The Skeletal System Flashcards
(274 cards)
1
Q
How many bones is the skeletal system composed of?
A
206 bones
2
Q
How many bones is the axial skeleton composed of?
A
80 bones of the skull, spine, ribs & sternum
3
Q
How many bones is the appendicular skeleton composed of?
A
126 bones of the extremities, pectoral, and pelvic girdles
4
Q
What are the five types of bones?
A
Long, short, irregular, flat, sesamoid
5
Q
What type of tissue is bone?
A
connective
6
Q
What are bones covered with (outer layer)?
A
Periosteum
7
Q
What is the inner layer of bones made up of?
A
Osteoblasts
8
Q
What are osteoblasts associated with?
A
The production of bone
9
Q
What is beneath the inner layer of periosteum?
A
Cortial or compact bone
10
Q
What is below the cortical layer of bone?
A
The cancellous or spongy bone (honeycomb appearance)
11
Q
What is the name of the open canal that runs down the center of the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones and contains the bone marrow?
A
Medullary or marrow cavity
12
Q
What lines the marrow cavity?
A
Endosteum
13
Q
What are the two types of tissue found in the cavities of bones?
A
Red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow?
14
Q
Where is the red bone marrow found and what is its function?
A
It is found in the open areas of spongy bone and forms red blood cells
15
Q
Where is the yellow bone marrow found and what is its function?
A
Yellow bone marrow contains predominantly fat and is found in the marrow cavity of long bones
16
Q
What are the three types of joints?
A
Synarthrodial, amphiarthrodial, and diarthrodial
17
Q
Synarthrodial joinst are
A
immovable
18
Q
Amphiarthrodial joints are
A
slight movable
19
Q
Diarthrodial joints are
A
freely movable
20
Q
What is ossification?
A
The process of bone replacing fibrous membranes and begins with the appearance of osteoblasts
21
Q
What are osteoblasts?
A
Bone-forming cells
22
Q
What do osteoblasts form?
A
Bone matrix
23
Q
What are osteoclasts?
A
Cells associated with the absorption and removal of bone. They “eat away” the inside of the marrow cavity white the osteoblasts build up the outside of the bone
24
Q
What are the main functions of the skeletal system?
A
Support, protection, movement, production of blood cells, & storage
25
What is scoliosis?
Lateral deviation and rotation of the spine
26
What are the various types of scoliosis?
Idiopathic, congenital, or acquired
27
What is congenital scoliosis commonly the result of?
hemivertebrae, wedge vertebrae, or neuromuscular development
28
What is wedge vertebrae or hemivertebrae?
A failure of formation of the vertebrae
29
What is the most definitive and important diagnostic tool for scoliosis?
Imaging
30
What are other modalities used to image scoliosis?
CT, MRI, ultrasound (prenatally), & nuclear medicine when patient presents with pain
31
What is a transitional vertebrae?
A vertebrae that takes on the characteristics of the vertebrae on either side of it
32
What is CDH?
Congenital dislocated hip also known as development dysplasia of the hip
33
What happens with CDH?
the capsule of the hip joint relaxes and allows dislocation of the hip
34
Who is affected the most by CDH?
Caucasian females
35
What percentage of newborns showing clinical signs of CDH will revert back to normal after 6 to 8 weeks of age?
75%-95%
36
What complications may take place if CDH is not diagnosed and treatment is not put into place?
Avascular necrosis, a possibility of pseudoacetabulae, and secondary osteoarthritis will occur later in life in the 50s or 60s
37
What is spina bifida?
The failure of fusion of one or more vertebral arches
38
What is spina bifida occulta (SBO)?
Occurs when the two halves of the posterior arch fail to unite
39
What is the most common location of SBO?
The first sacral vertebra
40
In SBO, what happens with the spinal cord?
There is no protrusion of the spinal cord or its membrane, however if neural elements project through the defect without any meninge covering, a myelocele is present
41
What is Meningocele?
When a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) filled sac is covered with the meninges of the cord
42
What happens with spina bifida aperta?
