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Third Pretest Flashcards

(108 cards)

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1
Q

Restrict access to National Crime Information Center Data as

A

FOUO Law enforcement sensitive

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2
Q

You must complete phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I

A

60

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3
Q

Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your AF specialty code

A

Ancillary

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4
Q

Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge skills and abilities not routinely acquired during occupational an/or other ancillary training venues are called

A

Expeditionary skills training

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5
Q

You must complete live fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon

A

Five to seven

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6
Q

Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/evil program

A

Sf manager

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7
Q

A Stan/eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every

A

12 months

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8
Q

Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation

A

Critical

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9
Q

The purpose of flight level exercises for sf members is

A

Help them stay sharp and put their training into practice

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10
Q

What information should leadership brief all personnel before conducting any exercise

A

Weapon vehicle ground safety

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11
Q

What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis

A

AF Form 629

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12
Q

What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis

A

AF Form 1297

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13
Q

What should SF members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers

A

Geography of the base

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14
Q

What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols security patrols and fixed patrols use

A

Mobile two way radio

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15
Q

What is the purpose of call signs

A

To simplify clarify and make communications more protected

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16
Q

Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the

A

Major command

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17
Q

Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms

A

MAJCOM/DET

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18
Q

Conducting building checks is an excellent form of

A

Proactive crime prevention

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19
Q

When conducting a building check what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry

A

Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building

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20
Q

What is your first responsibility when assuming your posts as an installation access controller

A

Conduct a post changeover

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21
Q

Which is not a required piece of equipment for sf personnel

A

Commercial radio

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22
Q

Which confinement facility or joint regional correctional facility is used to House all male confines with sentences over 10 years

A

Level 2 CF

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23
Q

Which US military service is executive agency Level III corrections

A

Army

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24
Q

The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confines is the operational responsibility of the

A

installation commander and defense force commander

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25
Individuals awaiting the filing of charges disposition of charges trial by courts martial or trial by foreign court at designated as
Pretrial detainees
26
Which custody classification is assigned to confines who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervison
Medium
27
What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities
Complete and modest frisks
28
Which of the following is not a purpose behind security management and automation resource tracking network
Increase computer usage
29
What office is responsible for the management program development and publication of electronic tactics techniques and procedures guides
AFSFC
30
What S function idea electronic tactics techniques and procedures guides to train you and your fellow squadron members
S3
31
DBIDS is capable of reading all of the following forms except
State IDs
32
Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained
Installation defense force commander
33
SFMIS users report information only to those with
A valid need to know
34
NCIC training must meet
State and FBI requirements
35
What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening
Point detection
36
Who can make a judgement on the reliability of each individual indentified for personnel reliability program duties
Certifying official
37
What are two types of removal within personnel reliability program
Suspension and decertification
38
What type of nuclear inspection assesses a units ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and procedure reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives
Nuclear surety inspection NSI
39
Which term defines a designated are immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems
Exclusion area
40
What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood
Greater community voice in setting police priorities
41
Which crime prevention program allows some people to report their observations to police only when they can remain anonymous
Operation crime stop
42
What does code three indicate when sf personnel are making an emergency response
Use of emergency lights and sirens
43
How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high risk traffic stop
Back up patrol vehicle parks parallel and to the right
44
How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident
To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard
45
When directing traffic on a very narrow or one way street it is best for you to stand
Off to the side of the road
46
Speed measuring devices are fused to control speed increase compliance with traffic laws and
Conduct speed studies
47
It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
I’m both a civilian and military court
48
What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into
Cone
49
SF personnel use the SFST approved by the
National highway traffic safety administration
50
Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment you must advise the suspects
Of the implied consent policy
51
How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen
20 mins
52
Once completed who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52
Person relinquishing possession of the property
53
What happens to the original copy of the AF from 75 once you have completed it
It is given to the individual
54
In how many copies is the AF Form 1109 prepared
One
55
How many sections does the AF Form 1168 have
6
56
On the reverse side of the 1176 you must write or type a
Probable cause statement
57
A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime
An accident involves fatality injury or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander
58
What must you do if during a search the individual withdraws a previous consent to search
Terminate the search immediately
59
Who uses section VII administrative disposition of AF form 3545 incident report
SF reports and analyses
60
3907 is used to record
Routine contact between SF members and members of the public
61
Dd Form 1408 is given to the violated affixed to the villager vehicle if the vehicle is unattended
Pink
62
Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805 United States district court violation notice
Legal
63
Where on a DD 1920 would you annotate the results of a suspects blood alcohol chemical test
Section III Standardization field sobriety testing
64
You use the 2708 when
Sf personnel are releasing any individual who had been detained or apprehended
65
What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified
After action report
66
Within how many days from the event it refers will and after action report be submitted
30
67
When you write a well written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who what when where why and how this report fulfills the characteristic of being
Complete
68
You can find the sheet name of a map in the
Center of the top margin and on the Lower left area margin
69
What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land usually formed by streams and rivers
Valley
70
What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sink hole
Depression
71
What terrain feature is a short continuous sloping line of higher ground normally jutting out from the side of a ridge
Spur
72
Contour lines are the most common method of showing
Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
73
What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line
Increase in elevation
74
To plot a grid coordination on a topographic you read it from
Left to right bottom to top
75
How close will a | Six digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify
100 m
76
An azimuth is defined as a
Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line
77
What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called
Index mark
78
The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
Ruler
79
Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground
Intersection
80
Which method let’s you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well defined Locations pinpointed on the map
Resection
81
What is the first step in navigating using terrain association
Orient your map
82
What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow tip method
West
83
The defense advanced Global Positioning System provides the user position
Velocity time reporting and navigation capabilities
84
What is the sense advanced Global Positioning System receivers primary function
Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information
85
Which defense advanced Global Positioning System received mode reduces power usage but it does not track satellites
Standby
86
What type of ammunition is used for observation offs fire, incendiary effects signaling and training
M62
87
What type of ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training
M80
88
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat even for prolonged firing
MK19
89
What is the maximum effective range of the MK 19 of an area target
2,212 m
90
What is the maximum effective range of the MK 19 for a point target
1,500m
91
Which tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19
M3
92
Which ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge
MK385A1
93
What is the direct fire support maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun
6,800m
94
Which M2, .50 caliber machine gun round is used to stimulate firing in training exercises
M1A1
95
Which M2, .50 caliber machine gun round is used against light armored vehicles and aircraft
MK211 Mod 0
96
What is the maximum extent of grazing fore for the M2, .50 caliber machine gun
700m
97
Which primary model 870 shotgun is used by sf
Remington
98
In meters what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using 00 buck shot round
640
99
The shotgun can be used as an auxiliary weapon when | Mounted under the
M4
100
What does CPE stand for
Close precision engagement
101
The M24 sniper weapon system is a 7.62 mm
Bolt action six shot repeating rifle
102
The M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters
800
103
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
Accuracy
104
What is the maximum range of the M107
6,800 m
105
What is the maximum range of the M107
1830
106
The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
Short recoil principle
107
What is DAGRs primary function?
Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position
108
Which DAGR mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?
Standby

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