Thorax Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

How does blood flow around the heart and body?

A

Comes in from the SVC/IVC to the RA
RA through TV to RV through PVs
PVs (4) carry deoxygenated blood to lungs
PAs (2) bring oxygenated blood back to LA
LA through MV to LV
LV through AV to ascending aorta

All valves have 3 cusps EXCEPT MV

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2
Q

What part of the heart makes up the most anterior part i.e. the most vulnerable part to injury? What order does the vasculature leaving the heart run in?

A

RV

RA to the right and LV to the left

R to L: SVC, ascending aorta then PT

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3
Q

What arteries run with which veins? What parts of the heart do they supply with regards to ECG?

A

LAD (anteroseptal leads) + great cardiac vein in interventricular groove

Marginal branch of RCA (inferior leads) + small cardiac vein in atrioventricular groove

Posterior interventricular artery + middle cardiac vein in posterior interventricular groove

Left circumflex artery supplies lateral leads (branch of LCA)

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4
Q

What are the features inside a ventricle?

A

MV/TVs attached to chordae tedinae + papillary muscles to prevent prolapse of AV valve during systole

Trabecula carnae

Conus arteriosus (outflow portion) with smooth walls derived from embryonic bulbus cordis

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5
Q

What is the vertebral level of and where do you auscultate the valves?

A

AV: 2nd ICS right parasternal edge (T6)
PV: 2nd ICS left parasternal edge (T6)
TV: 5th ICS left parasternal edge (T9)
MV: 5th ICS MCL (T8)

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6
Q

What are the great vessels and branches of them?

A

Ascending aorta -> RCA/MCA arising from aortic sinus opposite aortic arch

Aortic arch -> right brachiocephalic (into right subclavian + CCA), left CCA (ICA is circle of willis + ECA is Some Angry Lady Figured Out PMS) + left subclavian (VITD+C) (-> axillary (Screw The Lawyer, Save A Patient!)

Descending aorta -> thoracic (bronchial, mediastinal, oesophageal, pericardial, sup, phrenic + intercostals/subcostals) + abdominal branches (Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin)

L/R subclavian + IJV -> R/L brachiocephalic veins -> SVC tributaries: minor pericardial, mediastinal + oesophageal and the azygous (T4)
Azygous tributaries (Right Handed PM Loves Eating Burgers): Right sup. intercostal, hemiazygous, pericardial, mediastinal, lower right post. intercostal, esophageal & bronchial (R)

L/R common illiacs -> IVC tributaries (I Like To Rise So High)

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7
Q

What structures pass through the hilum of the lung? What structures pass nearby?

A

Hilum is at T5-7

Pulmonary vein is always most anterior and inferior as pulmonary ligament is here which allows expansion of it to increase blood flow

Bronchus is at back (more superior on right as its more verticle/wider for FBs) & pulmonary arteries at top

+bronchial a/v, LNs + autonomics

Relations:
Phrenic nerve anteriorly
Sympathetic chain + CNX posteriorly

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8
Q

What is the anatomy of the atrium?

A

Sinus venarum (smooth walls) for inflow + atrium proper (rough muscular walls due to pectinate muscles) for outflow seperated by crista terminalis

Interatrial septums have fossa ovalis - remnant of foramen ovale of foetal heart that allowed blood to bypass lungs

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9
Q

What is the conducting system of the heart?

A

SAN -> AVN -> bundle of his -> L/R purkinje fibres to spread wave along ventricles

Nodes supplied by RCA so inferior MI may cause third degree heart block

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10
Q

What are the layers of the heart wall?

A

From in to out:
-Endocardium - simple squamous epithelium similar to that lining blood vessels
- Subendocardial layer containing vessels/nerves of conducting system e.gg purkinje fibres
- Myocardium - involuntary striated muscle
- Subepicardial layer
- Epicardium - visceral layer of peritoneum lined by simple squamous epithelium + producing lubricating fluid

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11
Q

What are the relations of the lungs and the impressions made on them?

A

L: heart, arch of aorta (groove), thoracic aorta, oesophagus, 1st rib (groove) + L subclavian (groove)

R: oesophagus, heart, IVC/SVC (groove), azygous (groove), 1st rib (groove), subclavian a/v (groove)

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12
Q

How does right and left lung differ?

A

Right: 3 lobes (sup/middle/inf) + 2 fissures (oblique & horizontal)

Left: 2 lobes (sup*/inf) + 1 oblique fissure

*has lingula attached

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13
Q

What happens at the tracheobronchial tree?

A

Trachea -> L/R main bronchus (T4/5)
-> lobar bronchi to each lobe
-> segmental bronchi to bronchopulmonary segments (10 each side)
-> conducting to terminal bronchioles
-> respiratory bronchioles -> alveoli

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14
Q

What is the innervation of the lungs?

A

PA/PVs

Bronchial arteries/veins

From pulmonary plexus:
PS: CNX
Sympathetic: sympathetic trunk
Visceral afferents: CNX

Lymph drainage via superficial (parenchyma) & deep to tracheobronchial nodes

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15
Q

What is the surface anatomy of the lungs?

A

Curved line from SC joint to 3cm above clavicle (between medial + middle 1/3rd)
SC joint to xiphisternal joint behind lateral sternal border (L lung deviates @ 4th ICS to form cardiac notch)
Inferiorly goes from 6th rib MCL to 7th rib MAL & 10th rib @ vertebral column (parietal pleura is 2 ribs down)
Posteriorly goes along transverse processes C7-T10

Oblique fissure: oblique line down and out from 2-3cm lateral to T5 spine to 6th CC 4cm from midline
Horizontal fissure: right 4th CC horizontally to meet oblique fissure @ MAL in 5th ICS

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16
Q

What is the course of a PE getting to the lungs?

A

Popliteal vein
Femoral vein
External illiac
Common illiac
IVC
RA -> TV -> RV ->PV
Pulmonary veins to lungs

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17
Q

What is the epithelium and innervation of the trachea?

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Sensation: RLV (CNX)

Arterial supply: inferior thyroid tracheal branches
Venous drainage: brachiocephalic, azygous + hemiazygous

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18
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Retrograde flow of blood down vertebral artery due to steno-occlusive disease in subclavian artery proximal to it causing brainstem ischaemia on arm exercise

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19
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Compression of neurovascular bundle including brachial plexus + subclavian artery between scalenus anterior and medius causing neurological & vascular symptoms of the arm

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20
Q

What is the triangle of safety for chest tube insertion? Why might you induce a bradycardia?

A

5th ICS/line of nipple in front of MAL/anterior border of lat dorsi
Posterior border of pec major
Apex of axilla

CNX may be irritated by this procedure causing bradycardia

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21
Q

What are the boundaries and contents of mediastinal areas?

A

Superior
Borders: thoracic inlet (S), manubrium (A), T1-4 vertebral bodies (P), sternal angle @ T4/5 (I) & pleura (L)
Contents:
1. Vessels: arch of aorta + 3 branches (R brachiocephalic, L CCA + L subclavian) + SVC + tributaries (brachiocephalic veins + azygous vein)
2. Nerves: CNX (L/R) + L RLN under aortic arch, phrenic nerves & sympathetic trunk
3. Organs: thymus, trachea, oesophagus + thoracic duct

Posterior
Borders: pericardium (A), T4-T12 vertebra (P) & mediastinal pleura (L)
Contents:
1. Vessels: descending thoracic aorta & azygous vein
2. Nerves: CNX, sympathetics + sphlanchnic nerves
3. Organs: oesophagus & thoracic duct

Middle
Borders: pericardium (A/P), mediastinal plura (L) & diaphragm (I)
Contents: pericardium + heart, aortic root, arch of azygous vein + main bronchi

Anterior
Borders: sternum (A), pericardium (P), mediastinal pleura (L) + diaphragm (I)
Contents: thymic remnants, LNs + fat

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22
Q

Please describe the anatomy of the sympathetic chain.

A

Preganglionic fibres come from T1-L2 spinal nerves and it is connected via ganglion, white ramus communicans + grey ramus communicans leaving the chain via post ganglionic spinal nerves forming plexuses around blood vessels (cardiac/pulmonary/greater + lesser sphlanchnic)

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23
Q

Where is carotid sinus vs body and what is their functions?

A

Body = B for Bifurcation of CCA - chemoreceptors detecting pH + PO2

Sinus = proximal ICA - baroreceptors changing blood pressure change

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24
Q

What part of brachial plexus lies behind subclavian artery behind first rib?

