TO 1T-6A-1 T-6A Flight Manual Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
What are the reasons for manually aborting a start?
A
-ITT Rate of Increase appears likely to exceed 1000 °C (hot start)
-ITT Appears likely to remain between 871-1000 °C for >5 seconds
-Normal N1 Increase is halted (hung start)
-No rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start)
-BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during start sequence
-PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence
2
Q
What is the procedure for manually aborting a start?
A
PCL - OFF or STARTER SWITCH - AUTO/RESET
3
Q
What does the Red BAT BUS annunciator mean?
A
Battery bus inoperative
4
Q
What does the Red GEN BUS annunciator mean?
A
Generator Bus Inoperative
5
Q
What does the Red PMU FAIL annunciator mean?
A
PMU Failure
6
Q
What does the red GEN annunciator mean?
A
Generator inoperative
7
Q
What does the red CKPT PX annunciator mean?
A
Cockpit overpressurization, pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 PSI
8
Q
What does the red CANOPY annunciator mean?
A
Canopy unlocked/unsafe
9
Q
What does the red FUEL PX annunciator mean?
A
Fuel Pressure below 10 PSI in the motive flow/return flow supply line
10
Q
What does the red OIL PX annunciator mean?
A
Oil pressure at or below 15 PSI, or oil pressure 15-40 PSI for 5 seconds at idle, or oil pressure at or below 40 PSI above idle
11
Q
What does the red CHIP annunciator mean?
A
Engine chip detector indicates oil contamination
12
Q
What does the red OBOGS FAIL annunciator mean?
A
OBOGS system malfunction
13
Q
What does the red OXY CRIT annunciator mean?
A
Combined OBOGS FAIL and BOS FAIL annunciators
14
Q
What does the amber CKPT ALT annunciator mean?
A
Cockpit pressure altitude above 19,000 Feet
15
Q
What does the amber DUCT TEMP annunciator mean?
A
Environmental duct or defog duct above 300 °F
16
Q
What does the amber HYDR FL LO annunciator mean?
A
Hydraulic reservoir fluid level below 55 cubic inches (1 quart)
17
Q
What does the amber BUS TIE annunciator mean?
A
BUS TIE switch open, or bus tie inoperative
18
Q
What does the amber FUEL BAL annunciator mean?
A
Fuel imbalance exceeds 30 lbs for 2 minutes, or fuel probe fail, or EDM fail
19
Q
What does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator mean?
A
Emergency Hydraulic Pressure at or below 2400 ± 150 PSI
20
Q
What does the amber OBOGS TEMP annunciator mean?
A
OBOGS Temperature above 200 °F
21
Q
What does the amber BOS FAIL annunciator mean?
A
BOS bottle oxygen pressure drops below 500 psi or bottle regulator malfunction
22
Q
What does the amber OBOGS FAIL annunciator mean?
A
OBOGS System Malfunction
23
Q
What does the amber TAD FAIL annunciator mean?
A
Rudder trim aid device failure
24
Q
What does the amber L FUEL LO annunciator mean?
A
Left wing tank below approximately 110 lbs usable fuel
25
What does the amber R FUEL LO annunciator mean?
Right wing tank below approximately 110 lbs usable fuel
26
What does the amber PMU STATUS annunciator mean?
PMU has detected and accomodated a fault in-flight or WOW switch failure
27
What does the amber OIL PX annunciator mean?
Oil pressure 15-40 PSI at idle, or Oil pressure 40-90 PSI for 10 seconds above idle
28
What does the green IGN SEL annunciator mean?
Ignition On
29
What does the green M FUEL BAL annunciator mean?
FUEL BAL switch in MANUAL position
30
What does the green BOOST PUMP annunciator mean?
BOOST PUMP selected by switch, starter relay, or low pressure switch
30
What does the green ST READY annunciator mean?
PCL positioned for auto start
31
What does the green ANTI ICE annunciator mean?
PROBES ANTI-ICE switch on
32
What does the green TAD OFF annunciator mean?
Rudder trim aid device selected off
33
What does the green TRIM OFF annunciator mean?
TRIM DISCONNECT switch activated
34
What does the green BOS PUSH MAN ON annunciator mean?
Activation of the ABOS system
35
On the FDR Maintenance Panel, what does the amber FAIL indicator mean?
IDARS has failed, notify maintenance
36
On the FDR Maintenance Panel, what does the green MAINT indicator mean?
