (podocytes) wrapped around the capillary
280
What happens to large molecules vs small molecules in the capillary?
Large -pass straight through capillary Small - filtered and pass straight through gaps (blood vessels are leaky, and gaps occur between cells and between podocytes)
281
Approx. what size molecules pass through pores in Bowman's capsule?
30 kPa and smaller
282
What does a larger molecule in the urine indicate?
The kidney is damaged
283
Some drugs can bind to proteins, what effect does this have on filtration?
They are not filtered, unlike some drugs that are unbound and pass to urine
284
Give an example of a drug that is extensively bound to proteins?
Warfarin = 99% bound
285
What is the glomerular filtration rate?
Volume of fluid filtered per unit time (per hour or day) | Measure of how well the kidneys are functioning
286
What can affect GFR?
Drastic changes | e.g. kidney stones, polycystic kidney disease
287
What happens to GFR as CKD worsens?
GFR decreases
288
Give examples of molecules filtered in the kidney
Water, ions, drugs
289
Which diseases can affect renal function?
Kidney cancer Kidney cysts Obstructive kidney stones
290
What do changes in renal function alter?
Elimination
291
Which factors affect renal function?
Age | Disease
292
If there is reduced renal function, what must happen to drug doses and why?
Reduce the dose Not as much drug being cleared Higher levels in the body Can result in toxicity
293
How do you measure renal function?
Measure Glomerular Filtration Rate
294
What is GFR?
Rate at which fluid in the plasma is filtered
295
How can Inulin be used to measure renal function?
Administered IV Polymer of fructose and freely filtered Not reabsorbed nor secreted by the nephron/metabolised by kidney so amount of inulin filtered is the amount excreted in the urine
296
How can Creatine be used to measure renal function?
Produced by muscles and freely filtered | How much in urine = how much has been filtered + 10% that has been secreted by the nephron
297
What is renal clearance?
Volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed per unit time
298
Which three measurements are needed to calculate renal clearance?
``` V = rate urine production (vol/time) [Ux] = urine conc of x [Px] = plasma conc of x ```
299
Which transporters are involved in renal drug elimination?
``` OAT OATP OCT MRP BCRP P-gp ```
300
Is glucose found in the urine of healthy individuals?
No - negligible
301
Which uptake and efflux transporters does Methotrexate use?
Uptake - OCT1, OAT1 | Efflux - MRP2, MRP4, ABCG2
302
Which uptake and efflux transporter do Pitvastatin and rosuvastatin use?
Uptake - OAT3 | Efflux - ABCG2
303
Which uptake and efflux transporter does Fexofenidine use?
Uptake - OAT3 | Efflux - ABCB1
304
Which uptake and efflux transporter does Digoxin use?
Uptake - OATP1 | Efflux - ABCB1
305
Why might you inhibit glucose transporters?
To treat diabetes | Plasma levels of glucose in the blood will drop
306
Which transporter should be inhibited to inhibit glucose transport?
SGLT2 found in kidney
307
Give example of a SGLT2 inhibitor
Dapagliflozin (Forxiga)
308
How much filtered Na+ is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule?
70%
309
When Na+ is reabsorbed, what follows?
Water by passive diffusion
310
What is Na+ uptake coupled to?
H+ secretion
311
What is also produced during the acid base balance and what does this do?
HCO3- (carbonic acid) | Acts as a buffer
312
How are the kidneys and lungs linked?
Via the circulatory system
313
What can inefficient (diseased) lungs lead to?
Respiratory Acidosis (Build up of protons in the plasma)
314
How do kidneys prevent respiratory acidosis?
Increase proton secretion
315
How can changes in pH alter renal drug handling?
pH affects ionisation of drug and therefore membrane permeability
316
Which steroid hormone increases Na+ reabsorption in the kidney?
Aldosterone
317
Where is aldosterone produced?
Outer cortex of the adrenal gland
318
What does aldosterone do?