A

Inferior trunk

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25
What are the diaphragmatic orifices and what goes through them?
Caval hiatus (T8) = IVC + R phrenic Oesophageal hiatus (T10) = oesophagus, CNX + oesophageal branches of L/R gastric a/v Aortic hiatus (T12) = aorta, thoracic duct + azygous vein 2, 3 and 3
26
What is the anatomy of the diaphragm?
Double-domed musculotendinous sheet located at inferior aspect of rib cage seperating thorax/abdomen and allowing respiration Right crus arises from L1-3 vertebra (LOS) - R dome lies higher than L due to liver Left crus arises from L1-2 Muscle fibres fuse to form central tendon that connects to inferior fibrous pericardium 3 peripheral attachments: 1. Lumbar vertebrae + arcuate ligament 2. CC 7-10 + directly to ribs 11-12 3. Xiphoid proccess Innervation: - Phrenic n (cervical plexus C3-5) - Inf. phrenic arteries
27
What are the muscles of the thoracic cage?
1. Intercostals: external (inferoanteriorly continuous with EO), internal (inferoposteriorly continuous with IO) & innermost (alike internals) - intercostal nerves (T1-11) Neurovasculature bundle runs between internal & innermost on inferior aspect of rib in the order VAN (sup to inf) 2. Transversus thoracis (continuous with TA) - intercostal nerves (T2-6) 3. Subcostales (like innermost fibres) - intercostal nerves
28
What are the parts of the sternum?
Action: protect thoracic viscera 1. Manubrium: concave producing jugular notch then lateral articulation with SC joint + facet for 1st rib CC & demifacet for 2nd rib CC -> sternal angle T4/5 between manubrium + body called the manubriosternal joint (count ribs from CC 2 here) 2. Body: articular facets for CC ribs 3-6 + demifacets for 2nd + 7th rib Xiphisternal joint 3. Xiphoid: tip @ T10 - largely cartilaginous and ossifies by age of 40
29
What is the anatomy of the ribs?
Typical rib = head, neck + body Articulates with the corresponding vertebra and the one above Each rib has costotransverse (rib tubercle to transverse costal facet of vertebra) & costovertebral joint (rib head, sup. costal facet of corresponding vertebra & inf. facet for vertebra above) Ribs 1-7 attach to sternum 8-10 attach to CC superior to them 11-12 end in abdominal musculature & do not have anterior attachment Atypical ribs = 1, 2, 10, 11 & 12 1 = shorter/wider with only 1 facet + has 2 grooves for subclavian vessels 2 = thinner/longer + serratus anterior attachment point 10 = 1 facet 11/12 = no neck + 1 facet
30
What is the anatomy of the breast?
Lateral sternal border to MAL spanning 2nd-6th CC's - axillary tail runs along inferolateral edge of pec major to axillary fossa Mammary glands (modified sweat glands) consisting of series of ducts + secretory lobules 15-20 -> each consists of alveoli drained by single lactiferous duct converging at nipple - surrounded by fibrous (forms suspensory ligament of cooper) & fatty tissue Base lies on pectoral fascia attached by ligament + the space between this and the connective tissue is the retromammary space Blood supply: - ITA (medial) & thoracic/thoracoacromial (post. ICs)/mammary (ant. ICs)(lateral) - Veins correspond & drain into axillary & internal thoracic veins Nerve supply: ant/lat cutaneous branches of 4-6th IC nerves (sensory & autonomics) Lymphatic drainage: 1. Axillary nodes 2. Parasternal nodes 3. Post. IC nodes
31
What is infective endocarditis?
Inflammation of the endocardial surfaces of the heart including valves usually due to microorganisms e.g. S. Viridans, coagulase - Staph, enterococci or HACEK Types: 1. Infective (acute/subacute): friable vegetations forming large irregular destructive masses on valve leaflet & adjacent structures 2. RHD: small warty vegetations along line of valve closure 3. Non-bacterial thrombotic/marantic: due to adenoCas for e.g. small-medium nondestructive vegetations at line of valve closure 4. Libmans sacks: due to adeno Cas for e.g. with small-med inflammatory vegetations either side of valve leaflet Macroscopic findings: aschoff nodules & fibrinoid necrosis Microscopic findings: aschoff bodies in all 3 heart layers (granulomatous inflammation with central zone of degenerating ECM infiltrated by immune cells inc. Anitshkow/caterpillar cells = activated macrophages with wavy nuclear outline)
32
What is the pathology of RHD?
1. Host immune response to GAS cross-reacting with host proteins e.g. Abs/CD4+ T cells direct Abs to M proteins that recognise cardiac self Ags 2. Complement activation, PMNs activated + cytokines damage heart tissue via Ab/T cell reactions 3. Recurrent inflammation causes fibrosis, narrowing & stiffening of valve leaflets 4. Chronic stage: commisural fusion (Fused chordae tendinae), retraction of edges, thickening, calcification & stenosis 5. Turbulent blood flow increases risk of bacterial colonisation on damaged tissue causing IE
