Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

THROMBOTIC DISORDER HEMA 2 > Thrombotic Disease > Flashcards

Thrombotic Disease Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Thrombosis is defined as the inappropriate formation of a platelet or fibrin clot that obstructs a blood vessel, leading to potential complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the consequences of thrombotic obstructions?

A

Thrombotic obstructions can lead to ischemia (loss of blood supply) and necrosis (tissue death), highlighting the critical nature of proper clot regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do clots typically form?

A

Clots are typically formed in response to injury; however, in thrombosis, clots form without a need, indicating a pathological process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of the fibrinolytic system?

A

The fibrinolytic system is responsible for removing clots once healing occurs, emphasizing the importance of balance in hemostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes thrombosis?

A

Thrombosis can be associated with hypercoagulability, where there is an increased tendency to form clots due to various factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the categories of risk factors for thrombosis?

A

Risk factors can be categorized into acquired (lifestyle or disease-related) and congenital (inherited conditions), affecting individuals differently based on their health status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does chronic inflammation relate to thrombosis?

A

Chronic inflammation can elevate acute-phase reactant proteins like fibrinogen, increasing the risk of clot formation and potentially leading to atherosclerosis, especially in conditions like diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the effects of protein deficiencies on clotting?

A

Protein deficiencies, such as Protein C and Protein S, can lead to uncontrolled clotting, while their inhibitors’ absence results in continuous platelet activation and clot formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What health issues can thrombosis lead to?

A

Thrombosis can lead to serious health issues, including heart problems due to atherosclerosis, particularly in chronic inflammatory states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does homocysteine contribute to thrombosis?

A

The presence of homocysteine, often due to dietary deficiencies, can damage blood vessels and promote clot formation, necessitating dietary management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is essential for diagnosing thrombotic disorders?

A

A holistic approach is essential for diagnosing thrombotic disorders, including family history, clinical presentation, and laboratory tests to identify underlying causes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does thrombosis manifest in children and the elderly?

A

In children, thrombosis is often linked to congenital disorders, while in the elderly, it may be associated with underlying diseases that require management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is thrombophilia?

A

Thrombophilia, also known as hypercoagulability, refers to a predisposition to thrombosis due to congenital or acquired conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common causes of thrombophilia?

A

Known causes include chronic inflammation, uncontrolled platelet activation, and deficiencies in regulatory proteins that control coagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a common inherited risk factor for thrombosis?

A

Activated Protein C resistance, often associated with Factor V Leiden, is a common inherited risk factor for thrombosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the Prothrombin G20210A mutation cause?

A

Prothrombin G20210A mutation leads to excess production of prothrombin, increasing thrombin levels and promoting clot formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does homocysteinemia affect thrombosis risk?

A

Homocysteinemia, resulting from dietary deficiencies, can lead to vascular damage and increased thrombosis risk, highlighting the importance of nutritional management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What laboratory tests are crucial for diagnosing thrombophilia?

A

Laboratory tests are crucial for diagnosing thrombophilia, including assessing antiphospholipid antibodies that play a significant role in hemostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What complications can antiphospholipid syndrome cause?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome can lead to complications such as spontaneous abortions due to its effects on coagulation mechanisms during pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What antibodies are tested for in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Testing for antibodies like lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, and B2-GPI is essential for understanding the underlying causes of thrombosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are antiphospholipid antibodies?

A

Antiphospholipid antibodies can be IgM, IgG, or IgA and are critical in understanding hemostatic disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do antiphospholipid antibodies affect coagulation?

A

These antibodies can interfere with normal coagulation processes, leading to increased thrombosis risk, particularly in autoimmune conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the clinical significance of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with various autoimmune diseases and can lead to significant complications, including pregnancy-related issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the importance of understanding transient vs. persistent antiphospholipid antibodies?

