therapy styles and stats Flashcards
memory (252 cards)
1
Q
Reality Therapy
A
system consists of four components: wants, doing, evaluation, and plan
2
Q
Elevated levels of dopamine
A
mesolimbic system -alcohol
3
Q
The validity of a criterion measure is affected by _______________ when a supervisor’s knowledge of an employee’s performance on the selection tests
A
criterion contamination
4
Q
practitioners of acceptance and commitment therapy, “dirty discomfort” is the result of:
A
unwillingness
assumption of acceptance and commitment therapy is that a natural level of physical or psychological discomfort (clean discomfort) combined with unwillingness results in suffering (dirty discomfort)
5
Q
concurrent validity study finds that a selection test has the same validity coefficient for men and women and that men and women obtained similar job performance scores
A
test unfairness
6
Q
When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a small heterotrait-monomethod coefficient provides evidence
A
divergent validity
measure’s construct validity is demonstrated when the measure has adequate levels of both divergent and convergent
7
Q
WAIS-IV’s Global Ability Index (GAI) is based on subtests for which of the following Indexes
A
Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
useful when an examiner wants to obtain a measure of general intelligence that’s not affected by processing speed or working memory, which are both sensitive to the effects of brain injury and age.
8
Q
test developer is calculating a test’s __________ when she divides the number of true positives identified by the test by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
A
sensitivity
Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disorder who are identified by a test as having the disorder. It’s calculated by dividing the true positives identified by the test by the true positives plus the false negatives (TP/TP + FN).
9
Q
Helms
A
J. E. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six identity statuses, and each status is characterized by a different information processing strategy (IPS). Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence contact disintegraton reintegration Pseudoindependence immersion/emersion Autonomy
10
Q
gambler who regularly shakes or blows on the dice while playing craps is exhibiting which of the following
A
illusory control
Gamblers may exhibit a number of cognitive biases and distortions including the gambler’s fallacy and illusory control. The gambler’s fallacy is the belief that the likelihood that a chance event will occur is affected by how often it has or has not occurred in the past. Illusory control is the belief that certain superstitious objects or rituals (e.g., blowing on dice) can alter outcomes, especially outcomes that are random or due to chance.
11
Q
According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, __________ appraisal occurs when a person determines what resources he or she has to cope with a stressful event.
A
Secondary
Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, determining if it’s nonstressful or stressful. If the event is stressful, the person then engages in secondary appraisal, which involves determining what personal and environmental resources he/she has to help cope with the event.
12
Q
Which of the following illustrates the actor-observer bias?
A
friend tends to attribute his own behaviors to situational factors but the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors.
The actor-observer bias is an attributional bias and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors and the behavior of other people to dispositional (internal) factors
13
Q
In a normal distribution, which of the following represents the highest score?
A
T Score=65
a normal distribution, a stanine score of 5 is equivalent to raw scores that equal the mean or are slightly above or below the mean, a z-score of 1.0 and a percentile rank of 84 are equivalent to the raw score that is one standard deviation above the mean, and a T-score of 65 is equivalent to the raw score that is one and one-half standard deviations above the mean.
14
Q
Premature birth
A
before 37 weeks of pregnancy
15
Q
Females missing part x chromosome
A
Turner syndrome
16
Q
Fiedler’s contingency model proposes that the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following?
A
the leader’s position power, the nature of the relationships between the leader and the employees, and the task structure
17
Q
Positive practice is most similar to which of the following?
A
Habit reversal training
18
Q
95% confidence level
A
To construct a 95% confidence interval, two standard errors of measurement are added and subtracted from the examinee’s obtained score.
19
Q
schizoaffective disorder if he has also experienced:
A
concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the duration of the disorder except for at least two weeks when delusions and hallucinations were present without mood episodes.
20
Q
The negative-state relief model attributes helping behaviors to:
A
egoistic concerns.
According to this model, people may feel empathy for a person-in-need, but their empathy produces sadness or guilt, which they attempt to alleviate by providing help. In other words, people engage in helping behaviors to help themselves
21
Q
Myers-Briggs Type
A
based on jung
22
Q
Kohlbergs gender identity model
A
final stage gender consistancy
Kohlberg’s three stages, in order, are gender identity (the child labels him/herself as a boy or girl), gender stability (the child recognizes that gender is stable over time), and gender constancy (the child recognizes that gender is stable across situations)
23
Q
Conduction aphasia involves:
A
fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming.
Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Wernicke’s area with Broca’s area and produces the symptoms listed in this answer.
24
Q
one of the techniques not used by structural family therapists to facilitate joining?
A
enactment
The primary joining techniques are maintenance, mimesis, and tracking. Enactment is a structural family therapy technique, but it’s used to assess and modify the family structure rather than to facilitate joining.
25
Ridley’s (1984) concept of “healthy cultural paranoia” i
why a Black therapy client resists disclosing personal information to a White therapist.
Ridley proposed that the unwillingness of Black therapy clients to disclose personal information to a White therapist is an adaptive coping mechanism (“healthy cultural paranoia”) when it’s due to cultural distrust that’s based on past experiences with prejudice and discrimination
26
You would use Raven’s Coloured Progressive Matrices to assess:
the nonverbal intelligence of a 7-year-old child with limited English skills.
The Coloured Progressive Matrices is a version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices for children ages 5 to 11, older adults, and individuals with mental or physical impairments. Like the other versions, it assesses nonverbal intelligence and, because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed if necessary, it’s useful for individuals who are hearing-impaired or non-English speakers.
27
orthogonal” means:
uncorrelated
28
oblique
correlated
29
transtheoretical model, which of the following accurately matches a stage of change with an optimal process of change?
maintenance: counterconditioning
The transtheoretical model is based on the assumptions that change occurs in stages and, to help clients progress to the next stage, interventions must match their current stage. According to this model, consciousness raising is an optimal strategy for clients in the precontemplation stage, self-reevaluation is optimal for clients in the contemplation stage, self-liberation is optimal for clients in the preparation stage, and counterconditioning is optimal for clients in the action or maintenance stage. See, e.g., J. O Prochaska and C. DiClemente,
30
The presence of which of the following core and suggestive features would help confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies?
visual hallucinations and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder
The DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies requires that (a) the patient meet the criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder, (b) the patient’s symptoms had an insidious onset and gradual progression, and (c) the patient’s symptoms include at least two core features or one core feature and one suggestive feature. Visual hallucinations are a core feature and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder is a suggestive feature. Absence seizures are not a core or suggestive feature of this disorder.
31
Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Functioning Scale.
Ratings on the Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Functioning Scale range from Level I to Level VIII. A patient who receives a rating of Level V (Confused – Inappropriate Response) is confused but nonagitated, responds to simple commands, gives random or fragmented responses to complex stimuli, has impaired memory and selective attention, and is unable to retain new information.
```
Level I: No Response
Level II: Generalized Response
Level III: Localized Response
Level IV: Confused-agitated
Level V: Confused-inappropriate
Level VI: Confused-appropriate
Level VII: Automatic-appropriate
Level VIII: Purposeful-appropria
```
32
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development
three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. The judgments of people in the conventional level are based on conventional standards of what is right and wrong, and, in the first stage of this level, judgments are based on social expectations (e.g., what a good husband would do).
33
Piagets stages
Piaget's four stages
Stage Age Goal
Sensorimotor Birth to 18–24 months old Object permanence
Preoperational 2 to 7 years old Symbolic thought
Concrete operational 7 to 11 years old Operational thought
Formal operational Adolescence to adulthood Abstract concepts
34
Ericksons stages
Freud
1. Trust vs. Mistrust Hope 0 - 1½ oral
2. Autonomy vs. Shame Will 1½ - 3 anal
3. Initiative vs. Guilt Purpose 3 - 5 phalic
4. Industry vs. Inferiority Competency 5 - 12
5. Identity vs. Role Confusion Fidelity 12 - 18 genital
6. Intimacy vs. Isolation Love 18 - 40
7. Generativity vs. Stagnation Care 40 - 65
8. Ego Integrity vs. Despair Wisdom 65+
35
career concept model
Driver and Brousseau’s
Driver and Brousseau’s career concept model distinguishes between four career concepts (linear, expert, spiral, and transitory) that differ in terms of the factors listed in this question.
36
interpersonal therapy (IPT)
encourages a new client who is depressed to adopt the “sick role
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is based on the medical model and views depression as an illness. Consistent with this view, practitioners of IPT believe that assigning the “sick role” to patients is beneficial because it allows patients to be ill without blaming themselves for their symptoms and to view their illnesses as treatable.