33
What is Dukes criteria?
Diagnostic for IE if 2 major criteria (or 1 major, 3 minor or 5 minor) Major: 1. BCs + for endocarditis from 2 seperate samples 2. Echo positive for IE findings e.g. valvular vegetations, leaflet nodules, chordal elongation/rupture, annular dilatation & pericardial effusion Minor: 1. Predisposition e.g. IVDU 2. Vascular phenomena e.g. janeway lesions 3. Microbiology evidence but not classic 4. Fever >38 5. Immunologic phenomena e.g. Roth spots 6. Echo findings atypical
34
What are complications of IE?
Cardiac - AMI - Pericarditis - HF - Arrythmia Non-cardiac - GN - AKI - Stroke - Mesenteric infarct
35
What are signs/symptoms of IE? Hint: FROM JANE
Fever Roths spots Oslers nodes (painful finger nodules) Murmur Janeway lesions (palm) Anaemia Nail haemorrhage Emboli
36
How to treat IE?
IV Abx depending on MCS for 6 weeks e.g. IV Ceftrixone & Vancomycin Limitations: valves do not have specific blood supply, organisms lie inside vegetations & biofilm protects bacteria Surgical if no response -> 1. Valve replacement: mechanical (long-lasting/durable), tissue, Ross procedure (borrowing healthy valve + moving it) & TAVI/TAVR/balloon valvuloplasty* 2. Heart transplant (HLA matching needed) *if occurs on valve replacement already it will need to be removed as its a septic focus + will be dehiscent
37
How to prevent graft rejection?
Immunosuppressants: 1. Corticosteroids e.g. pred -> anti-inflammatory & kills T cells 2. Cytotoxics e.g. mycophenolate -> block cell division 3. Immunophilins e.g. ciclosporin -> blocks T cell responses 4. Lymphocyte depleting therapies e.g. monoclonals -> kills activated T cells
38
How does aortic stenosis occur?
1. Lipid accumulation causes inflammation, calcification, valve thickening & stenosis - can be due to post-inflammatory scaring (RHD), senile calcification or if valve is congenitally bicuspid its prone to calcification 2. Sclerosis is before there is obstruction then this progresses to stenosis so LV encounters chronic resistance to systolic ejection increasing afterload -> LVH 3. Decreased LV elasticity + coronary blood flow increasing myocardial workload, O2 consumption & mortality -> can cause MI & sudden death 4. Later LV chamber shrinks, decreasing preload too, worsening systolic function causing insufficient SV/CO/EF causing HF & backward transmission to lungs causing pulmonary HTN
39
What is a thrombus? How is it formed? How does this lead to MI?
Solid material formed from constituents of blood in flowing blood = healthy response to injury intended to prevent bleeding 1. Atheromatus plaque ruptures due to haemorrhage within it exposing sub-endothelial collagen + necrotic plaque contents to blood 2. Platelets adhere, aggregate & activated releasing thromboxane A2, ADP & 5HT causing further aggregation & vasospasm 3. Coagulation activated by TF exposure + thrombus grows to a point where within minutes it can completely occlude artery 4. Aerobic glycolysis ceases dropping ATP + noxious metabolites accumulate in cardiac myocytes 5. Rapid loss of contractility within minutes of ischaemia & ultrastructural changes occur e.g. cell/mitochondrial swelling - potentially reversible 6. If lasts 20-40 mins irreversible damage & myocyte death occurs -> coagulation necrosis
40
Name some examples of fungal infection.
Candida Aspergillus Tricophyton Microsporum
41
What are the advantages and disadvantages of tissue vs mechanical valves?
Mechanical have excellent durability, are easy to insert but thrombo-embolism/bleeding risk & need Warfarin Tissue valves are noiseless, do not need warfarin due to low thrombo-embolism/bleeding risk but insertion is more difficult
42
What are the axillary LN groups?
1 = lateral to pec minor 2 = deep to pec minor 3 = medial to pec minor Also classified into lateral (humoral), anterior (pectoral), posterior (subscapular), central which all drain into apical nodes -> subclavian trunk
43
What does thoracic duct drain?
Whole body except right UL, breast, lung, head & neck which goes to right lymphatic duct
44
Why does clubbing happen?
Higher plasma growth hormone levels in patients with lung Ca Platelets clusters lodge in peripheral vasculature of digits release PDGF leading to increased permeability, vascularity & connective tissue changes
45
What is FISH?
