Top 100 OTC Drugs Flashcards

Question

What are the dosage forms for Alpha-D-Galactosidase?

Answer 1

Chewable tablet- 150 Units Disintegrating tablet- 300 Units

Answer 2

Intestinal gas, bloating, and flatulence

Answer 3

Older than 12 years: -Chewable table: 2-3 tablets PO before meal

Answer 4

Older than 12 years: -Disintegrating tablet: 1 table PO before meal

Answer 5

Natural food enzyme derived from the A. niger mold that breaks down nonabsorbable complex carbohydrates in foods before they can be metabolized by colonic bacteria, resulting in less bloating and flatulence.

Answer 6

Hypersensitivity and patients with galactosemia (metabolic disorder interfering with the metabolism of galactose)

Answer 7

None known

Answer 8

None known

Answer 9

Domeboro powder, Burow solution, and Boro-packs

Answer 10

Each pack contain 1,347mg of aluminum sulfate and 952mg of calcium acetate. When dissolved it forms aluminum acetate

Answer 11

Topical gel contain 0.2-0.5% concentration

Answer 12

Skin irritation

Answer 13

Older than 2 years: Apply wet compress topically to affected area for 15-20 minutes up to TID or soak affected area in solution for 20-30 minutes Q4-8H PRN.

Answer 14

Aluminum acetate is a topical astringent that provides temporary relief of minor skin irritations (eg, insect bites, athlete’s foot, poison ivy/oak/sumac, and other contact dermatitis). The solution helps relieve itching, has a cooling and drying effect, and is particularly useful on wet or weeping lesions.

Answer 15

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 16

Local skin irritation, inflammation, and dryness (>10%)

Answer 17

Rash (1-10%)

Answer 18

None known

Answer 19

Biotene and Salivea

Answer 20

Various dosages available in the form of solutions, sprays, pastes, gels, toothpastes, lozenges, and chewing gum.

Answer 21

The product contains a combination of water, electrolytes, proteins, sugars, and lubricants.

Answer 22

Xerostomia associated with hyposalivation. Mucositis associated with cancer chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or medication use.

Answer 23

Replaces or supplements naturally produced saliva to lubricate and protect the oral mucosa.

Answer 24

Older than 12 years: Dosing and frequency depends on dosage form. Most products are intended to be swished and spit out. Sprays, pastes, lozenges, and some solutions may be swallowed as often as needed to relieve dry mouth symptoms.

Answer 25

Altered taste, speech, and swallowing, and nausea (1-10%)

Answer 26

Hypersensitivity to any component in the product.

Answer 27

None known

Answer 28

Various solutions are available

Answer 29

Water, glycerin, polyethylene glycol, propylene glycol, and lubricants

Answer 30

Ocular dryness

Answer 31

1-2 drops in affected eye(s) PRN for symptomatic relief.

Answer 32

Replace or supplement naturally produced tears with product that has similar moisturizing characteristics to lubricate and protect the eye and relieve burning and stinging associated with dry eyes.

Answer 33

Hypersensitivity to any product component

Answer 34

Blurred vision, crust development, and stinging on administration (1-10%)

Answer 35

None known

Answer 36

Bayer and Vazalore

Answer 37

Caplet- 81, 325, 500mg Chewable tablet- 81mg DR tablet- 81mg Enteric coated caplet- 325mg Enteric coated tablet- 81, 325, 650mg Liquid-filled capsule- 81, 325mg Tablet- 325, 500mg

Answer 38

Older than 12 years: Fever- 325-650mg PO Q4-6H PRN (max 4g/day) Generalized aches, pains, and headache- 325-650mg PO Q4H PRN (max 4g/day)

Answer 39

Fever, generalized aches, pains, and headaches

Answer 40

Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting platelet cyclooxygenase, and therefore preventing the production of thromboxane A(2), a powerful inducer of platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.