There is a wide bony defect in the posterior arch of the lumbar vertebrae
43
What is myelomeningocele?
A sac containing CSF and some of the neural elements of the cord protruding
44
What modalities are used to diagnose myelocele, meningocele, and myelomeningocele
Sonography as early as 12 weeks, plain radiographs, and MRI
45
What is Osteogenesis imperfecta?
An inherited connective tissue disorder that affects multiple organs and not just the skeletal system
46
What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?
brittle bone disease because of the extreme vulnerability of bones to fracture
47
What are the two types of osteogenesis imperfecta?
Congenital and tarda
48
What is there a lack of with osteogenesis imperfecta?
There is a lack of osteoblastic activity and abnormal collagen formation so that the skeleton does not ossify properly
49
How many people does OI affect?
Between 20,000 and 50,000 people in the United States with 1 in every 20,000 births being afflicted
50
Is congenital or tarda more severe in regards to OI?
Congenital
51
What happens to infants with congenital OI?
They are stillborn or die very early
52
What happens to the long bones in individuals with OI?
The long bones are short, thick, and bowed, resembling dwarfism
53
When does the tarda form appear in regards to OI?
After puberty with multiple fractures and milder deformities of the long bones at varying times following birth
54
What is often associated with osteogensis imperfecta?
deafness since the small ossicles can easily fracture
55
What is the most common and mildest form of OI?
Type 1 (OI tarda 1)
56
What is the most severe form of OI?
Type IV
57
What is used to determine the initial diagnosis of OI?
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
58
What appears on radiographs in individuals with OI?
diffuse osteoporosis with thin cortices, short and thick extremities, and a narrow pelvis
59
What happens to technique in patients with OI?
The kVp must be increased slightly because fractures heal by producing more bone
60
What process is exactly opposite of OI?
Osteopetrosis
61
What is osteopetrosis?
a deficiency of osteoclasts and therefore, faulty bone absorption
62
What is another name for osteopetrosis?
Marble bone disease
63
What are the different forms of osteopetrosis?
Osteopetrosis infantile, osteopetrosis tarda, and osteopetrosis intermediate
64
What happens with osteopetrosis infantile?
Frequently ends in blindness and deafness and then death by age of 2 years
65
What happens with osteopetrosis tarda?
It remains asymptomatic with detection being made with anemia or pathologic fractures
66
What happens with osteopetrosis intermediate?
It falls somewhere in between the other two forms
67
Patients who suffer from osteopetrosis are prone to what?
Osteomyelitis
68
What modalitiy is the best diagnostic procedure when diagnosing osteopetrosis?
Radiography and is supported by CT
69
What happens to your technique when imaging patients with osteopetrosis?
With such a high increase in density of the bones, the technical factors will need to be increases. The kVp will need to be increased but not above 75 for extremities, as the scatter will be greater.
70
What is achondroplasia?
The failure of the cartilage that becomes bone to form properly, thus not allowing ossification to proceed as it should
71
What is achondroplasia caused by?
An abnormal gene located on one of the chromosomes
72
What disease is the most common cause of disproportionate short stature occurring in 1 in 15,000 to 1 in 25,000 live births?
achondroplasia
73
Who is most affected by achondroplasia?
it occurs in all races and both sexes
74
What is are physical signs of an individual with achondroplasia?
They have short extremities while the trunk and skull are of normal size. Often the arms are shorter than the lower extremities. Lordosis of the lumbar spine, bowed legs, and a bulky forehead with a saddle shaped nose. Nasal passages are narrowed and the jaw is small so that the teeth may be crowded and poorly aligned
75
What happens to the technique when radiographing an infant with achondroplasia?
because the cartilage is not ossified as it should, radiographs will not require the higher kVp settings
76
What is osteopenia?
A nonspecific radiographic finding that indicates increased radiolucency of bone
77
What are the two types of osteopenia?
Osteoporosis and osteomalacia
78
What is osteoporosis?
When osteoblasts fail to lay down sufficient amount of bone matrix, an abnormal decrease in bone density occurs
79
What are the prime factors associated with osteoporosis?
Age, gender, race
80
Who is affected most by osteoporosis?
Occurs more often in women and among Whites and Asians than in African Americans
81
What are the different variety of clinical conditions osteoporosis may occur in?
Secondary and primary
82
What is more common, primary osteoporosis or secondary?
Primary (not associated with underlying cause)
83
What are some of the common locations of osteoporosis?
Spine, pelvis, hips, femurs, distal radius/hand, and proximal humerus/shoulder
84
What do radiographs show when imaging people with osteoporosis?
Lack of density in the bones die to loss of calcium and thin cortices with fewer trabeculae
85
What happens to technical factors when imaging an individual with osteoporosis?
Technical factors (particularly kVp) should be decreased so as mot to overexpose the image and cause a repeat radiograph
86
What is the best modality for osteoporosis?
DEXA
87
What is osteomalacia?
It is an abnormal decrease in bone caused by a lack of calcium and phosphorus. This leads to softening of the bone in an adult.
88
What is a cause of osteomalacia?
Vitamin D deficiency and pregnancy
89
If osteomalacia occurs before the growth plate at the epiphysis closes in children, what is it called?
Rickets
90
What is another name for rickets?
Infantile osteomalacia
91
What is a common manifestation in Rickets?
Bowing of the legs
92
What are other radiographic signs in individuals with osteomalacia?
Generalized reduction in bone density due to decreased number of trabeculae
93
What is osteodystrophy?
A disturbance in the growth of bone due to lack of vitamins
94
What are a few causes of osteodystrophy?
Lack of vitamins and renal failure
95
Brown tumors are associated with what?
Osteodystrophy
96
What are brown tumors caused by?
Large amounts of osteoclasts that "eat" away the inside of the bone, causing a lesion
97
What does increased osteoclastic activity result in?
Subperiosteal bone resorption
98
What disease is characterized by lace-like patterns of the outer cortex of the digits, femur, and humerus?
Osteodystrophy
99
What disease is associated with radiographic images with a fuzzy, moth-eaten appearance of the skull known as the "salt and pepper" skull?
Osteodystrophy
100
When renal osteodystrophy occurs in the spine, what is it called?
A "rugger jersey spine"
101
What is osteomyelitis?
Infection of the bone and bone marrow
102
What is osteitis?
Infection of only the bone
103
What is osteitis mostly caused by?
Staphylococci bacteria carried through the blood, but it can also be caused directly if bacteria enter the bone from outside due to conditions such as a compound fracture
104
What is the usual site for development of osteomyelitis?
Long bones of the lower limbs
105
What happens when osteomyelitis occurs and inflammation causes a rise in pressure within the bone , but the periosteum constricts buildup causing the vessels in the bone to become compressed?
The bone will die within 24 to 48 hours
106
What is dead bone called?
Sequestrum
107
What does dead bone cause on a radiographic image?
It causes a linear opacity
108
What is Osteitis deformans or Paget disease?
Overproduction of bone
109
What kind of disease is Osteitis deformans or Paget disease?
Idiopathic disease
110
Who is Osteitis deformans or Pagets disease more common in?
Men over 55 years of age
111
Where does osteitis deformans or Pagets disease occur?
Principally at the skull, tibias, and vertebrae
112
What happens to bones in osteitis deformans or Pagets disease?
It becomes softened because of the over action of osteoclasts removing calcium, causing the to bow
113
What is the appearance on images in those with osteitis deformans or Pagets disease?
Cotton wool
114
What does osteochondritis dissecans mean?
Bone dissected or separated from cartilage
115
What are the two forms of osteochondritis dissecans?
Legg-Calve-Perth disease and Osgood-Schlatter disease
116
What is Legg-Calve-Perths disease?
A common lesion of the head of the femur
117
Who is most affected by Legg-Calve-Perths disease?
Young boys around the age of 3 to 12; however, it can occur in females
118
What bone is affected in Legg-Calve-Perths disease?
The head of the femur at the center of the epiphysis
119
What happens to the femoral head when an individual has Legg-Calve-Perths disease?
It becomes flattened and splayed
120
What is the hallmark of Legg-Calve-perths disease?
Flattened femoral head that remains even after the lesion has healed and the bone regains some of its structure
121
What are the earliest clinical signs of Legg-Calve-Perths disease?
Pain and trendelendburg gait, a limp
122
What modality is useful fro evaluation of Legg-Calve-Perths disease in the early stages before the epiphysis has ossified?
MRI
123
What is Osgood-Schlatter disease?
It is characterized as a painful incomplete separation, avulsion, or strain of the epiphysis of the tibial tuberosity from the proximal anterior tibial shaft
124
Who is most likely to be affected by Osgood-Schlatter disease?
It is more common in males between 10 and 15 years of age
125
What is said to be the cause of Osgood-Schlatter?
A traumatically induced avulsion due to repeated knee flexion against a tight quadriceps muscle
126
What are the symptoms of Osgood-Schlatter?
Soft tissue swelling and pain
127
What do radiographic images show with Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Epiphyseal seperation and fragmentation on the lateral knee image
128
What are the two different categories of neoplastic bone changes?
Benign and malignant
129
What diseases/conditions are considered benign?
Fibrous dysplasia, bone cyst, exostosis chondroma (osteochondroma), endochondroma, and osteoclstomas
130
What is fibrous dysplasia?
Fibrous displacement of osseous tissue
131
What happens in fibrous dysplasia?
Osteoblasts fail to undergo normal morphologic differentiation and maturation
132
What is the age patients seen with fibrous dysplasia and what ages are most common?
Patients ranging from 10 to 70 years, but most often seen in the 20s and 30s
133
What bones are involved with fibrous dysplasia?
The long bones, ribs, and facial bones
134
What is common with fibrous dysplasia?
Pathologic fractures are common because of expansion of the bone causing thin, eroded cortices
135
What does a radiograph show in fibrous dysplasia?
well-circumscribed lesions in the shaft of a long bone containing bands of sclerosis causing a multicolor effect
136
What is a bone cyst?
A wall of fibrous tissue filled with clear fluid, occurring in the proximal humerus and knee of adolescents and young adults
137
Who is most affected by bone cysts?
Males outnumber females by a ratio of 3:1
138
TRUE OR FALSE
Bone cysts are usually noted on a radiograph but are detected only when pain due to cyst growth or a pathologic fracture occurs
FALSE
Bone cysts are NOT usually noted on a radiograph but are detected only when pain due to cyst growth or a pathologic fracture occurs
139
When bone cysts do appear on radiographs, what is there appearance?
They show a lucent focus with a thin cortex and sharp boundary. There may also be septa to cause a loculated appearance
140
What is the classical sign shown in radiographs with bone cysts?
Fallen fragment sign, which occurs with pathologic fractures through a bone cyst
141
What is another modality used to best show bone cysts?
CT. CT scans of a bone cysts show a fluid density within a well-defined lesion with bony septations within it
142
What is a chondroma?
A cartilaginous tumor that is sharply delineated with a thin inner cortex, as seen on the radiographic image. The underlying bone is completely normal
143
What are the two benign types of chondroma?
Exostosis and Endochondroma
144
What is the most common benign type of chondroma?
Exostosis
145
What is another name for exostosis?
Osteochondroma
146
What is the most common benign skeletal growth or tumor?
Osteochondroma
147
Who is more likely to be affected by osteochondroma?
Males. 2:1 over females
148
Unless surrounding nerves or blood vessels are disturbed, most osteochondroma are?
Asymptomatic
149
Where does osteochondroma arise from and how does it grow?
It arises from the cortex and grows parallel to the bone
150
In which direction does osteochondroma point?
Away from the adjacent joint and is capped by radiolucent cartilage
151
What is exostosis caused by?
Localized bone overgrowth at a joint, seen often at the knee
152
What is an enchondroma?