Fluorescence in situ hybridisation - cytogenetic technique using fluorescent probes binding chromosome parts to show high degree of sequence complementarity
46
What is an adenocarcinoma?
Cancer of mucus secreting glands
47
What is emphysema?
Lung condition developed in smokers often causing SOB due to alveoli damage causing the air sacs to weaken/rupture creating larger air spaces instead of smaller ones
48
What is a paraneoplastic syndrome?
Symptom complex that occurs in patient with cancer that is not explained by local/distant spread or hormonal effects of the tissue of tumour origin Examples: - HyperCa & pancoast tumours e.g. SCC of lung due to PTHrP - Cushings, Lambert-Eaton Mysathenic syndrome & SIADH e.g. SCLC - HOAP & Trousseaus (venous thrombosis) e.g. adenoCa of lungs
49
What tests to do for TB?
MC+S for sputum using Ziehl-Neelson staining (takes 1-8 weeks) - using solid media (Middlebrook) or liquid (BACTEC/MIGT) PCR Interferon gamma assays FNAC of LN (necrotic tissue, histiocytes & giant cells) Mantoux skin test to test immunity Need to be labelled as category B in biohazard bag
50
What are the public health concerns re TB? What must be put in place if someone tests positive?
- Notify communicable disease consultant - Avoid working in food factory - Use mask during sneeze/cough - DOTS (directly observed treatment short-course) anti-TB therapy - Contact tracing, screening & treatment
51
What is a granuloma and what are some other causes?
Organised collection of macrophages fusing to form Langerhan giant cells - composed of necrotic centre surrounded by T and B cells Other causes: Sarcoidosis RA Crohns Leprosy
52
What are pleural plaques and what are their significance?
Well circumscribed plaques of dense calcified collagen on X-ray - most common manifestation of asbestos exposure Increase risk of mesothelioma & adenoCa
53
Name the 6 types of necrosis.
1. Liquefactive 2. Caseous 3. Fibrinoid 4. Fat 5. Gangrenous 6. Coagulative
54
What might you note on triple assessment in a breast cancer?
History/exam: risk factors Imaging (USS in <40yo + men): speculated mass & microcalcifications Biopsy (tru-cut/FNAC): C4-5 indicates suspicious to malignant When reviewing pathology assess: 1. Type of cancer 2. LN involvement 3. Hormonal status 4. Margins status
55
What is the most common type of breast cancer?
IDC of upper outer quadrant (more glandular tissue)
56
What is HER2?
Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 Oncogene and biomarker overexpressed in 15% of cases and associated with poor prognosis as less likely to be responsive to hormonal therapy, spread faster and recur IHC: measures amount FISH: measures no. of copies of the gene Management: Traztuzumab (Herception) is a monoclonal Ab that causes destruction of cells overproducing HER2
57
How to treat MRSA carrier?
Nose: mupirocin 2% nasal ointment TDS for 5/7 Skin: wash OD with Chlorhexidine 4% for 5/7 Hair: same Chlorhexidine wash on day 1 and 5
58
What is pagets and how does it occur?
Looks like eczema around nipple but will start at the nipple and progress out DCIS extension up lactiferous ducts and into nipple skin causing crusting exudate over nipple and areolar
59
Most common breast lump in under 30s? Tell me about them.
Fibroadenoma - "breast mouse" Proliferation of epithelial and stromal tissue of duct lobules Often mobile, oval & rubbery presenting in upper outer quadrant <5cm Mx: can be excised but can be left alone - should still undergo TRIPLE ASSESSMENT
60
What are phyllodes tumours?
Biphasic breast lesion larger than fibroadenoma presenting in females 40-50 caused by overgrowth of stromal components - tend to grow rapidly Histologically may show: morphologic heterogenity, irregular gland dilatation, stromal mitotic activity & stromal cytological atypia Mx: WLE or mastectomy as can be aggressive
61
What is a breast cyst?
Fluid filled distended involuted lobules developing in peri-menopausal women Smooth/discrete/painless Mx: imaging will confirm, can be aspirated but if bloody will need triple assessment
62
What are the different types of mastalgia?
1. Cyclical: B/L - caused by exaggerated response to hormonal changes causing enlargement & nodularity 2. Non-cyclical e.g. due to meds, contraceptives, antidepressants & antipsychotics 3. Extramammary e.g. chest/shoulder pain Mx of 1: better fitting bras, soft supportive bra at night, pain diary, analgesia & Danazol (anti-gonadotrophin) if not responsive to basic measures
63
How are breast abscesses classified?
