Therapeutics - Epilepsy Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

define epilepsy

A

RECURRENT seizures (2 or more) that are NOT provoked by neurologic insults (ie - no infection, no previous stroke, no electrolyte imbalance)

just happened unprovoked. electrical activity in brain is inherently abnormal

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2
Q

is a febrile seizure considered an unprovoked seizure

A

no

there’s a reason behind it

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3
Q

____ withdrawal can cause a seizure

A

benzodiazepine

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4
Q

name 2 drug overdoses that can cause a seizure

A

alcohol
barbiturates

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5
Q

hypo ___ and hypo ___ can cause a seizure

A

hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia

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6
Q

name a particular antidepressant that is a risk factor for seizures

A

buproprion

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7
Q

the presentation of a seizure depends on what 3 things

A

-location of onset

-comorbid diseases

-concurrent meds

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8
Q

most people who have a ____ seizure lose consciousness

A

generalized

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9
Q

what are the 3 types of seizures based on onset

A

focal
generalized
unknown - dont know if generalized or focal

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10
Q

“focal onset” seizure

A

starts on ONE SIDE of the brain and may spread to the other side

generalized is on both sides of the brain and the pt tends to lose consciousness

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11
Q

true or false

antiepileptics cannot just be stopped

A

TRUE - will induce a seizure

must TAPER DOWN

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12
Q

name some drugs that can lower the seizure threshold

A

antidepressents
neuroleptics
phenothiazines

clozapine, theophylline, isoniazid, cyclosporine, meperidine

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13
Q

name a muscle relaxant that if stopped, can induce a seizure

A

meprobamate

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14
Q

can antipsychotic withdrawal induce a seizure

A

yes - particularly the early generations

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15
Q

what is QOLIE-31

what does a HIGH SCORE MEAN

A

quality of life estimator for epilepsy patients

high score means they have a good quality of life

(low score = low QOL)

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16
Q

true or false

drugs dont cure epilepsy

A

TRUE - only thing that actually cures epilepsy is surgery

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17
Q

true or false

most epilepsy patients are not on drugs for their life

A

false - they’re typically on for their whole life

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18
Q

___ is the mainstay of epilepsy treatment

A

antiseizure drug therapy

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19
Q

when a patient presents after a single, isolated seizure, do we typically treat?

A

no

typically observe them, see if something induced the seizure

but if the patient has 2 or more UNPROVOKED - that’s when you need to start on antiepileptics

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20
Q

as mentioned, if a patient presents with just 1 seizure we typically dont start antiepileptics.
when may a physician consider starting drugs tho even if they only had 1 seizure

A

if there is a definite abnormal MRI or EEG

some others tho wait to see if a 2nd one will happen

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21
Q

3 nonpharm options for epilepsy

A

vagal nerve stimulator (implanted medical device)

ketogenic diet (high fat, low carb)

surgery

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22
Q

vagal nerve stimulator is really only for…

A

kids who have failed antiepileptic drugs

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23
Q

*when choosing antiepileptic therapy, you ALWAYS start with what

A

MONOTHERAPY

never start with more than 1

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24
Q

when starting antiepileptic therapy, we should increase the dose until _______

A

either the seizures stop or CLINICAL toxicity occurs - NOT THE LAB

treat the patient not the level!!!! doesnt matter how low the level is as long as patient doesnt have seizures

everyone has very different antiepileptic medication and dose

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25
___ gen antiepileptics are typically indicated for generalized seizure
early gen
26
only time ethosuximide is used
absence seizure
27
name 7 1st gen antiepileptics
carbamazepine benzos ethosuximide phenytoin phenobarbital primidone valproic acid
28
true or false the 1st gen antiepileptics are teratogenic
true
29
true or false the 1st gen antiepileptics have a wide TI
false - narrow TI
30
true or false an advantage of 1st gen antiepileptics is that there are IV formulations available
true
31
true or false 1st gen are more likely to have DDI, and also need lab monitoring
true
32
____ has non linear pharmacokinetics
phenytoin big issue
33
true or false 1st gen AEDs have less SE than the newer gens
FALSE - more SE
34
pregnancy cetegory of NEWER antiepileptics
C - good to use in women planning pregnancy
35
true or false newer antiepileptics have superior efficacy to older
FALSE - similar but newer dont need lab monitoring and have better SE profile
36
true or false a disadvantage of newer antiepileptics is that there are limited IV formulations
true
37
**patient has been diagnosed with epilepsy ONE AED is chosen based on what?
the seizure classification side effects insurance are they male or female? - teratogenicity of the 1st gen
38
*patient with epilepsy has been started on ONE antiepileptic drug we send them home, and they come back to follow up what 2 questions do we ask
are you seizure free? do you have intolerable side effects?
39
*pt has been started on 1 AED and they are now following up when we ask if they are seizure free, they say yes when we ask if they have intolerable side effects, they say YES what do we do?
decrease the dose of the drug, and assess them again with the 2 questions later
40
*patient has been started on 1 AED and they're now following up when we ask if they are seizure free, they say yes. when we ask if they have intolerable side effects, they say no explain what we do now
assess their QOL questionairre if optimal, continue the current treatment. if they get to be seizure free for over 2 years, can consider withdrawing the drug (TAPER). if cant get to be seizure free for over 2 years. go back to box 3 if QOL NOT optimal - explore QOL issues and fix them. reassess in a little bit and ask the 2 prime questions again
41
*patient is started on 1 AED and they're now being reassessed we ask if they are seizure free and if they are having intolerable side effects they are NOT seizure free and they are NOT having intolerable side effects what do we do?
increase the dose and reassess with the same 2 questions later
42
*patient is started on 1 AED and are now following up they are NOT seizure free and ARE having intolerable side effects what do we do
decrease the dose of the drug and add a second then we reassess later and ask the same 2 questions if they're seizure free, can consider removing the first drug if they're not seizure free and having intolerable side effects, remove the least effective drug and add another, and reassess later. if still not seizure free, reconfirm diagnosis and consider nonpharm if they're not seizure free and NOT having intolerable SE, increase dose of the 2nd drug and assess compliance
43
name 3 antiepileptic that really dont inhibit or induce enzymes
gabapentin lamotrigine levitiracetam
44
carbamazepine is a potent CYP3A4 ____
inducer also an autoinducer- takes like 3-4 weeks to show in lab
45
true or false the dosage forms of carbamazepine (chewable/ER/IR) are NOT interchangeable
true
46
AE of carbamazepine
drowsiness lethargy rash hyponatremia aplastic anemia osteoporosis
47
counseling point of something that may happen when carbamazepine is first started
a benign rash on trunk/legs that goes away
48
monitoring requirements for carbamazepine
CBC and LFT at baseline, and monthyl for 2-3 months then annually thereafter
49
BBW carbamazepine
SJS
50
something you must check before initiating carbamazepine and what to do if positive
HLA-B*1502 allele DO NOT TREAT IF POSITIVE only test if certain at risk populations like asians (including south asian indians)
51
ethosuxamide is only used for what
absence seizures in a3 yrs of age and up can be mono or adjunct therapy
52
monitoring for ethosuxamide
CBC (leukopenia, pancytopenia), hepatic and renal function
53
true or false the different dosage forms of valproic acid are not interchangeable
true - have diff kinetics
54
true or false both valproic acid and carbamazepine are CI in pregnancy
true
55
BBW valproic acid
hepatotoxicity
56
advantage of keppra
minimal DDI and comes in XR formulation
57
SE keppra
worsening depression, anxiety behavioral changes - aggression
58
dose keppra need dose adjustment in renal failure
yes
59
there is cross sensitivity between oxcarbazepine and ____
carbamazepine so must also check for the allele! to predict SJS
60
gabapentin usual place in therapy
adjunct therapy
61
BBW lacosamide
avoid in 3rd degree heart block, and caution in patients with proarrhythmic conditions
62
true or false lacosamide has minimal DDI
true
63
___ is contraindicated in those with sulfa allergy
zonisamide
64
BBW zonisamide
metabolic acidosis - need to monitor look for tachycardia, excess fatigue, losing weight
65
advantage of eslicarbazepine over carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine
longer t1/2 so QD dosing
66
eslicarbazepine should not be used with...
oxcarbazepine or carbamazepine
67
if a patient has intolerable psychiatric keppra side effects, what may they be switched to to help
brivaracetam
68
true or false perampenal is not a controlled substance
false - it is
69
BBW perampenal
aggression, homicidal ideation
70
the IV formulation rate of phenytoin has a max infusion rate why
hypotension
71
nystagmus, ataxia, drowsiness, and cognitive impairment are dose-related or non dose related SE?
dose-related
72
therapeutic range of phenytoin free drug range
therapeutic range - 10-20mcg/L free drug - 1-2mg/L
73
fosphenytoin is the prodrug of phenytoin what are advantages of using it
minimize problems of IV phenytoin can be given more rapidly - doesn't have to be given slowly like IV phenytoin does not cause hypotension, bradycardia, pain, thrombophlebitis
74
true or false fosphenytoin is only given IV
true
75
BBW felbamate
irreversible fatal aplastic anemia, esp in women
76
general FDA warning about antiepileptic drugs
suicide risk in epileptic patients from 1 week-24 weeks after starting treatment
77
**3 drugs that have the lowest incidence of congenital malformations are any 1 of these better than the other?
lamotrigine levetiracetam gabapentin lamotrigine has an advantage because it can be used as monotherapy the other 2 are typically adjuncts
78
if possible ____ is preferred to ____ in women
monotherapy preferred to polytherapy
79
true or false in epileptic pregnant patients, you may need to use higher doses
true
80
2 considerations of things that can be affected in patients on antiepileptics
bone health - osteopenia and osteoporosis. treat with high dose vitamin D and calcium supplements sexual dysfunction
81
even if a patient has been seizure free for over 2 years, why might we still want to keep them on therapy
if they have factors associated with recurrent seizures like a known structural lesion, EEG abnormal, seizure onset during adolescence, neurologic abnormalities, etc
82
if we decide to take a patient off AED, explain the general rule
~25% taper down every 4 weeks - VERY SLOW the risk of withdrawal is much lower if we taper down over a whole 6 months rather than just 1-3
83
brand vs generic considerations AED
not same bioequivalence!!!!!! even different manufacturers of generics can be a problem - stay consistent
84