It is a slow-growing benign tumor that arises in the medullary canal of bone that are localized and small
153
What bones are most affected by enchondroma?
Bones of the hands and feet of adolescents and young adults
154
The more centrally local an enchondroma is the what?
The greater possibility of malignant transformation
155
What are osteoclastomas?
They are benign tumors seen in young people in their early 20s
156
What is another word for osteoclastomas?
Giant cell tumors
157
Are osteoclastomas popular?
Yes, they are relatively common, representing about 15% of all primary tumors
158
What is the most common location of osteoclastomas?
in the long bones arising from the epiphysis after closure
159
What are osteoclastomas seen as on radiographs?
large lytic lesions separated by thin strips of bone
160
What appearance is seen on radiographs when imaging patients with osteclastomas?
Soap bubble appearance
161
What procedure is done to ensure that osteclastomas are removed completely?
Surgical intervention
162
What are the four chief primary malignant tumors of bone?
Chondrosarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, and multiple myeloma
163
Of the bone primary malignant tumors of bone, which is the most easily identifiable on radiographic images?
Multiple myeloma
164
What is a chondrosacroma?
it is the third most common malignant bone tumor
165
Who is most affected by chondrosarcoma?
Men. It occurs two times more often in men over the age of 45 than in women
166
What bones are the sites of a chondromsarcoma?
The pelvis and long bones
167
What happens when the primary chondrosacroma is removed?
There is often rapid growth or metastasis and prolonged recovery times
168
What do radiographic images reveal with chondrosarcoma?
A large, radiolucent lesion with an oval or round shape
169
What is Ewing sarcoma?
It is the most common primary malignant bone tumor seen in a child of 5 to 15 years of age
170
How common is Ewing sarcoma overall?
It ranks as the fourth most common primary malignant tumor
171
Where does Ewing sarcoma occur?
It occurs in the diaphysis of long bones
172
What is Ewing Sarcoma often misdiagnosed with because of the constant low-grade pain, fever, and leukocytosis that are present?
Osteomyelitis
173
What is the appearance of Ewing sarcoma on a radiographic image?
Onion peel appearance because of the stratified new bone formation caused by healing
174
What is the best modality for Ewing Sarcoma?
Nuclear medicine bone scan is the best
175
What is the survival rate of Ewing Sarcoma?
There is a 5-year survival rate in only about 5% of all Ewing sarcoma cases
176
What is usually necessary to help prevent metastasis with Ewing Sarcoma?
Amputation
177
What is osteogenic sarcoma?
A highly malignant primary tumor occurring at 10 to 30 years of age, with the peak incidence rate at 20 years of age
178
What is another name for osteogenic sarcoma?
Osteosarcoma
179
Where does osteogenic sarcoma most often occur?
In the long bones, particularly at the lower ends of the femurs and upper ends of the humerus or radius
180
Radiographically, how does osteogenic sarcoma appear on images?
Dense areas, radiolucent areas, or mixed areas that give it a sunray appearance
181
What happens to the periosteum in Osteogenic Sarcoma?
The periosteum is lifted from the bone by the tumor
182
What is the survival rate for Osteogenic Sarcoma?
5 year survival rate in about 20% of cases even if the patient is otherwise healthy
183
What bones are particularly affected by multiple myeloma?
Flat bones
184
Who is affected most by multiple myeloma?
The disease is rare in persons younger than 40 years of age and is most often seen in persons over the age of 50 years
185
Where does multiple myeloma actually arise from and where does it occur?
Multiple myeloma actually arises from the bone marrow plasma cells and occurs in bone marrow that is actively hemopoietic. Therefore, it is not a true osseous tumor
186
What is the hallmark radiographic sign of multiple myeloma?
Punched-out osteolytic lesions, not unlike a "Swiss cheese" effect
187
What is the overall prognosis in patients with multiple myeloma?
The overall prognosis is poor. Over 90% of patients die within 3 years of diagnosis
188
What is the average survival rate in patients with multiple myeloma?