1. Lactational: in first few weeks or during weaning as babies teeth cause trauma & crack skin 2. Non-lactational e.g. periductal mastitis in young females who smoke due to inflammation of subareolar ducts (nipple retraction, discharge, lump behind nipple, painful, tender, erythematous) Most commonly S Aureus, S epidermidis or Strep species Mx: urgent USS, I+D then MC+S of fluid - lactating women should continue to feed or express
64
What is Mondors disease?
Sclerosing thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast & chest wall Sudden onset pain with tenderness of subcutaneous red cord of tissue which will become painless eventually Mx: NSAIDs but may take months to settle
65
What is gynaecomastia?
Enlargement of male breast tissue due to imbalanced oestrogen to androgen activity (B/L or U/L) Causes: Physiological Medication e.g. Spironolactone Testicular Ca e.g. leydig (increased oestrogen) Klinefelters (lack of testosterone) Mx: triple assessment, USS & treat underlying cause if there is one
66
What is important to ascertain in nipple discharge? What are some causes?
Colour - blood stained B/L or U/L Arising spontaneously or on expression Lump Hx of breast disease Causes: - Physiological: any colour + no Mx needed - Galactorrhoea: B/L milk but check prolactin to r/o pituitary prolactinoma - Duct ectasia: perimenopausal women due to shortening/dilatation of sub-areolar ducts causing creamy/blood stained discharge so excise duct to r/o malignancy - Intra-ductal papilloma: serous/blood-stained +/- lump increases Ca risk
67
How do coronary arteries get atherosclerosis?
Risk factors Non-modifiable: family Hx, male & age Modifiable: smoking, DM & hyperlipidaemia 1. Endothelial injury from risk factors leading to increased permeability, leukocyte adhesion & thrombosis 2. Accumulation of lipoproteins in vessel wall (oxidised LDL + cholesterol crystals) 3. Platelet adhesion 4. Monocyte adhesion, migration into intima & differentiation into macrophages 5. Lipid accumulation in macrophages = foam cells releasing inflammatory cytokines 6. SMC recruitment due to factors released from platelets, macrophages & vascular wall 7. SMC proliferation & ECM production
68
What is ARDS?
Acute diffuse inflammatory lung injury that causes non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema characterised by hypoxaemia, decreased lung compliance and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates In acute phase: 1. Widespread destruction of capillary endothelium, extravasation of protein rich fluid & interstitial oedema 2. Neutrophil migration & cytokine release 3. Alveolar BM damaged so fluid seeps into airspaces, stiffening lungs & causing V/P mismatch In chronic phase: fibroproliferation, organisation of tissue & disordered collagen deposition can cause lung scarring -> impaired gas exchange with refractory hypoxaemia, decreased compliance & pulmonary HTN Causes: 1. Sepsis 2. TRALI 3. CAP/HAP 4. Aspiration 5. Burns
69
How is severity of ARDS assessed?
Berlin criteria taking into account: PAO2/FIO2/carrico index shows the partial pressure of arterial oxygen over the inhaled oxygen comparing O2 in blood to that breathed in to assess if there is a problem with lungs transfer of O2 to blood
70
How do you manage ARDS?
Supportive in ITU 1. Airway/breathing support: prone positioning & PEEP of 5-15cm H2O 2. Low dose steroids 3. Abx in sepsis 4. Strict IP/OP + invasive monitoring of pulmonary capillary wedge pressure to guide IVF OR consider inotropes OR diuretics 5. Nutritional support ideally enteral 6. VTE 7. PPIs prophylactically
71
What are things to consider when operating on a pregnant lady for e.g. for severe cholecystitis?
Sepsis may induce pre-term labour so we would cure this but the surgery may cause the same, IUFD or VTE Neonatologist, obstetricians, obstetrics HDU to be involved Likely will need to be positioned laterally + raised legs (reverse trendelenberg) to improve VR/preload and prevent IVC compression
72
Define preload. What happens in low blood pressure?
Amount of myocardium stretched after diastole (this is why you need to bolus not just speed up fluid) BP = SVR X CO (HR x SV) When BP is low, the preload is reduced and as per Frank-Starling mechanism this reduces cardiac output so the body will use: 1. Baroreceptors at aortic arch/carotid sinus (CNXI - sinus n. of Herring) activate sympathetics: tachycardia, increased SV & vasoconstriction to increase CO* 2. RAAS system: renin released from macula densa of JGA to cause salt/water retention + cortisol from adrenal cortex releases cortisol to increase BP 3. Catelcholamines: adrenal medulla stimulated by pain/injury causing increased SVR due to NA *This also happens simply on standing up to maintain BP
73
Define shock.