IDARS memory is 80% full, or over-G may have occurred, notify maintenance
37
What is the definition of Land as Soon as Possible?
An emergency shall be declared and a landing accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance
38
What is the definition of Land as Soon as Practical?
Emergency conditions are less urgent and, although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary
39
What is the definition of a Suitable Landing Area?
A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended
40
How do you confirm a Battery Bus Failure?
BAT BUS indicator as well as multiple failures of items on the Battery Bus with associated CWS annunciatiors illuminated (TRIM OFF, OIL PX, HYDR FL LOW, PMU STATUS). The most noticable failures will be the EADI, GPS, AEDD, and power off flags in the standby ADI, standby turn and slip indicator, and pressurization.
41
If Bat Bus annuncator illuminates without actual loss of battery bus what should you do?
Check CWS circuit breaker (battery bus panel front cockpit). If CWS Circuit breaker is open, DO NOT RESET, battery bus is functioning normally, land as soon as practical.
42
If you confirm a Battery Bus failure what should you do?
Descent below 10,000 Feet MSL - Initiate (As required)
Composite Switch on Unaffected Display - Push
BUS TIE Switch - Open
AUX BAT Switch - ON
BACKUP UHF - ON
AUDIO Switch - select ALTN (BOTH)
LANDING GEAR EMERGENCY EXTENTION - Execute Prior to Landing
Land as soon as Practical
43
What is the effect on configuration that a confirmed Battery Bus failure will have?
Emergency Hydraulic System will need to be used to lower gear and flaps. OBOGS will fail, cockpit will depressurize
44
If the red GEN annunciator illuminates, what should you check first?
The Starter Switch, if the Starter switch is not in NORM, the generator will not function. If the starter switch is in Manual, the generator will not function and the starter will drain battery in less than 10 minutes if left on.
45
What should you do in the event of a red GEN annunciator?
STARTER SWITCH - NORM (BOTH)
GEN SWITCH - ON (front or back)
GEN RESET SWITCH - DEPRESS AND HOLD FOR 1 SECOND MINIMUM
46
How do you confirm an inoperative generator?
DC Voltmeter below 25 Volts and Ammeter Discharging
47
If generator remains inoperative after gen reset is depressed, what should you do?
Descent Below 10,000 Ft MSL - INITIATE (AS REQUIRED)
GEN SWITCH - OFF
BUS TIE switch - OPEN
BOS PUSH MAN switch - PRESS ON
Land as soon as practical
48
What does opening the bus tie switch do in the event of generator failure?
Reduces electrical load by shedding items on the generator bus, this will permit main battery operation for at least 30 minutes.
49
How do you confirm a generator bus inoperative?
GEN BUS annunciator illuminated along with CWS annunciators illuminated for items on generator bus (most prominent indicator EHSI failure)
50
If GEN BUS annunciator illuminates without associated indicators of actual generator bus failure, what should you do?
Check CWS circuit breaker on generator bus panel and if open, DO NOT RESET.
Land as soon as practical
51
If GEN BUS annunciator illuminates with associated indicators of an actual generator bus failure, what should you do?
BUS TIE switch - NORM
Land as soon as practical
52
What should be considered unavailable if you see the HYDR FL LO annunciator and confirm it?
Normal operation of the landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering
53
If the hydraulic pressure transmitter fails, what should you see on the hydraulic pressure gauge?
0 PSI or some abnormal out of ops limits reading (all hydraulic systems should operate normally)
54
What should be considered inoperative when the EHYD PX LO annunciator is illuminated?
The emergency landing gear and flap extension system
55
How do you confirm a Hydraulic System Failure?
Hydraulic pressure below 1800 PSI or rapidly decreasing towards 0/at 0
56
What should you do in the event of an AOA Computer Fail?
AOA Circuit Breaker - PULL
Land as soon as practical
Fly known pitch, power, and airspeed settings to safely recover the aircraft.
57
When the stick shaker activates unexpectedly, what should you do?
Cross check the AOA indicator and airspeed to determine actual stall condition (Stick shaker malfunctions do not necessarily indicate a problem with the AOA indicator)
58
Study General EP Knowledge! (-1 Chapter 3)
Check
59
Oil level must be serviced within how many minutes of engine shutdown?
30 minutes (prefer between 15-20 minutes)
60
What is normal oil level on the dipstick?
Between ADD and MAX HOT
61
If engine oil is below ADD on the Dipstick, where should you refil it to?
MAX HOT
62
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery is below _____ Volts
23.5
63
Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below _____ Volts
22.0
64
Starter duty cycle is limited to how many attempts?
4
65
How many seconds should you motor in between starter duty cycles?
20 seconds
66
What are the cooling periods in between each starter duty cycle?
30 sec, 2 min, 5 min, 30 min
67
Study Engine Operating Limits
Page 5-8 on the Dash 1
68
Sustained propeller operation on the ground between ____ and _____ Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance.
62% - 80%
69
Propeller Overspeed Limit is _____ Np
110%
70
Vmo (maximum operating airspeed) is _____ KIAS up to and including _______ MSL
316 KIAS, 18,769 MSL
71
Mmo (maximum operating mach number) is _____ Mach
0.67
72
Vg (Maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration)
195 (180 is recommended)
73
Vo (Maneuvering Speed)
227 KIAS (Full rudder deflection above 150 KIAS will exceed the limits of the rudder control system)
74
Zero G max time limit
5 seconds
75
Negative G operation (including inverted) maximum time limit
60 seconds
76
Study Prohibited Maneuvers
Check
77
Study Acceleration (G) limits
78
Maximum Ramp weight
6550 pounds
79
Maximum Takeoff Weight
6500 pounds
80
Maximum landing weight
6500 pounds
81
Maximum zero fuel weight
5500 pounds
82
Maximum weight in baggage compartment
80 pounds
83
Maximum total weight of bags and publications on glareshield
8.5 pounds
84
Nose wheel steering limitations
Do not use nose wheel steering for takeoff or landing
85
Canopy defog limitations
Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing
86
Maximum Rate of Descent at Touchdown when main tires are serviced to normal landing conditions pressure
600 FPM
87
Maximum rate of descent at touchdown when main tires are serviced to maximum landing conditions pressure
780 FPM
88
Study Crosswind Limits
Check
89
When taxiing over raised arresting cables, taxi at ___________, steer to _______
as slow a speed as possible, avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts
90
Can you taxi over arresting cables with main gear doors open?
NO
91
Taxiing over lowered net barriers should be _________
avoided if at all possible
92
If contact with a lowered barrier is unavoidable ___________. _____________ after clearing the lowered barrier
Reduce power to idle and discontinue braking. Recommence braking
93
In the unlikely event that webbing catches on the aircraft, aircrews _________.
may experience directional control problems.
94
What should you do before the aircraft engages a raised web barrier?
Steer around the barrier or eject
95
Aircraft approved for transit through a _______ band of ________ type icing
5,000, light rime
96
At first indication of icing, aircrew should __________
-Ensure PROBES ANTI-ICE switch is on to prevent freezing of pitot tubes and AOA vane (if pitot tubes freeze, unreliable systems that rely on airspeed data, if AOA freezes, loss of artificial stall warning)
-Ascend or descent from the icing layer to melt or sublimate the ice
97
Aerobatics after an icing encounter are ________
Prohibited until ice accumulations on the aircraft are melted or sublimated
98
Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ______ degrees bank angle and ____ to ____ Gs normal acceleration, up until stall warning system activation
30, 0 to 2
99
For icing conditions, in landing configuration and during the landing phase, approach speed must be increased by ____ KIAS
10
100
Approved Fuels are
JP-4, JP-5, JP-8 +100 (USAF only), Jet A, Jet A +100 (USAF only), Jet A-1, Jet B, F-24, F-34, F-35, F-40, F-44, F-27 (USAF only). Commercial Jet A, Jet A-1, or Jet B may be used, providing it contains anti-ice/fungicide (PFAMB, MIL-DTL-85470 or equivalent)
101
Aerobatics operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below ____
150 pounds per side (yellow arc on gage)
102
Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is _____
50 lbs
103
Engine Operation using only the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump without both the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump is limited to ______ hours. All _______ must be recorded.
10, time in this category
104
Maximum fuel flow
799 PPH
105
Ground operation is limited to ambient temperatures of _____ to _____. Ground operations during ambient temperatures exceeding ______ is permitted for up to 15 minutes for the purpose of _________.
-23 to 43 °C, 43 °C, taxiing the aircraft to park.