33 months
189
Which are more common, metastatic bone tumors or primary bone tumors?
Metastatic bone tumors
190
A metastatic tumor is the first sign of what?
First sign that cancer is present somewhere else in the body; usually, the breast, lung, prostate, and kidney
191
How do metastatic tumors reach the skeleton?
Through circulatory system or lymph system or by invasion
192
What type of fractures occur as a result of the tumor weakening the bone?
Pathologic fractures
193
What bones are the first to be affected by metastatic?
Bones that contain red cone marrow such as the spine, skull, ribs, pelvis, and femurs
194
What is the most frequent injury to the skeletal system?
Fracture
195
What is a fracture?
A discontinuity of a bone caused by force applied either directly or indirectly to the bone
196
Fractures of long bones can lead to what?
Shock because as much as one liter of blood can be lost in the surrounding tissue
197
What is necessary for the healing of fractures?
Bleeding which leads to inflammation and the formation of fibrous tissue
198
What does blood, lymph, and tissue form at a fracture site?
Fibrin clot
199
What are embedded into a fibrin clot?
Fibroblasts that form a stabilizing type of tissue called granulation tissue that becomes a temporary callus that knits the fracture
200
What is a callus?
A fibrocartilaginous mass
201
What is a complete fracture?
one that occurs through the entire section of the bone
202
What is an incomplete fracture?
A fracture that breaks only one cortex
203
What is another name for an incomplete fracture?
A fissure
204
What is a closed fracture?
A fracture in which skin is not broken
205
What has to happen in order for a fracture to be considered open?
The skin or mucosal surface must be pierced by at least one end of the fracture bone
206
What are simple fractures?
When the bone is divided into two complete pieces
207
What is a comminuted fracture?
When the bone may be shattered but there must only be three or more fragments
208
What terms describe the direction of the fracture in relation to the long axis of the bone?
Transverse, spiral, oblique, longitudinal
209
What is a stellate fracture?
A star-shaped fracture, particularly on the patella or the calvarium
210
What does displacement refer to?
The lateral positioning of fragments
211
What does distraction refer to?
The gap between the fragments
212
What does dislocated mean?
the bones that form a joint no longer articulate
213
What is subluxation?
partial dislocation
214
What is the term used when healing does not occur in the normal time?
Delayed union
215
What is malunion?
When the bone ends have not been properly reduced and are misaligned, which impairs normal function
216
What is nonunion?
When the bone ends never join at all
217
What are the most common types of fractures?
Plastic, greenstick, torus, epiphyseal, fatigue, pathologic, avulsion, compression, Galeazzi, Monteggia, Colles, Smith, Bennett, boxer's, bimalleolar, and trimalleolar
218
What is a plastic fracture?
It occurs when the soft young bone bends, but the cortex does not actually break
219
What is a greenstick fracture?
A break in the cortex but only on one side of the shaft
220
What is a torus fracture?
A type of greenstick fracture in which a driving force pushes down the shaft of bone, causing the cortex to fold back onto itself
221
What is a epiphyseal fracture?
It occurs through un-united areas of epiphyses
222
What is a fatigue fracture?
It occurs at sties of maximum stress, usually the metatarsal bones
223
What is another name for a fatigue fracture?
March fracture or stress fracture
224
What is a pathologic fracture?
A fracture that occurs when normal stress is placed on diseased areas of bone
225
What is an avulsion fracture?
When a small chip of bone breaks away when a joint has dislocated
226
What is a compression fracture?
Compressing forces applied to both sides of the bone
227
What is the Galeazzi fracture?
A fracture of the radial shaft at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. It is associated with dislocation of the distal ulna
228
What is the Monteggia fracture?
It involves the proximal third of the ulna with anterior dislocation of the radial head
229
What is the hallmark indication of a Monteggia fracture?
The sail sign
230
What fractures occur at the wrist?
Colles and Smith fractures
231
What is a colles fracture?
Occurs when the distal radius fractures with the fragment being displaced posteriorly
232
What is a Smith's fracture?