Circulatory failure whereby the body cannot perfuse the organs well enough to meet the demands
74
What factors affect venous return i.e. preload? How can we artificially improve a patients preload?
1. Muscle contraction via pump mechanism e.g. TEDs + intermittent pneumatic compression devices 2. Decreased venous compliance via sympathetic activation, increases CVP + improves blood flow 3. Respiratory activity - increased during inspiration due to reduced right atrial pressure 4. Gravity + VC compression decreases it Mx inc. IVF, inotropes or vasopressors: - Vasopressors: adrenergic agonists e.g. A/NA increase SVR via vasoconstriction, HR/SV & CO - Inotropes: dopaminergics e.g. dobutamine mainly increase HR/SV thus CO + contractility (may reduce SVR to cause vasodilatation)
75
How might you monitor the patients CVS status?
Arterial line e.g. LIDCO or PICCO Transoesophageal doppler CVP monitoring
76
What hormones will be released in response to surgery to preserve circulation?
Cortisol Increased glucagon (decreased insulin) Renin Aldosterone -> stimulates reuptake of Na by acting on receptors between DCT + CD ADH/vasopressin -> produced in hypothalamus, stored/released from post. pituitary due to reduced volume, increased plasma osmolarity & angiotensin II acting to increase water uptake by CD via aquaporin insertion + NaCl reabsorption in thick ascending limb of LoH increasing interstitial concentration around loop enhancing ability to reabsorb water due to high osmotic gradient = concentrated small volume urine
77
Briefly explain the counter current multiplier mechanism.
Made up of LoH & vasa recta 1. Descending limb only permeable to water so water moves across tubular wall to medullary space so filtrate is now hypertonic 2. At thick ascending loop, Na transported out but water cannot move so water is drawn from descending limb into hyperosmolar medullary space both with aim to make filtrate hypertonic 3. Osmotic gradient multiplied between tubular fluid & interstitial space meaning urine is concentrated over short space along nephron with minimal energy expenditure
78
Please describe the RAAS system.
1. Kidneys sense BP decrease + release renin from JGA 2. Angiotensinogen is then released from the liver 3. This is converted to angiotensin I by renin 4. ACE in the lungs converts this into angiotensin II 5. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects all aiming to increase BP: - Arteriolar constriction - Enhances aldosterone secretion -> reabsorption of Na and water - Increase Na reabsorption thus water - Facilitates NA release by acting on postganglionic sympathetic neurons - Contraction of mesangial cells decreases GFR - Decreases brains sensitivity to baroreflex - Increase water intake from brain - Increases secretion of ADH/ACTH
79
How should you comment on a CXR?
1. Patient demographics, chest radiograph in PA view & date 2. RIPE - equidistant clavicles, 6-8 anterior ribs, mid thoracic vertebrae end plates should be visible & should be adequately exposed 3. Airways - trachea 4. Breathing - lung fields 5. Cardiac - contour? cardiomegaly? 6. Diaphragm 7. Everything else e.g. bones, soft tissues & artefact
80
How can you determine AF? What are some causes? How would you manage the patient?
No P-waves and irregular rhythm on ECG (rate must be counted by QRS complexes x 10 on rhythm strip) Causes: sepsis, MI, hypothermia & thyrotoxicosis Mx: 1. Cardioversion: DC shock, 300mg Amiodorone, repeat shock followed by 900mg/24h 2. Anticoagulation: unfractionated heparin 70units/kg as bolus then 15 units/kg/h till APTT 40-60s - in long-term may use DOAC or warfarin
81
What is peri-operative hypothermia? How can we measure body temperature? What are some risk factors?
A core body temperature of 36 degrees or less under anaesthesia Measured orally, axillary, rectally or via TM Risk factors: - Major exposed surgery -> reduce length of time where possible + only expose whats necessary - Pre-operative hypothermia <36 -> dont induce until warmer - Massive blood transfusion -> warmed IV products - General + regional anaesthetic
82
How is heat lost during surgery?
1. Radiation: to other cold bodies compounded by vasodilatation from anaesthesia 2. Evaporation due to large open abdominal wound 3. Conduction to operating table + cold infusion fluids 4. Convection: warming of cool air around patient Compounded by blood loss, sepsis + massive blood transfusion (>50% blood replaced in 12-24h) potentially
83
What are the complications of hypothermia?
CVS: arrythmias Haematological: coagulopathy Neurological: reduced cerebral blood flow causing coma Renal: decreased renal blood flow + GFR