37
The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the Y (vertical) axis provides information about which of the following?
the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing
38
The most likely diagnosis for your new client is schizotypal personality disorder if the client:
says he’d like to have friends but he’s very uncomfortable around people and he seems uninterested in taking steps to develop friendships
people with schizotypal personality disorder have a “pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by cognitive distortions and eccentricities of behavior” (p. 655). The DSM-5 also notes that people with this disorder may express unhappiness about not having friends but their behavior indicates a lack of interest in developing friendships.
39
mixed design
A mixed design is being used when a study has at least two independent variables and one variable is a between groups variable and the other is a within subjects variable
40
diagnostic criteria for a DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder, the client’s aggressive outbursts must have occurred, on average, at least _____ weekly for at least _____ months.
twice weekly for at least 3 months
41
insomma
stimulus control
42
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has an:
insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease
43
Howard
75% improvement by 26 sessions
| 10% by 52 sessions
44
Glasser's therapy
source of human motivation is basic innate needs
five basic innate needs act as the primary sources of motivation: survival, freedom, love and belonging, power, and fun.
45
Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model describes working memory
working memory aspect of short-term memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer.
46
Degree of association
point biserial correlation coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. High school diploma (yes or no) is a true dichotomy and yearly income in dollars is measured on a continuous scale.
47
Data driven processing
Bottom up
Bottom-up processing is data driven (driven by information), while top-down processing is concept-driven. In terms of perception, bottom-up processing begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored. In contrast, top-down processing begins with the brain’s use of preexisting knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information.
48
McGuire’s (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis addresses the usefulness of __________ for increasing resistance to persuasion
a refutational defense
McGuire’s attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.
49
A Cohen’s d of .60 indicates a _________, and it’s interpreted in terms of __________.
medium effect; standard deviation units
Cohen’s d is an effect size that indicates how the means of two groups differ in terms of standard deviation units. A d of .60 indicates a medium effect.
d of .20 is small
d of .50 medium
d of .80 is large
50
The manual for a test of fluid intelligence reports that, for the standardization sample, Cronbach’s alpha was .93. This suggests that the test has adequate:
internal consistency reliability.
a measure of internal consistency, that is, how closely related a set of items are as a group. It is considered to be a measure of scale reliability.
51
Cognitive processing therapy (CPT) is a research supported treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder that combines which of the following?
challenging problematic cognitions related to the trauma and writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma
52
Multicollinearity occurs when:
scores on one or more explanatory (predictor) variables are highly correlated with scores on one or more of the other explanatory (predictor) variables
53
The size of the standard error of the mean increases as:
the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases.
54
multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) to analyze the data she has collected to:
simultaneously analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables.
55
Changing alpha from .01 to .05 has which of the following effects?
It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
56
Which of the following tests is best described as a measure of response inhibition?
Stroop Color-Word Association Test
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test presents an examinee with a list of color names that are printed in a different color ink (e.g., the word “green” might be printed in red ink). The examinee is asked to state the color of the ink rather than read the word. Because the prepotent response is to read the word, the examinee has to suppress (inhibit) the prepotent response in order to do so.
57
Research suggests that ____________ is most useful for understanding the “testing effect.”
the mediator effectiveness hypothesis
The “testing effect” is the increased ability to remember information when learning not only includes studying but also repeated opportunities to retrieve the information.
58
A structural family therapist is using which of the following techniques when he listens attentively to a family’s communications and then adopts the content of their communications to facilitate his ability to join the family and foster changes in the family structure.
tracking
Tracking involves adopting the content of a family’s communications; mimesis involves adopting the family’s communication, affective, and behavioral style; and maintenance involves providing the family with support.
59
Hans Selye general adaption syndrome
Selye’s general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. During the initial alarm reaction stage, the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) which, in turn, stimulates the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine and norepinephrine and the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. These hormones cause physical changes that provide the body with the energy it needs to respond to the stressor with a fight-or-flight reaction.
60
Broca's aphasia
a type of aphasia characterized by partial loss of the ability to produce language (spoken, manual, or written), although comprehension generally remains intact
61
Wernicke's aphasia
also known as receptive aphasia, sensory aphasia, or posterior aphasia, is a type of aphasia in which individuals have difficulty understanding written and spoken language.
62
proactive interference
Proactive interference occurs when prior learning (e.g., Spanish) interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information (e.g., French).