A

Understanding the nature of these antibodies is crucial for determining the appropriate management and treatment strategies for affected patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do inflammatory processes affect thrombosis susceptibility?
Individuals with antiphospholipid antibodies and elevated CRP levels are more prone to thrombosis due to inflammatory processes.
26
What is the Lupus Anticoagulant test profile?
The Lupus Anticoagulant (LA) test profile includes tests such as Dilute Russell Viper Venom Time (DRVVT) and Silica-based PTT, which are crucial for diagnosing LA.
27
What do mixing studies identify in lupus anticoagulant testing?
Mixing studies are performed to identify common inhibitors; failure to correct the test suggests the presence of lupus anticoagulant.
28
What should confirmatory tests for lupus anticoagulant include?
Confirmatory tests should include both DRVVT and silica-based PTT, with a focus on low phospholipid concentrations in reagents.
29
What are the guidelines for LA detection?
Initial assays should prolong phospholipid-dependent clot formation, followed by mixing with normal plasma to check for correction.
30
What indicates the presence of lupus anticoagulant?
If the ratio of patient results to normal plasma exceeds 1.2 seconds, it indicates the presence of lupus anticoagulant.
31
What are anticardiolipin and β2-GPI antibodies?
These antibodies can be transient and may require a 12-week observation period to confirm their presence, as medications can induce temporary elevations.
32
What is the Factor V Leiden mutation?
The Factor V Leiden mutation involves a substitution at position 506, leading to resistance against activated Protein C, which normally inactivates Factor Va.
33
What laboratory tests are used for Factor V Leiden mutation?
Laboratory tests include the APC Resistance Clot Based Assay, with a normal ratio of ≥1.8 indicating normal function.
34
What does the Prothrombin G20210A mutation result in?
This mutation results in elevated prothrombin levels, leading to increased thrombin production and heightened risk of clot formation.
35
What is Antithrombin deficiency?
Antithrombin is a serine protease inhibitor that neutralizes several coagulation factors; deficiency can lead to thromboembolic events.
36
What are acquired causes of Antithrombin deficiency?
Acquired causes include pregnancy, liver disease, and prolonged heparin therapy, while inherited forms can lead to recurrent thromboembolic disease.
37
What are treatment options for Antithrombin deficiency?
Treatment options include Antithrombin concentrates such as Thrombate III.
38
What do deficiencies in Protein C and Protein S lead to?
Deficiencies in Protein C and Protein S lead to increased clotting due to their roles in inhibiting factors V and VII.
39
What can Coumadin therapy cause in relation to Protein C and S deficiency?
Coumadin therapy can paradoxically cause skin necrosis due to decreased levels of these proteins, leading to thrombosis in dermal vessels.
40
What conditions can exacerbate deficiencies in Protein C and S?
Conditions such as pregnancy, liver disease, and vitamin K deficiency can exacerbate these deficiencies.
41
What does the Protein C assay measure?
The Protein C assay utilizes a chromogenic method, mixing patient plasma with Protac to activate Protein C for measurement.
42
What are clot-based assays used for?
Clot-based assays are commonly used to assess various coagulation factors and conditions. They involve mixing plasma with specific reagents to evaluate the coagulation process.
43
What is the role of calcium chloride in clot-based assays?
The process typically includes the addition of calcium chloride, which is essential for the coagulation cascade to occur.
44
What is the purpose of enzyme immunoassays?
Enzyme immunoassays are utilized to measure specific antigens, such as Protein C, in the plasma.
45
What do traditional predictors of arterial thrombosis include?
Total cholesterol and LDL-C levels are significant predictors of arterial thrombosis risk, with elevated levels indicating a higher risk of cardiovascular events.
46
What does a higher total cholesterol to HDL-C ratio indicate?
The ratio of total cholesterol to HDL-C is critical; a higher ratio suggests a deficiency in protective HDL-C, increasing thrombosis risk.
47
What is the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) in thrombosis?
C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute phase reactant that can rise dramatically during inflammation, serving as a marker for increased thrombosis risk.
48
What are the symptoms of Deep Venous Thrombosis (DVT)?
Symptoms of DVT include edema, erythema, pain, and a sensation of heat in the affected limb, indicating inflammation and clot formation.
49
What tests are essential for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?
D-dimer tests are essential for diagnosing pulmonary embolism, measuring the presence of fibrin degradation products in the blood.
50
What characterizes Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
DIC, also known as defibrination syndrome, is characterized by uncontrolled activation of hemostasis due to systemic disorders.
51
What are the symptoms of DIC?
Symptoms of DIC include renal impairment, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and central nervous system manifestations such as seizures and vision loss.
52
What treatments may be used for DIC?
Treatment may involve surgery, anti-inflammatory agents, and supportive therapy to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
53
What is Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune-mediated response to unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
54
What are common adverse effects of heparin?
Common adverse effects include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, hypertension, alopecia, and osteoporosis.
55
What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
Heparin works by binding to antithrombin III, enhancing its activity by 1000-fold, thus inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa.
56
What is the half-life of heparin?
The half-life of heparin is 1-2 hours, necessitating administration every 4-6 hours for effective control of thrombosis.
57
What is the difference between Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) and High Molecular Weight Heparin (HMW)?
LMWH has a more predictable anticoagulant response and is often preferred for outpatient treatment.
58
What are the types of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
HIT Type I is a benign form of thrombocytopenia that develops within 1-3 days of heparin exposure, while HIT Type II is a more serious thrombotic form that develops after 5 days.
59
What is the maximum pretest probability score for HIT?
The maximum pretest probability score for HIT is 8.
60
What should be done upon diagnosis of HIT?
Immediate discontinuation of heparin therapy is crucial upon diagnosis of HIT.
61
What alternative anticoagulants can be used in HIT?
Alternative anticoagulants include Bivalirudin (a direct thrombin inhibitor) and Argatroban (an amino acid analogue with direct thrombin inhibition).
62
What is the mechanism of action of Coumadin (Warfarin)?
Coumadin prevents the activation of vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, and S).
63
What is the monitoring method for Coumadin therapy?
Monitoring is done through PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio), with reversal using oral or IV vitamin K.
64
What are common antiplatelet agents?
Common antiplatelet agents include Aspirin and NSAIDs, which inhibit cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin synthesis.
65
What is the purpose of fibrinolytic therapy?
Fibrinolytic drugs, such as urokinase and streptokinase, are used to lyse existing clots rather than prevent their formation.
66
What are common adverse effects of fibrinolytic therapy?
Common adverse effects include bleeding, hypersensitivity reactions, and arrhythmias.
67
What is the antidote for fibrinolytic therapy overdose?
In cases of overdose, aminocaproic acid can be administered to prevent further lysis of clots.
68
What is the primary action of fibrinolytic therapy?
Fibrinolytic therapy lyses existing clots rather than preventing their formation.
69
What are the indications for fibrinolytic therapy?
Indications include Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI), Deep Venous Thrombosis (DVT), and Pulmonary Embolism.
70
What are the contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy?
Contraindications include recent surgery, serious gastrointestinal bleeding, and active hemorrhagic disorders.
71
Why is careful patient selection important in fibrinolytic therapy?
Careful patient selection is essential to avoid complications associated with fibrinolytic therapy.

THROMBOTIC DISORDER HEMA 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions