Therapeutics - General Principles Pt 2 Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

what is MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

A

an indicator of antibiotic potency

It’s the lowest ab concentration that prevents visible growth of the bacteria after spending 24 hours in vitro

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2
Q

true or false

MIC values are very specific

A

TRUE

very specific— 1 drug-1 bug

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3
Q

3 methods of antimicrobial suceptibility testing

A

broth microdilution
E-test
Kirby-bauer test (zone of inhibition)

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4
Q

who establishes the MIC breakpoints (reference values) for each organism to each antibiotic

A

CLSI (clinical laboratory standards institute)

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5
Q

organisms can be _____,_______, or ______ to the antibiotic

A

susceptible, intermediate, or resistant

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6
Q

what is the name of the cumulative antibiotic “report card” specific for each hospital

A

an antibiogram

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7
Q

an antibiogram is useful for deciding ______ antimicrobial therapy

A

empiric

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8
Q

in an antibiogram, if the antibiotic has a high value to the organism, is it good or bad?

A

GOOD

means that it works against the organism a high % of the time
(% susceptibility)

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9
Q

when staph epi comes back in the sample, what are some important considerations

A

-could be a contaminant

-may be actual infection tho - NEED TO SEE IF THEY HAVE RISK FACTORS (ie: IV drug user or use medical devices often)

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10
Q

gram negative rods, non lactose fermenting

A

pseudomonas

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11
Q

which class of antibiotics cover pseudomonas (aerobic gram negative) but do not penetrate the lungs well

A

aminoglycosides

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12
Q

is pipercillin-tazobactam a good empiric choice for pseudomonas

A

yes - but need to look at antibiogram to confirm

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13
Q

organism MIC is 2 and MIC susceptibility breakpoint, according to CLSI, is less than or equal to 1

does this mean the organism is susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic?

A

RESISTANT

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14
Q

MIC of organism is 4 and MIC susceptibility breakpoint is less than or equal to 4

is it susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic

A

technically susceptible, but not preferred to use because it’s just at the breakpoint

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15
Q

does cefepime penetrate into the lungs and can it be used for a respiatory infection

A

YES

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16
Q

true allergy, toxicity, or intolerance

diarrhea with doxycycline

A

intolerance

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17
Q

true allergy, toxicity, or intolerance

thrombocytopenia with linezolid

A

toxicity

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18
Q

true allergy, toxicity, or intolerance

SJS with bactrim

A

true allergy

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19
Q

true allergy, toxicity, or intolerance

nephrotoxicity with gentamicin

A

toxicity

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20
Q

true allergy, toxicity, or intolerance

hives and SOB with penicillin

A

true allergy

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21
Q

IGE mediated hypersensitivity reactions – what is onset time?
what is an example?

A

within 1 hour - SUPER QUICK

ex - anaphylaxis

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22
Q

around ______% of US pts report having pen allergy, but only ___% are truly allergic

A

10%, less than 1%

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23
Q

important consideration for someone that had an IGE-mediated pen allergy years ago

A

around 80% of pts with this allergy lose their sensitivity after 10 yrs!!!
decreases by 10% each year you avoid penicillin

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24
Q

cephalosporin cross reactivity with pen allergy is around ___%

which generations is it less common

A

3%

as you move up to 5th gen, cross reactivity rate keeps decreasing

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25
why are false pen allergies so detrimental
suboptimal treatment, more expensive, antiobitc resistance, unnecessary broadspectrum
26
most ab's are eliminated how?
renally
27
how is age a consideration when giving antibiotics
likely pathogen can differ based on age (ie - bacterial meningitis) ceftriaxone avoided in neonates bc of hyperbilirubinemia ability to eliminate certain drugs (ie over 65 = decline in renal function)
28
how can hepatic function be estimated
child pugh score
29
3 pregnancy and lactation concerns with antibiotics
teratogencity altered pharmacokinetics antibiotic conc in breast milk
30
name 3 drugs that can cause hemolytic anemia in patients with GDPDH deficiency
dapsone nitrofurantoin primaquine
31
how are pts with diabetes a special consideration when giving antibiotics
poor peripheral blood flow --- more difficult to treat
32
chronic lung disease, cystic firosis, and immunosuppressive diseases - how are they a consideration in antibiotic treatment
different pathogens immunosuppressed have higher risk of infection
33
concern with fluoroquinolones and antacids
they can chelate
34
how is rifampin a major concern with drug interactions
its a major CYP450 inducer
35
linezolid + _______ is a big DDI
SSRIs -- risk of serotonin syndrome
36
which 2 antibiotic classes have a side effect of QT prolongation
macrolides and quinolones
37
give an example of how dosing of aminoglycosides can differ based on the location of the infection
uncomplicated UTI vs severe infection aminoglycosides penetrate into the urine well -- dont need a veru high dose
38
differentiate between the ability of cefepime vs pipercillin-tazobactam to penetrate into the CNS
cefepime is much better pipercillin-tazobactam is too big
39
differentiate between the ability of colistin vs polymyxin B to get into the urine
polymyxin does not colistin is better
40
can we use daptomycin in pneumonia?? why or why not
NO it gets inactivated by the lung surfactants
41
first and second line for MRSA pneumonia
vancomycin 2nd line is linezolid DO NOT USE DAPTOMYCIN!!!!!!!!!! gets inactivated by lung surfactants
42
pt spent 14 days in the hospital what is 1 bacteria we definitely need to cover for and what are 2 choices
pseudomonas use pipercillin-tazobactam or cefepime
43
if a very severe infection, do we use IV or PO explain
we can start IV and then switch to PO once controlled
44
beta lactams use conc or time dependent killing
time dependent
45
differentiate between the dosing frequency of time dependent killing vs concentration dependent
time dependent - DOSED MORE FRWQUENTLY (like Q8 or Q6) conc dependent dosed less frequently
46
a very high MIC means more or less resistant
more resistant
47
name 2 antibiotic classes that use concentration dependent killing
aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones
48
how do we want the infusion of beta lactams to be and why
PROLONGED INFUSION of 304 hours over traditional 30mins- it's time dependent!! want to maximize duration that the pathogen is exposed to the beta lactam time over MIC - want maximal time
49
prolonged infusion of beta lactams is particularly beneficial in what 2 scenarios
crtically ill patients pathogens with high MIC
50
aminoglycosides are time or concentration dependent killing therefore, how are they administered
concentration at a HIGH DOSE once daily ie: gentamicin is 5-7mg/kg Q24H instead of 1-2mg/kg Q8H
51
aminoglycosides are conc dependent killing and thus give higher doses less frequently give specific EX with amikacin
15mg/kg Q24H instead of 7.5mg/kg Q12H
52
3 benefits of administering aminoglycosides Q24H instead of more frequently
easier to administer easier drug monitoring decreased nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides
53
give 2 secnarios when we may use combination therapy to broaden the spectrum of coverage
-mixed infection -nosocomial infection
54
3 ex when we may use combination antimicrobial therapy
-broaden spectrum -synergy -prevent resistance
55
give an example of combination therapy for enterococcal endocarditis
beta lactam + aminoglycoside gives more RAPID KILLING - SYNERGY
56
true or false combination antimicrobial therapy can be used to prevent resistance
true
57
4 disadvantages of combination antimicrobial therapy
-superinfection risk -toxicities -antagonist -cost
58
when monitoring the therapeutic response to antibiotics, _____________ improvement may lag
radiologic
59
do we repeat chest x rays to check for therapeutic response improvement
NO - only if pt not improving
60
give 2 ab's where we do therapeutic drug monitoring
vancomycin or aminoglycosides
61
4 scenarios when we can do IV-PO switch
-overall clinical improvement -no fever for 24 hrs -decreased WBC -functioning GI tract
62
true or false IV to PO switch does not decrease infection rates
FALSE - it does there's no open IV line
63
1st 2nd and 3rd line for HOSPITAL ACQUIRED MRSA also, name how they come which has interaction with statin and can increase CPK (creatinine phosphokinase)
vancomycin (IV and PO, but PO only for c diff) linezolid (PO and IV) daptomycin (NOT FOR LUNGS) (IV only) dapto
64
what is the ONLY cephalosporin with MRSA coverage
Ceftaroline (5th gen)
65
name 3 main ABs mainly used for community acquired MRSA (not hospital)
bactrim clindamycin doxycycline
66
does ceftaroline have pseudomonas coverage
NO has MRSA coverage tho
67
"cousin" of linezolid that has less thrombocytopenia issues and no DDI with SSRIs
tedizolid
68
2 "cousins" of vanco that are very long acting glycopeptides (1-2 weeks)
dalbavancin oritavancin
69
true or false tigecyciline does not have MRSA coverage
FALSE - it does
70
fluoroquinolone not really used but has MRSA coverage and pseudomonas coverage
delafloxacin
71
differentiate between intrinsic and acquired resistance and give ex
intrinsic - vanco has always and will always be ineffective against gram negative, cephalosporins will never work against enterococcus acquired - due to inappropriate abx use (ie: decreased permeability, efflux pump, drug inactivation, altered target)
72
drug of choice for MRSA and 3 alternatives
vancomycin daptomycin, linezolid, and ceftaroline
73
what is VRE and explain it what are drugs of choice
vancomycin resistant enterococcus altered target site D-alanyl-D-alanine switched to D-alanyl-D-lactate linezolid and daptomycin are drugs of choice
74
what are ESBLs and what are the drugs of choice
extended spectrum beta lactamases - they hydrolyze the beta lactam ring and inactivate most beta lactams (penicillin, cephalosporin, and monobactam) CARBAPENEMS are drug of choice
75
ESBLs are produced by gram positive or negative bacteria
NEGATIVE
76
what are CREs
carbapenem resistant enterobacterales produce carbapenamases that inhibit ALL BETA LACTAMS - INCLUDING CARBAPENEMS
77
drugs of choice for CREs
tailored to whatever is most susceptible, but there's polymyxin, ceftazidime/avibactam, meropenem/vaborbactam (newer beta lactams)
78
primary and secondary goal of antimicrobial stewardship
primary - optimize clinical outcomes while minimizing unintendend consequences (c diff diarrhea, resistance) secondary - decrease healthcare costs
79
antimicrobial stewardship was a mandate made by _______-
the joint commission
80