106
The aircraft is cleared to operate on _________ runways only.
hard surfaced (concrete, tarmac, or similar)
107
Ejection seat pilot weight limits are a minimum weight with equipment and flight gear of ________ pounds, and maximum weight with equipment and flight gear of ______ pounds
121, 271
108
When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding ______ feet MSL, the ______ should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute
8,000, MOR Handle
109
The aircraft exhibits ______ stability in all configurations throughout the flight envelope
Positive
110
Best glide speed is _____ with a sink rate of ______ FPM
125 KIAS, 1350
111
The artificial stall warning (Stick shaker) activates a minimum of ______ knots before the stall is reached but this can range from _____ to _____ knots
5, 5-10
112
Natural stall warning (light aerodynamic buffet) occurs ____ knots before the stall
3
113
A ______ together with increased buffet, is the defining characteristic of an upright, wings-level stall
roll-off, or wing drop
114
With power off, lateral roll-off during a wings level stall is typically to the ______
Right
115
During a wings-level, power-on stall, a _____ rolling tendency is induced at stall by engine torque before reaching full aft stick.
Left
116
Above ____ torque, full _____ rudder and full _____ aileron may not prevent a _____ roll-off at stall
60%, right, right, left
117
What element of configuration aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall?
flap extension (landing gear extension, speed brake extension, and fuel imbalance all have negligible effects on stall characteristics)
118
Define Out-of-Control Flight (OCF)
A situation in which the aircraft does not respond immediately and in a normal sense to application of flight controls
119
Define Poststall Gyrations
The motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin
120
What is a spiral?
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-state in that the airspeed is increasing through 160 KIAS and motions are oscillatory.
121
What causes a spiral?
Misapplication of pro-spin controls (insufficient rudder or aft stick)
122
What is the best response to a spiral?
OCF Boldface
123
Why are spins prohibited below 10,000 Feet Pressure Altitude?
When you spin with the propeller RPM below 80%, this causes high stresses on the propeller. Above 10,000 Feet Pressure altitude, the PMU artificially maintains propeller RPM above 80%.
124
During an erect spin, what will the AOA be?
18+
125
During an erect spin, what will the airspeed stabilize at?
120-135 KIAS
126
During an erect spin, how many seconds per turn and how many feet lost per turn?
2-3 seconds, 400-500 feet
127
How much altitude is lost during the recovery from an erect spin?
1500-2000 feet (not accounting for the 500 feet lost per turn)
128
How does RCR affect TOLD?
No effect on takeoff ground run distance, lower RCR (more slick conditions) increases landing distance.
129
How does headwind affect TOLD?
Decreases takeoff ground run distance, decreases landing distance.
130
How does temperature affect TOLD
Higher Temperatures Require longer takeoff and landing distances.
131
How does pressure altitude affect TOLD?
Higher Pressure Altitudes require longer takeoff and landing distances.
132
What is the RCR (Runway Condition Reading) for a dry, wet, and icy runway respectively?
23, 12, 05
133
What is the definition of maximum braking speed?
Maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes (3.96 million foot-pounds)
134
What is the definition of maximum abort speed?
The maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.
135
What are the assumptions made when calculating maximum abort speed?
-A 3 second reaction at maximum abort speed to recognize decision to abort and select idle power
-A 3 second period to apply the brakes after idle power is selected
136
If the abort speed is greater than maximum braking speed minus 20 knots, what is your new abort speed?
Maximum braking speed minus 20 knots
137
For TOLD, you should be able to calculate:
-Min torque at 60 knots (-1 figure A3-1)
-Max abort speed Flaps TO (figure A3-1)
-Takeoff distance Flaps TO (figure A3-8)
-Landing distance (flaps up) (Figure A8-1)
138
What is the definition of maximum range?
The level flight speed which yields the maximum value of nautical air miles per pound of fuel.
139
What is the definition of Max or Best endurance?
The speed for minimum fuel flow in level flight
140
What is the definition of long range cruise speed?
The level flight speed above the maximum range speed which yields 99% of maximum range
141
What are assumptions made when calculating landing distance?
-A 3 degree approach to the 50 foot obstacle height
-Idle power and threshold speed as determined by the chart at 50 feet
-A 2 second delay from touchdown to initiation of braking
-Maximum braking is obtained once the aircraft is firmly on the ground and continues to a full stop
-The braking friction coefficient for a dry asphalt or concrete runway corresponds to an RCR of 23