Occurs when the distal radius fractures with the fragments being displaced anteriorly
233
What are the most common fractures seen in hands?
Bennett fractures
234
What is a Bennett fracture?
A fracture at the base of the first metacarpal (thumb) with proximal displacement
235
What is a Boxer's fracture?
A fracture that occurs at the neck of the fifth metacarpal
236
What is a bimalleolar fracture?
A fracture of the lateral and medial malleoli of the ankle
237
What is a trimalleolar fracture?
Fracture of the lateral, medial, and posterior malleoli of the ankle
238
What is a Pott fracture?
Bimalleolar fracture with an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus caused by abduction and external rotation of the ankle
239
How does the shoulder dislocate?
Anteriorly, with the head slipping into the subglenoid fossa
240
How does the hip dislocate?
Posteriorly against the sciatic notch
241
What is arthritis?
It is an inflammation of the joint, but there can be degenerative changes without infection
242
What is the most common joint disease?
Arthritis
243
What is the most common type of arthritis?
Osteoarthritis
244
What is osteoarthritis?
Noninflammatory deterioration of the articular cartilage with new bone forming at the surface of the join
245
What is another name for osteoarthritis?
Degenerative joint disease (DJD)
246
What do radiographic images of the joint show on someone with osteoarthritis?
Spurring, or in severe cases, mild subluxation or loose bodies within the joint space
247
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
It is an autoimmune disease characterized by chronic and progressive inflammatory involvement of the joints and atrophy of the muscles
248
What joints does RA affect?
Small joints of the hands and feet
249
Who is most often affected by RA?
Women in their 30s and 40s three times more often than males
250
What is the cause of RA?
There is no known cause
251
What are the symptoms of RA?
Inflammation of the synovial membrane causing pain, stiffness, and thickening of the tissue
252
What do radiographs show in the early stage of RA?
Soft-tissue swelling around the joints
253
What do radiographs show in the later stages of RA?
A decrease in the joint space, with eroded bone ends a subluxation
254
What are some examples of deformities associated with RA?
Ulnar deviation of the wrist with either "boutonniere deformity" (flexion) or "swan neck deformity" (hyperextension) of the proximal interphalangeal joint occurs
255
What is ankylosing spondylitis?
A chronic inflammatory disorder that predominantly affects the sacral iliac joints and lumbar spine
256
What is another name for ankylosing spondylitis?
rheumatoid spondylitis
257
What is ankylosing spondylitis a common cause of?
Chronic lower back pain
258
What is the age of onset with ankylosing spondylitis?
Between 15 and 35 years with an averago age of approximately 26 years
259
90% of patients who have ankylosing spondylitis are which gender?
Male
260
Where does ankylosing spondylitis start?
In the lower spine and progresses upward
261
What happens when ankylosing spondylitis reaches the thoracic area?
Kyphosis develops and breathing becomes difficult due to limit chest expansion
262
What is the hallmark appearance on a radiograph with ankylosing spondylitis?
Bamboo-spine
263
What is the most common non-arthritic ailment of joints?
Bursitis
264
What is Bursitis?
An inflammation of the synovial bursa caused by excess stress on the joint
265
Where is Bursitis usually found?
In the shoulder
266
What might the radiographs show when imaging Bursitis?
Calcified deposits in the tendon about the greater tuberosity of the humerus
267
What is Spondylolisthesis?
The forward displacement of one vertebra on top of another, usually occurring at the L5/S1 junction
268
What is spondylolisthesis usually caused by?
Some kind of defect of the pedicle
269
What is spondylitis?
Inflammation of the spinal vertebrae
270
What is spondylosis?
A condition of the spine characterized by fixation and stiffness
271
What are disk herniations?
When the fibrous ring of the disk degenerates to the point that the pulpy nucleus is forced out of the disk
272
Where are disk herniations common?
In the lumbar spine area
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What do radiographs show in regards to disk herniations?
narrowing of the disk
274
What do CT and MRI demonstrate in regards to disk herniations?
The extent of the damage