63
a parataxic distortion
As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.
64
multiple baseline
Of the three single-subject designs listed in the answers (multiple baseline, reversal, and discrete trials), the multiple baseline design would be the most appropriate because it would allow the researcher to determine if the treatment is effective for any of the woman’s phobias by sequentially applying the treatment to them. In addition, the multiple baseline design doesn’t require a treatment to be withdrawn once it’s been applied to a behavior. Consequently, if the treatment has a beneficial effect on any of the woman’s phobias, the researcher would not have to withdraw the treatment during the course of the study just for the sake of assessing its effects.
65
A division of labor and a hierarchy of authority are defining characteristics of which of the following organizational theories?
Weber’s bureaucracy
66
Which of the following is a culture-reduced measure of fluid intelligence
Raven’s Progressive Matrices
The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) tests are measures of fluid intelligence and are considered to be culture-reduced because they do not use language and performance does not depend on specific cultural or academic learning
67
positioning
When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.
68
When using the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) as a screening tool for cognitive impairment in older adults, it’s important to keep in mind that use of the standard cutoff score for African American and Latino patients may result in too many ____________ and that __________ the cutoff score for these individuals reduces this problem.
false positives; lowering
69
In a research paper, you are writing about the score that divides the normal curve into nine unequal parts. What title do you give to this discussion?
Stanines divide the normal curve into nine unequal parts
70
You are using a model that argues that emphasizes the combination of nature and nurture to produce abnormality. What kind of model are you using?
C. Diathesis-Stress Model
71
You are telling your students about the theorist who first developed a scale technique to measure attitude. Who are you telling them about?
Thurstone
72
You are telling your students about the theorist who places human development into three major body types. Who are you telling them about?
Sheldon
73
You are telling your students about the researcher who studied the cross-cultural facial expressions of emotions. Who are you discussing?
Ekman
74
You are telling your students about a researcher who induced learned helplessness in dogs. They want to know his name. How do you answer?
Martin Seligman
75
You are telling your students about the theorist who is associated with the study of attitude changes. Who are you telling them about?
Festinger
76
Beck’s Cognitive-Behavior Therapy
depression consists of negative beliefs about oneself,
Automatic thoughts are verbal self-statements or mental images that “come to mind spontaneously when triggered by circumstances
Cognitive distortions are systematic errors in reasoning that often affect thinking when a stressful situation triggers a dysfunctional schema
The primary goals of CBT are “to correct faulty information processing and to help patients modify assumptions that maintain maladaptive behaviors and emotions
77
Ellis Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy
attributes psychological disturbances to irrational beliefs,
78
Meichenbaum-Instructional Training: Self-instructional training
developed to teach problem-solving skills to children with high levels of impulsivity
79
Stress Inoculation Training: Meichenbaum
focuses on improving the ability of clients to deal better with ongoing and future stressful situations
80
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy:
Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) is based on the assumptions that “psychological pain is both universal and normal and is part of what makes us human
81
Mindfulness-Based Interventions
moment-to-moment awareness of one’s experience without judgment”
82
Caplan’s Model:
three types of prevention: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
83
When using the method of loci:
each word in a list is visually linked to a familiar site or object.
84
The Position Analysis Questionnaire is:
a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs.
85
Nystagmus
is one of the diagnostic criteria for alcohol intoxication
| Eyes making repetitive uncontrolled movements.
86
Simons bounded rationality model
proposes that rational decision-making is limited by time restrictions, insufficient information, and the cognitive limitations of the decisions makers
87
Becks cognitive therapy
uses Socratic questioning.
88
The standard error of the mean decreases in magnitude as the
population standard deviation decreases and sample size increases.
89
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, a worker’s job satisfaction is determined by the correspondence between the worker’s:
needs and the reinforcers provided by the job
90
Electrical stimulation of certain areas of the _________ elicits responses associated with conditioned fear such as freezing, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and release of stress hormones.
amygdala
91
When a test’s communality is .40,
this means that the identified factors explain 40% of the variability in test scores
92
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) is an evidence-based treatment that was initially designed for:
children and adolescents ages 3 to 18 years who have experienced sexual abuse.
93
Which of the following is true about the inheritance of an X-linked trait?
A male expresses the trait whether it’s due to a recessive or a dominant allele.
94
As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a 48-year-old man exhibits a number of changes in personality and behavior, including mood lability, impulsivity, poor social judgment, a lack of empathy, and poor insight into his own behavior. These symptoms are most suggestive of damage to the __________ region of the prefrontal cortex
Orbitofrontal
95
assessing the cognitive abilities of a 7-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder and has limited language abilities?
Leiter-3
96
When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a small monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates that the test:
lacks adequate convergent validity.
97
lacks adequate convergent validity.
temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training
98
Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for developing tardive dyskinesia as the result of taking an antipsychotic drug as a treatment for schizophrenia?
70 year old women.
99
Allostasis
refers to the body’s ability to adapt to stress and achieve a state of stability through a process of change
100
CBT
Bulimia Nervosa
101
initial phase of stress inoculation training?
helping the client recognize that performance failures are due to skill deficits
102
As predicted by the transtheoretical model, which of the following interventions is likely to be least useful for clients in the contemplation stage.
self liberation
103
According to the DSM-5, which of the following share several characteristics including impulsivity, manipulativeness, seductiveness, and superficiality?
antisocial and histrionic personality disorders
104
The main goal of frame-of-reference training is to:
help raters to distinguish different levels of employee performance.
105
The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s
incremental validity.
106
Depth perception depends on monocular and binocular cues. Which of the following is a binocular cue
convergence
107
Changing alpha from .01 to .05 has which of the following effects
It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false
108
reality therapy
wants and desires
109
Attention can be described as all except which of the following?
perception
110
What is the theory that helps explain the relationship of facilitative and inhibitory mechanisms at work in the brain?
Attentional load theory
111
Consensus information, distinctiveness information, and consistency information all assess what?
Covariation of behavior
112
Which theory states that when a relationship's rewards exceed its costs and the rewards and costs are reciprocal, attraction occurs
social exchange theory
113
Which of the following best defines altruism?
The motivation to increase others welfare
114
What are the four mating strategies described by Schmitt (2005)
Monogamous, polgymous, polyandrous and short term
115
Declarative and nondeclarative are two categories of what?
long term memory.
116
Which of the following models of information processing included three levels
modal
117
Which of the following models is the dominant approach in the field of current psychological development
interactional model
118
The dynamic systems theory states that an integrated system composed of what components guides mastery of new skills?
mind body and physical and social worlds.
119
according to the dynamic systems theory, development is viewed as which of the following
Nonlinear
120
Spina bifida is one possible birth defect that can occur due to the following
malnutrition in pregnancy
121
The use of behavioral assessment in conjunction with what other tool can provide a good source of information about an examinee
direct observation
122
Which of the following models proposes that there are two types of intelligence: fluid and crystallized?
Cattell-horn model
123
The Woodcock-Johnson III Normative Update is primarily used in what type of setting?
Educational
124
General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Personal Style Scales, and Occupational Scales are all included on what vocational assessment tool?
Strong interest inventory
125
Which of the following vocational measures was the most recently developed?
The Cambell interest and skill survey
126
Which of the following has been shown to reduce the overall financial cost of mental illness in communities?
psychotherapy
127
What type of therapy focuses on the treatment of the whole personality rather than the symptom alone?
analytical psychotherapy jung the individual psyche and personal quest for wholeness
128
According to the DSM-5, what is the twelve-month prevalence rate of major depressive disorder in the United States?
7%
129
Dialectical behavior therapy
Most often used to treat borderline personality disorder.
130
Which of the following types of therapy involves conceptualizing a client's "quality world"?
Reality therapy
131
Which of the following types of therapy involves conceptualizing a client's "quality world"?
Constructivist
132
Which of the following could be a threat to internal validity?
Spurious causes
133
Doing good and avoiding harm are also known as what?
Respect for peoples rights and dignity
134
When researchers are trying to determine the reliability of a measure over time, they might use which reliability?
Test-retest
135
What is one advantage of conducting statistical analyses on latent variables?
The statistical power increases.
136
Which of the following statements is most true about the relationship between parametric and nonparametric statistics?
Parametric statistics make more distributional assumptions than nonparametric statistics
comparing variables with normal distribution.
137
What does the Pearson product-moment correlation measure?
Linear association between two variables. Think scatter spots around the linear graph line
138
Which principle calls for people to be treated fairly and similarly?
Justice
139
According to the work of Carl Rogers, personality disorders can sometimes be caused by:
inflectable perceptions and rigid over generalizations of experiences.