84
What is DIC?
A pathological consumptive coagulopathy whereby concurrent coagulation & fibrinolysis occurs meaning microthrombi are formed, consume all the clotting factors and platelets leading to haemorrhage - occurs due to tissue injury/sepsis releasing tissue factor Characterised by thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen & increased FDP Caused by: haemorrhage, sepsis, massive blood transfusion & hypothermia Mx: - FFP, cryoprecipitate, platelets (5 day shelf life) - Correct cause e.g. warm patient if hypothermic - TXA if bleeding - Involve haematologists
85
What are the stages of haemostasis?
1. Vasoconstriction due to SM contraction by local reflexes, TXA2 + 5HT from activated platelets (impaired if vessel damaged) 2. Platelet aggregation to form plug (impaired in thrombocytopaenia/haemodilution) 3. Coagulation: intrinsic/extrinsic -> fibrinogen -> fibrin (also impaired by haemodilution)
86
What can be done to reduce intra-operative blood loss?
Cell salvage/autologous transfusion to reinfuse patients own cells back into them Hypotensive technique Good haemostasis
87
What are the complications of massive blood transfusion?
Hypothermia Coagulopathy as stored blood lacks factors V + VIII TRALI Electrolyte imbalances e.g. hyperkalaemia
88
What are the early post-op complications of AAA repair?
Continued haemorrhage Limb ischaemia Abdominal compartment syndrome Bowel ischaemia Organ failure
89
What are the indications for a central line? What are some potential complications?
Failed venous access Needs long term medication Needs agents that cannot be given peripherally e.g. inotropes TPN Haemodialysis Complications: Immediate - pneumothorax, haemorrhage from artery, failed placement & arrythmia Late - infection, blockage, dislodgement & catheter #
90
When should you remove a central line and how should you do it?
Patient is being stepped down/discharged Infection No longer needs cardiac support Resolution of acute problem Remove it HEAD DOWN to prevent air embolism
91
Where can you insert a central line?
IJV Subclavian Femoral PICC
92
What physical vs radiological findings might you see in pulmonary oedema?
Physical: congested neck veins, facial puffiness, lung creps + confusion Radiological: alveolar oedema, kerley B lines, cardiomegaly, upper lobe diversion & effusions
93
Why would fluid overload patient be at risk of MI and oliguria?
Tachycardia = reduced diastole time ->decreases cardiac filling -> increased cardiac load = MI Physiological stress response releases glucocorticoids & mineralocorticoids -> salt/water retention + ADH release stimulated + congestive HF reduces renal perfusion
94
What are the daily electrolyte requirements and what is in commonly used fluids?
Na+: 1-2meq/kg K+: 0.5-1meq/kg 150mmol/L Na in NaCl 131mmol/L Na in Hartmans
95
How can we manage and prevent fluid overload?
Mx: CCRISP A-E - stop IVF Fluid restrict O2 Furosemide Morphine (preload reduction) ACE-i (afterload reduction) Get ABG/CXR/ECG/bloods Liase with ITU as may need CPAP or inotropes (Dobutamine ideally) Prevention: CVP line to monitor Monitor UOP - strict IP/OP Report to hospital incident system if Dr induced + train juniors better
96
How is CO2 transported in the blood?
1. Bicarbonate (70%) 2. Carbaminohaemoglobin 3. Dissolved Equation: H2O + CO2 -> H2CO3 -> H+ (binds to Hb) + HCO3- (diffuses out to plasma) As HCO3- moves out, Cl- diffuses in to maintain balance (chloride shift)
97
In acute respiratory acidosis why is bicarbonate normal?
Compensation occurs in 2 stages: 1. Acutely cellular buffering occurs (mins-hrs) elevating HCO3- only slightly 2. Renal compensation (3-5 days) so carbonic acid is excreted & HCO3- reabsorption increased
98
What are the types of respiratory failure and some causes?
Type 1: hypoxaemia due to VQ mismatch Causes: pneumonia, bronchitis, PE & pneumothorax Type 2: hypoxaemia + hypercarbia caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation Causes: COPD, NMDs, reducing breathing effort due to drugs e.g. opioids & kyphoscholiosis -> elevation of CO2 causes central acidosis which stimulates central chemoreceptors increasing RR to blow off CO2
99
How to manage patient in respiratory failure?
A-E as per CCRISP Humidified O2 Manage underlying cause e.g. Naloxone* if morphine Ventilation (non-invasive/invasive) ITU admission to considered if multi-organ support is required e.g. resp (ventilation), renal (haemodialysis), cardiac (inotropes) & neurological (ICP monitoring) *dose = 0.4-2mg IV initially repeating every 2-3 mins to max of 10mg SE: N&V, sweating, tachycardia & abdo cramps