Ti Flashcards

1
Q

Which gland secretes the most saliva
a. Parotid
b. Submandibular
c. Sublingual
d. Minor salivary glands

A

b. Submandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which duct is the most likely to cause sialolithiasis
a. Stensons
b. Whartons
c. Blandin
d. Bartholins

A

b. Whartons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient presents with a small mass that is present for 3-4 weeks. It is translucent and is located in the anterior floor of the mouth

A

Ranula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which gland is associated with taste buds
a. Glands of blandin nuhn
b. Von Ebners glands

A

Von Ebners glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which gland forms first in utero
a. Minor salivary glands
b. Parotid
c. Submandibular
d. Sublingual

A

Parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which 3 structures pass through the parotid gland
i. Facial
ii. Retromandibular vein
iii. External Carotid Artery
iv. Stylomandibular ligament
b. 1, 2, 3
c. All of the above
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1,

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The thickening in the parotid gland capsule is the
a. Stylomandibular ligament
b. Sphenomandibular ligament
c. Stylohyoid ligament ligament ligament ligament ligament

A

Stylomandibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can be damaged with a parotidectomy
i. CN 7
ii. Paralysis of the muscles of facial expression
iii. Chorda tympani
iv. CN 5
v. Lingual nerve
b. 1, 2, 3

A

b. 1, 2, 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What structures can be damaged associated with the sublingual gland
i. Lingual neurovascular bundle
ii. Hypoglossal nerve
iii. Facial artery
iv. Marginal mandibular branch
b. 1 and 2?

A

b. 1 and 2?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much saliva do you produce per day
a. 1 L/day
b. 250 cc/day
c. 2500 cc/day
d. 100 cc/day

A

1 L/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

50% of function is lost after how much radiation
a. 1000 cGy

A

1000 cGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What test is used to evaluate levels of NaCl with Cystic Fibrosis patients
a. Sialochemistry

A

a. Sialochemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is the most best method of determining malignancy
a. Fine needle aspiration
b. Excisional Biopsy
c. Incisional Biopsy

A

ine needle aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Freys syndrome following a parotidectomy is associated with which cranial nerve
a. 9
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common benign salivary neoplasia is

A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the longest duct with two sharp curves

A

Wharton’s duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following can cause bilateral swellings
i. Sjogren’s Syndrome
ii. Wharton’s Tumor
iii. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. 1 and 2

A

1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Infections of the parotid gland are associated with which bacteria? What is the treatment

A

a. Staphylococcal, cephalosporins

19
Q

Granulomatous sialodenitis is associated with
i. TB
ii. HIV
b. 1 and 2

20
Q

Which of the following is associated with sulfur granules

A

Actinomycosis

21
Q

Patient presents with a swelling and the x-ray shows a sharply demarcated mass. The patient was told in the past that it was just a sialadenitis. It was slow growing for months and present for 5 years. What is the diagnosis?

A

a. Pleomorphic Adenoma
b. Sialadenitis

22
Q

A patient presents with 4 cm indurated ulcer on the palate. What would not be part of your diagnosis
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

23
Q

What solution should be used for an avulsed tooth
a. Milk
b. Hank’s solution
c. Water

A

b. Hank’s solution

24
Q

The best method of airway protection for a patient with a cervical spine protection

A

a. Chin lift

25
Deviation on opening for a condylar fracture is a. Contralateral to the side of fracture b. Towards the side of fracture
Towards the side of fracture
26
Bilateral condylar fracture causes what dental classification a. Posterior apertognathia b. Anterior apertognathia c. Class 2 d. Class 3
Anterior apertognathia
27
A fracture of multiple pieces is a
a. Comminuted fracture
28
Where is the mandible most commonly fractured
ondyle
29
With a condylar fracture, which movement will not occur a. Translation b. Rotation c. No movement due to ankylosis
Translation
30
A patient has a vertical maxillary excess with an elongated lower 1/3 of the face and a gummy smile. What is the treatment of choice a. Le fort 1 + Superior repositioning b. Le fort 1 + Inferior repositioning c. BSSO
Le fort 1 + Superior repositioning
31
The most conservative method of treating a ranula is a. Excision of gland b. Incise and Drain c. Cryotherapy d. Marsupialization
Excision of gland
32
Which of the following is associated with perineural invasion a. Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma b. Polymorphouse low gade adenocarcinoma c. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
33
Viral parotitis is associated with what organism
a. Paramyxovirus
34
Some question about alcohol a. Sialodenosis?? b. Xerostomia Hypertrophy
Sialodenosis
35
What type of fracture is associated with a bilateral orbital floor fracture a. Le fort 1 b. Le Fort 2 c. Le Fort 3 d. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture
Le Fort 3
36
What type of fracture is associated with an increased vertical maxillary heigh, cranial something, and maxillary teeth a. Le fort 1 b. Le fort 2 c. Le fort 3
Le fort 3
37
What percent of diagnosed child abuse cases are associated with orofacial trauma
50%
38
Indications for rigid internal fixation include i. Displaced fractures ii. Patient noncompliance iii. COPD iv. Previous history of substance abuse b. All of the above
b. All of the above
39
The leading cause of death with ages 1-44 years of age is a. Trauma b. Cancer c. Atherosclerosis
Trauma
40
Glasgow coma scale is determined by i. Measuring eye opening ii. Measuring motor response iii. Measuring verbal response iv. Measuring cardiovascular function v. Measuring ventilator function
1,2,3
41
Class 2 bleeding is defined by i. Tachycardia ii. Tachypnea iii. Decreased pulse pressure iv. Decreased systolic blood pressure
1,2,3
42
The most common dental classification is a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3
Class 1
43
Hemorrhage during a maxillary procedure is most likely due to the a. Pterygoid plexus b. Greater palatine arteries c. Internal maxillary artery
Pterygoid plexus