140
Which of the following is an example of crystallized intelligence?
vocabulary.
141
Watson showed that phobias often develop as a result of:
Classical conditioning
142
A patient enters the emergency room with head trauma after falling onto concrete off a high wall. What imaging test is most likely to be recommended right away
CT scan
143
Chi-square
Are variables independent
P values tells you that
p
144
unpaired T-test
do two independent sample means differ significantly
college attended
City they grew up in
145
Paired t-test
two dependent sample means differ significantly.
| ex: pre test post test
146
one way anova
comparing two or more group means on a continuous dependent variable.
College graduate harvard
College graduate Arizonza State
comparing salary
147
Mean
the average value in a number set
148
Standard deviation
The average distance of the data from the average.
149
Mode
The most occurring number
150
medium
most frequent score
151
When an examinee’s scores on the L, F, and K scales of the MMPI-2 assume a V-shape with a low score on the F scale and high scores on the L and K scales, this suggests which of the following
The examinee attempted to make a favorable impression
| Faking good.
152
When designing a training program, providing “identical elements” is most important for
ensuring transfer of training
153
Gerald, age 39, knows he shouldn’t be so jealous and resentful of his younger sister because of her recent success in business, so he goes out of his way to praise her accomplishments and encourage her continued success. Gerald’s behavior best illustrates which of the following?
reaction formation.
154
. two-factor theory
Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate
155
contralateral neglect
which is also known as hemispatial neglect and is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder is unaware of areas and objects on the side of his/her body opposite to the location of the damage.
156
Tiedeman’s career decision-making model links vocational identity development to
Ego Identity development
157
Mowrer’s (1960) two-factor theory of learning is most useful for understanding which of the following
Avoidance conditioning
158
An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that
leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates
159
Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures:
less susceptible to rater biases.
160
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with
a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
161
The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following
. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work
162
selection test’s criterion-related validity
is important when scores on the test (the predictor) will be used to estimate or predict scores on a measure of performance (the criterion). There are two types of criterion-related validity: Concurrent validity is most important when the selection test will be used to estimate an applicant’s current status on the criterion, while predictive validity is most important when the selection test will be used to predict future status on the criterion
163
The adoption of “colorism” – or the association of a light skin tone with higher status and greater beauty – by some African Americans is an example of
internalized racism
164
Changing alpha (the level of significance) from .05 to .10:
increases the probability of making Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.
165
Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training
It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.
166
MMPI-II objective.
v=attempting to look good (faking Good)
inverted v is faking bad
Lie K-original validity scale and Frequency
167
PAI
Personality Assessment inventory-objective
168
The Solomon four-group design is used to control which of the following threats to a study’s internal validity
pretest sensitization
169
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Kluver Bucy syndrome
putting objects in mouth
inappropriate sexual behavior
loss of fear
angry responses
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C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes
170
Collaborative empiricism” best describes the therapeutic relationship in:
Becks cognitive behavioral therapy
171
B. Wolfgang Kohler
learning from insight
172
solution focused therapy
miracle question
173
Eta
Eta squared shows the amount of variance in the
| Sample
174
Omega squared
the amount of variance in the populaton
175
ETA squared
described the amount of variance in the sample
176
sues racial identity model
Conformity preference dominate culture
Dissonance denial of ones culture
resistance and immersion endorsment of minority held views
introspection understanding self as a minority
integrative awareness accepting positive aspects of minority and dominant culture.
177
Cross's black racial identity model
Pre encounter idealize white culture
encounter questioning white and black culture
immersion emersion reject white culture
internalization positive black identity with toleration for other cultures
internalization commitment Internalized Black identity and commitment social activism.
178
Three point code on MMPI known as psychotic valley
elevated scores on 6 and 8 scales lower score on 7
179
psychology pathology MMPI
High F low VRIN
180
16PF
important personality traits encoded in language.
181
EPPS
assesses 15 needs
182
TAT
making up stories about pictures id hero
183
Spearman two factor theory
general intellectual ability
184
Horn and Cattell's
Crystallized and fluid intelligence
185
Pass theory of intelligence
Intelligence based on four factors: planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing
186
Stanford Binet
Ages 2 to 85 Fluid reasoning, Knowledge, Quanititative reasoning, Visual spatial reasoning, working memory.
187
WAIS-IV
intelligence 16 to 90
188
WAIS-IV
Scores Low HI
Alzheimer’s processing Speed PSI Verbal comprehension VCI
MDD PSi VCI
TBI PSI VCI
ADHD PSI VCI
Autistic disorder PSI PRI Perceptual reasoning
Mild Cognative impairment PRI VCI
189
WAIS kids
2.6 yrs to 7.7 years
190
The results of which of the following can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities
KABC-II
191
To evaluate the general mental ability of job applicants to assist with hiring decisions, you would use which of the following
WPT-R
| Wonderlic personality test 12 minute test for hiring decisions.
192
Which of the following evaluates the selective attention and recognition memory of infants three to 12 months of age
Fagan Test
| Evaluates infants selective attention and recognition memory
193
The __________ is a measure of receptive vocabulary that can be used with children, adolescents, and adults who have motor or speech impairments.
PPVT-4
| is a measure of receptive vocabulary for individuals 2:6 to 90+ years of age does not require reading or writing.
194
T-test
is there a significant difference between two groups.
195
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
used to help determine the severity and nature of brain damage
ranges from 0 to 1.0, with a score of 0 to 0.2 indicating normal functioning, 0.3 to 0.4 indicating mild impairment, 0.5 to 0.7 indicating moderate impairment, and 0.8 to 1.0 indicating severe impairment.
196
. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery
used to evaluate neuropsychological functioning
3 point scale
0-1 normal
2 impaired performance
197
Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
a brief measure of visual-motor perception and integration for individuals 4 to 85 years
198
Benton Visual Retention Test
used to assess visual perception, visual memory, and visuo-constructive skills for individuals 8 years of age and older
199
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST):
measures executive functioning
200
Tower of London
Evaluates frontal lobe functioning ages 7-80
201
Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE)
screen for neurocognitive disorder in older adults
maximum score 30
24 cutoff
below 24 cognitive impairment
202
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Score range 3-15
<8 coma and severe injury
9-12 moderate injury
13-15 mild injury
203
Beck Depression Inventory-
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Score 0-63
0-13 minimal depression
14-19 mild depression
20-28 moderate depression
29-63 severe depression
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204
Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales
used to assess the adaptive functioning of individuals from birth to 90 years of age
205
elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2
faking good conversion disorder
206
Moderator and Mediator Variables
moderator variable affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables
mediator variable explains the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
207
Leptokurtic and Platykurtic Distributions:
leptokurtic distribution has a sharper peak and flatter tails than a normal distribution (i.e., most scores are “piled up” in the middle of the distribution).
a platykurtic distribution is flatter in the middle and has thicker tails than a normal distribution (i.e., scores are more evenly distributed throughout the distribution).
208
When an occupational interest test provides ipsative scores, this means that an examinee’s scores indicate
the relative strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.
209
The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of
general mental ability
210
Before adding a new selection test to the procedure that’s currently being used to make hiring decisions, you would want to make sure that adding the test will increase decision-making accuracy. In other words, you’d want to make sure the new selection test has adequate
incremental validity
refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that will occur when a new predictor (e.g., a selection test) is added to the current procedure for making hiring or other types of decisions.
211
The development of which of the following tests was based on Murray’s personality theory
Thematic Apperception Test
212
The ____________ is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and provides scores on five factors derived from that model: knowledge, fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory
SB5
213
When using the _____________ heuristic, people judge the likelihood of an event based on the extent to which it resembles a prototype
representativeness
214
Practitioners of acceptance and commitment therapy:
teach clients mindfulness techniques that help them perceive symptoms as uncomfortable or harmless transient psychological events
215
In the context of research design, external validity refers to
generalizability
216
reliability
consistency
217
A researcher conducts a study to compare four different diet programs on weight loss for individuals who have either high, moderate, or low self-esteem. The statistical analysis of the data he collects indicates that there are statistically significant main and interaction effects. This means that
. interpreting the main effects without considering the interaction can lead to erroneous conclusions
218
Parametric statistical tests are more “powerful” than nonparametric tests which means that, when using a parametric test, you’re more likely to
. reject a false null hypothesis.
219
Following removal of his medial temporal lobes to treat severe epilepsy, the patient known as H. M. experienced which of the following
an inability to form new long-term declarative memories
220
According to Alfred Adler, which of the following is the major determinant of whether a person has a healthy or mistaken style of life
social interest
221
When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate a test’s validity, the matrix provides evidence of the test’s __________ validity when scores on the test have high correlations with scores on other tests that measure the same or a related construct
convergent validity
The multitrait-multimethod matrix provides information on a test’s convergent and divergent validity which, in turn provide information on the test’s construct validity. A test has convergent validity when it has high correlations with tests that measure the same or a related construct, and it has divergent validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure an unrelated construct
222
A problem with the paired comparison method of performance assessment is that
is time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.
223
A White adult in Helms’s __________ stage of White identity development recognizes his/her own racist views and justifies them by adopting beliefs that support White superiority and minority inferiority
reintegration
224
To evaluate the inter-rater reliability of a test when scores or ratings on the test represent a nominal scale of measurement, you would use which of the following
kappa coefficient
225
A newly promoted manager tells you that most of the employees he manages have high levels of motivation but limited skills, and he asks your advice about the best management style in this situation. As an advocate of ______________, you recommend that he adopt a selling leadership style
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory
226
Which of the following is true about obsessive-compulsive disorder
The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder
227
The self-serving bias is the tendency to
attribute our successes to dispositional factors and our failures to situational factors
228
Practitioners of __________ view depression as being the result of unresolved grief, interpersonal deficits, role disputes, or role transitions
. interpersonal therapy
229
As described by Carl Jung, ____________ involves bringing aspects of the personal and collective unconscious into consciousness
individuation
230
Which of the following terms is used to describe the tendency of children and adolescents to seek experiences that reinforce their genetic predispositions?
niche-picking
231
Tajfel and Turner’s (1986) social identity theory proposes that prejudice and discrimination are attributable to
a natural tendency to categorize people into groups
232
Individuals with Wernicke’s aphasia have
impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning
233
Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy is based on the premise that ____________ leads to the development of a failure identity
. irresponsible behavior
234
An advantage of the multiple baseline across behaviors design over the ABAB design is that
doesn’t require the researcher to withdraw a treatment from a behavior during the course of the study once it’s been applied to that behavior
235
Like the AB single-subject design, the __________ group design involves measuring the dependent variable measure multiple times before and after applying the independent variable
Time-series
236
A psychologist conducts a study to evaluate the effects of type of workshop (face-to-face and online) and level of motivation (high, average, and low) on mock EPPP scores. The results indicate that there are statistically significant main effects of both independent variables and a statistically significant interaction. When interpreting these results, the psychologist will conclude which of the following?
. The most effective type of workshop depends on the person’s level of motivation
237
Pearson r
variables are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale and the relationship between the variables is linear.
238
The Spearman rho
is used when data on both variables are reported as ranks.
239
) The point biserial correlation coefficient
is used when one variable is continuous and the other is dichotomized.
240
Contingency correlation
is used when both variables on measured on a nominal scale.
241
Coefficient of determination
degree of association between predictor and criterion
242
regression analysis
predicting a persons criterion score from their obtained predictor score
243
Eta alternative
for the Pearson r for calculating the correlation between two continuous variables when the variables have a nonlinear relationship
244
Nonparametric tests
analyze nominal and ordinal data and include the chi-square test
245
parametric tests
analyze interval and ratio data and include the t-test and analysis of variance.
246
Chi-Square Test:
chi-square test is used when the data to be analyzed are nominal data
247
single-sample (single-variable) chi-square
used to analyze data from a descriptive study that includes only one variable,
248
multiple-sample (multiple-variable) chi-square
used to analyze data from (a) a descriptive study that has two or more variables that can’t be identified as independent or dependent variables
249
t-test for a single sample
used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean.
250
t-test for unrelated samples
used to compare the means obtained by two groups when subjects in the groups are unrelated
251
Antipsychotics used to treat bipolar disorder include
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:
aripiprazole (Abilify)
asenapine (Saphris)
cariprazine (Vraylar)
clozapine (Clozaril)
lurasidone (Latuda)
olanzapine (Zyprexa)
quetiapine (Seroquel)
risperidone (Risperdal)
```
252
Commonly Prescribed Typical and Atypical Antipsychotic Medications
```
Haldol (haloperidol)
Loxitane (loxapine)
Mellaril (thioridazine)
Moban (molindone)
Navane (thiothixene)
Prolixin (fluphenazine)
Serentil (mesoridazine)
Stelazine (trifluoperazine)
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