Therapeutics of HTN pt. 3 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEi) moa

A

Inhibits conversion for angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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2
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) moa

A

Block effects of angiotensin II by binding to target receptors

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3
Q

Renin inhibitors moa

A

Inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

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4
Q

What is ACEi

A

first line tx option for HTN

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5
Q

ACEi have additional benefit in pts with history of:

A

pts with DM w/ proteinuria, HF, post MI, CKD

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6
Q

what is the only ACEi that has frequency of 2 or 3 /day

A

Captopril

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7
Q

what is the ACEi that has frequency of 1 or 2 /day

A

Benazepril, Enalapril, Ramipril, Moexipril, Quinapril,

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8
Q

which ACE inhibitors have frequency of 1/day

A

Fosinopril, Lisinopril, Perindopril, Trandolapril

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9
Q

ACEi AEs

A

angioedema, cough (up to 20%), hyperkalemia, acute renal failure w/ severe bilateral renal artery stenosis

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10
Q

ACEi CIs

A
  • history of angioedema on an ACEi
  • concomitant use of aliskiren in pts w/ DM
  • pregnancy/breastfeeding
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11
Q

what is ARBs

A

first line tx option for HTN

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12
Q

when are ARBs used

A

often “back up” if an ACEi isn’t tolerated for other indications

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13
Q

why are ARBs often a back up to ACEi

A
  • doesn’t block bradykinin breakdown -> less cough than ACEi
  • can use with hx of angioedema due to ACEi
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14
Q

why are ARBs a good option for PM dosing

A

ensures BP dipping overnight

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15
Q

which are the only ARBs have a frequency of 1 or 2 /day

A

Eprosartan, Losartan

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16
Q

ARBs AEs

A

angioedema, hyperkalemia, acute renal failure w/ severe bilateral renal artery stenosis

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17
Q

ARBs CIs

A
  • history of angioedema on ARB
  • concomitant use of aliskiren in pts w/ DM
  • pregnancy/breastfeeding
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18
Q

ACEi/ARB monitoring

A
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19
Q

when should ACEi/ARBs doses be possibly held or reduced

A

if K >5.5 mEq/L or SCr increase >30%

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20
Q

what is the direct renin inhibitor agent

A

aliskiren

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21
Q

is aliskiren a first line tx option for HTN

A

No

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22
Q

why does aliskiren produce less cough than ACEi

A

doesn’t block bradykinin breakdown

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23
Q

aliskiren CIs

A
  • pregnant pts
  • concomitant use with an ACEi or ARB contraindicated in pts w/ DM
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24
Q

aliskiren frequency

A

1/day

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25
what labs should be monitored in pts using aliskiren
K, BUN, SCr
26
aliskiren AEs
diarrhea, musculoskeletal effects, dizziness, headache, hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, orthostatic hypotension
27
CCBs moa
Inhibit influx of calcium across cardiac and smooth muscle cell membranes -> coronary and peripheral vasodilation
28
CCBs subclasses and effects
- Dihydropyridines - more vasodilation - Nondihydropyridines - more negative ionotropic effects - Overall similar effect on BP
29
Are CCBs first line for HTN
Yes
30
what pt populations do dihydropyridine CCBs provide additional benefit
Pts with: - Reynaud's syndrome - elderly pts w/ isolated systolic HTN
31
what dihydropyridines should be avoided
short-acting (IR nifedipine/nicardipine)
32
how does dihydropyridine CCBs cause vasodilation
through baroreceptor-mediated tachycardia
33
what does dihydropyridine CCBs not have an effect on
no effect on atrioventricular node conduction
34
which dihydropyridine CCBs have a frequency of 2/day
Isradipine, Nicardipine SR
35
dihydropyridine CCBs AEs
reflex tachycardia, flushing, dizziness, headache, peripheral edema (dose related), gingival hyperplasia
36
dihydropyridine CCBs warning
increased risk of angina/MI in pts with obstructive coronary disease due to reflex tachycardia
37
dihydropyridine CCBs drug interactions
- grapefruit juice - CYP3A4 enzyme inducers/inhibitors
38
what pt populations do nondihydropyridine CCBs provide additional benefit
pts with: - supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (Afib) - pts w angina who can not tolerate a B blocker
39
why do nondihydropyridine CCBs have negative ionotropic effects
slows AV node conduction and decreases HR
40
what nondihydropyridine CCBs formulations are preferred for HTN
extended release formulations
41
what is frequency of nondihydropyridine CCBs
1 or 2 /day
42
what are the nondihydropyridine CCBs agents
Diltiazem ER, Verapamil ER
43
why are nondihydropyridine CCBs not interchangeable
due to differences in release mechanisms and bioavailability
44
nondihydropyridine CCBs AEs
bradycardia, headache, dizziness, AV node block, systolic HF, gingival hyperplasia, constipation (verapamil>diltiazem)
45
nondihydropyridine CCBs drug interactions
- concomitant use of B blockers - increases risk of heart block - grapefruit juice - CYP3A4 enzyme inducers/inhibitors
46
nondihydropyridine CCBs CIs
- heart block - left ventricular dysfunction
47
are routine lab monitoring required for CCBs
No
48
what CCB is preferred in the setting of HF
amlodipine
49
are B blockers first line for HTN
NOT first line unless a compelling indication is present
50
what pt populations get additional benefit from B blockers
Pts with: - tachyarrhythmias - tremors - migraines - thyrotoxicosis
51
what cardioselective B blocker has a frequency of 2/day
Metoprolol tartrate
52
what nonselective B blocker has a frequency of 2/day
Propranolol IR
53
what are the intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) B blockers
- Acebutolol (frequency of 2/day) - Penbutolol (frequency of 1/day) - Pindolol (frequency of 2/day)
54
what are the mixed alpha/beta B blockers
- Carvedilol (frequency of 2/day) - Labetalol (frequency of 2/day)
55
B blockers AEs
Bronchospasms, bradycardia, fatigue, exercise intolerance, depression
56
what is problem with B blockers
can mask signs/Sx of hypoglycemia
57
use B blockers with caution in pts with:
- peripheral artery disease - reactive airway disease
58
what B blocker is preferred in pts with peripheral artery disease
carvedilol
59
what B blocker is preferred in pts with reactive airway disease
selective B blockers
60
B blockers CIs
- second or third degree heart block - decompensated HF - post MI (ISA B blockers only) - severe bradycardia - sick sinus syndrome