Increased Na+ channels in the apical membrane | Increases Na, K pumps in the basolateral membrane
319
Which system controls aldosterone secretion?
The renin-angiotensin system
320
How does the renin angiotensin system work?
Low Na in the body – sensed by cells in the kidney Cells produce renin in response Renin converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I which is inactive Angiotensin I comes into contact with Kidney and lung Capillary cells ACE converts AGI to AGII AGII circulates until it gets to adrenal cortex and tells it to make aldosterone
321
What are ACE inhibitors used for and give two examples
``` Heart failure (+ diuretic) High blood pressure ``` e.g. Captopril. fosinopril
322
What is the indication for diuretics, what are they used for and give two examples
Oedema, hypertension, congestive heart disease To increase the amount of water lost through the kidneys e.g. Spironolactone, Amiloride
323
How does Spironolactone work?
It is an aldosterone analogue Binds to same receptor so aldosterone cannot bind and trigger response Less channels and pumps - more sodium and water passes out of the body
324
How does Amiloride work?
Na+ channel blocker | Binds to sodium channels in apical membrane so more sodium and water stays in the fluid and is passed out of the body
325
How much blood does the kidney filter daily?
120L
326
How much filtrate from the kidney is reabsorbed?
99%
327
How much filtrate from the kidney is lost in the urine daily?
1.5L
328
For what reasons my there be a reduced number of nephrons (<1.4 million)?
Hypertensive patients | Reduced with age
329
How much Na+ reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule and via which exchanger?
60-70% | Na+/ H+ exchanger
330
Explain the counter current multiplier in the LoH
Concentration of interstitial fluid increases as LoH descends so osmotic potential increases
331
How much Na+ is actively reabsorbed in the thick ascending LoH and via which transporter?
20-30% | Na/K/Cl transporter
332
Do cells in the thick ascending LoH have a high or low permeability to water?
Low permeability
333
Do cells in the distal convoluted tubule have a high or low permeability to water?
Impermeable to water
334
How much Na+ is reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule?
7%
335
What happens in the collecting tubule?
ADH binding to the vasopressin receptors in aquaporin channels causes their insertion into the apical membrane. Can remove as much as 15% of filtered water, making the urine considerably hypertonic to plasma. Na+ reabsorption mediated by aldosterone occurs
336
How do diuretics increase excretion of Na+ and water?
through direct action on nephron cells or changing composition of the filtrate
337
How do loop diuretics work?
Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in thick ascending limb | They cause vasodilation before the onset of diuresis
338
Give examples of loop diuretics
Furosemide Bumetanide Torasemide
339
How are loop diuretics thought to cause vasodilation?
Angiotensin II usually constricts arteries but loop diuretics reduce response to diuretics Increased vasodilating PG's present endogenous Na+/K+/ATP inhibitor decrease
340
What effect to NSAIDs have on loop diuretics?
NSAIDs ↓ diuretic action of furosemide (PG inhibition/ competition for OAT)
341
What are the indications for loop diuretics?
``` Acute pulmonary oedema Chronic heart failure Liver cirrhosis + ascites Nephrotic sysndrome Renal failure Hypertension (+reduced renal function) Hypercalcaemia ```
342
Side effects of loop diuretics
``` Hypotension Hypokalaemia Metabolic alkalosis Gout Hearing loss ```
343
Why is there a loss of potassium with loop diuretics?
Increase in sodium which enters collecting duct – drives sodium potassium exchange pump Increase in potassium entering epithelial cells the and increase in potassium leakage into filtrate/urine large conc of Na+ remaining in filtrate (because ther is less reabsorption in LoH) → drives Na+/K+ pump
344
Where are loop diuretics absorbed?
Through the GI tract Furosemide absorbed in stomach/ upper small intestine
345
How are loop diuretics administered?
Orally/iv
346
How long until the peak effect of loop diuretics occurs?
<1 hr orally | 30 minutes iv
347
What do loop diuretics bind to and what problems can this have if the glomerulus is damaged?
Albumin | If glomerulus is damagesd, less protein available to bind to so have to give more which causes more side effects
348
How do loop diuretics reach their site of action?
Via PCT excretion
349
How are loop diuretics excreted?
In urine - they enter the filtrate
350
What is the half life of loop diuretics?
90 minutes
351
What do thiazide like diuretics act on?
Inhibit Na+/ Cl- cotransporter – blocking sodium reabsorption
352
Why are thiazide like diuretics less effective than loop?
They act on the distal tubule but more Na reabsorption occurs in the ascending LoH
353
Give examples of thiazide like diuretics
Chlortalidone Inapamide Metolazone Bendroflumethiazide
354
What can a low dose of thiazide diuretics produce?
A vasodilator effect
355
Why is the effect of thiazide diuretics over time limited?
Renin angiotensin system kicks in - increases blood pressure
356
What are the indications for thiazides?
Hypertension Mild to moderate heart failure Oedema treatment Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
357
Are loop or thiazide diuretics better tolerated?
Thiazide-like diuretics better tolerated than loop diuretics
358
Side effects of thiazide like diuretics
Increase urinary frequency Erectile dysfunction Hypokalaemia Impaired glucose tolerance
359
How can you reduce K+ depletion?
Increase intake in diet - fruit juice, instant coffee, bananas Give K+ supplements alone or combined with the diuretic Use K+ sparing diuretics
360
Can thiazide-like diuretics be given orally and iv?
No just orally
361
How are thiazide-like diuretics excreted?
In urine
362
What is the dose, peak effect and duration of Bendroflumethiazide?
2.5mg daily Peak 4-6 hrs Duration 8-12 hrs
363
What is the dose of Chlortalidone and what is this medicine?
25mg daily | A thaizide-like diuretic
364
How do Potassium-sparing diuretics work?
They are aldosterone agonists so block Na+ reabsorption and Na+/K+ exchange in collecting tubule
365
Give examples of Potassium-sparing diuretics
Spironolactone | Eplerenone
366
What are the indications for Spironolactone?
Primary hyperaldosteronism Ascites caused by liver cirrhosis Oedema Severe heart failure
367
What are the indications for Eplerenone?
Adjunct in patients with left ventricular failure after MI
368
What are the side effects of K+ sparing diuretics?
Hyperkalaemia GI upset Gynaecomastia (more with spironolactone) Menstrual disorders/testicular atrophy
369
Where is spironolactone absorbed from?
The gut
370
What is spironolactone metabolised to and how long is the half life?
Canrenone | Half life = 16 hrs
371
Does spironolactone have a fast or slow onset of action?
Slow
372
Does Eplerone have a shorter pr longer elimination half life than spironolactone?
Shorter
373
Does Eplerone work for longer or less time than spironolactone?
Less time
374
Why do Triamterene + amiloride have limited efficacy as diuretics?
Block Na+ channels in the collecting tubules, where there is little sodium reabsorption
375
What are the side effects of Triamterene + amiloride?
Hyperkalaemia | Not safe to use in patients with renal impairment or on drugs which increase potassium
376
What happens to Triamterene and how is it best administered?
Partially metabolised in liver | Well absorbed orally
377
How is Amiloride excreted in the urine?
Unchanged
378
Which two drugs are in Co-amilofruse and what is it used for?
Amiloride and Furosemide | Oedema
379
Which two drugs are in Co-amilozide and what is it used for?
Amiloride and hydrochlorothiazide | Hypertension/ congestive HF/ oedema
380
How do osmotic diuretics work?
They increase the osmolarity of filtrate - draw water in | Increase excretion of water and Na+
381
Give and example of an osmotic diuretic
Mannitol
382
Where do osmotic diuretics act?
PCT, ascending LoH and CD
383
What are the indications for osmotic diuretics?
Cerebral oedema Raised intra-ocular pressure Acute renal failure Given with loop/ thiazide diuretics to maintain K+ balance
384
What are the side effects of osmotic diuretics?
Hyponatraemia Headache Nausea + vomiting