Answer 41

Hypersensitivity, asthma, rhinitis, nasal polyps, inherited or acquired bleeding disorder, and those younger than 18 with viral infection.

Answer 42

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, headaches, and indigestion (>10%)

Answer 43

Arthralgia (joint pain or stiffness), bleeding, bruising, and tinnitus (buzzing in ear) (1-10%)

Answer 44

Angioedema (swelling in deep layers of skin), GI hemorrhage, GI ulcer, Reye syndrome (swelling in liver and brain), and Steven-Johnson Syndrome (fatal skin rxn) (<1%)

Answer 45

NSAIDS Anticoagulants and antiplatelets SSRIs and SNRIs Oral corticosteriods

Answer 46

Nasal spray 0.15% (137mcg/actuation)

Answer 47

Older than 12 years: Perennial allergic rhinitis- 2 sprays/ nostril BID Seasonal allergic rhinitis: 1-2 sprays/ nostril BID

Answer 48

6-12 years old: Perennial allergic rhinitis- 1 spray/nostril BID Seasonal allergic rhinitis- 1 spray/ nostril BID

Answer 49

Azelastine is a selective H1-receptor antagonist that blocks release of histamine from cells involved in the allergic response. It also inhibits other mediators of allergic reactions (eg, leukotrienes, etc), and reduces chemotaxis and eosinophil activation.

Answer 50

Hypersensitivity

Answer 51

Bitter taste in mouth, headache, somnolence (drowsiness), and rhinitis (>10%)

Answer 52

Fatigue, epistaxis (nose bleed), pharyngitis, and sneezing (1-10%)

Answer 53

CNS depressants

Answer 54

Bacitracin is a topical ointment with 400 Units/gram

Answer 55

Neomycin is a topical ointment with 3.5mg/gram

Answer 56

Polymyxin B is a topical ointment with 5000 Units/gram

Answer 57

Older than 2 years: Prevent infection in minor cuts, scrapes, and burns- apply to affected area up to TID.

Answer 58

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by preventing the transfer of mucopeptides into the growing cell wall.

Answer 59

Interferes with bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunits.

Answer 60

Binds to phospholipids, alters permeability, and damages bacterial cytoplasmic membrane therefore permitting leakage of intracellular contents.

Answer 61

Hypersensitivity

Answer 62

Dry skin, itching, redness, and burning in affected area (1-10%)

Answer 63

Rash and hypersensitivity (<1%)

Answer 64

None known

Answer 65

Anbesol and Cepacol

Answer 66

Lozenge- 3, 4, 7.5, 10, 15mg Oral gel- 7.5, 10, 20% Oral liquid- 10, 20% Oral solution- 20% Oral strip- 6% Oral swap- 20% Topical liquid- 2.1% Topical ointment- 2, 5, 10, 20% Topical spray- 2%

Answer 67

Skin, mouth, throat, gum pain Hemorrhoids Skin irritation

Answer 68

Older than 2 years: Skin, mouth, throat, gum pain- apply spray to affected area Q2-4H PRN (max 4 dose/day)

Answer 69

Older than 5 years: Throat pain- dissolve 1 lozenge slowly in mouth Q2-4H PRN (max 4-6 doses/day)

Answer 70

Local anesthetic blocks both the initiation and conduction of nerve impulses by decreasing the neuronal membrane’s permeability to sodium ions, which results in inhibition of depolarization with resultant blockade of conduction. The penetration of benzocaine spray into intact skin is sufficient to produce an analgesic effect, but less than the amount necessary to produce a complete sensory block.

Answer 71

Hypersensitivity secondary bacterial infection.

Answer 72

Skin irritation, rash, and tenderness (1-10%)

Answer 73

Cardiac arrest, cardiac dysrhythmia, severe hypersensitivity, and methemoglobinemia (elevated methemoglobin in the blood) (<1%)

Answer 74

None known

Answer 75

Proactiv (Kendall Jenner commercial)

Answer 76

It comes in a liquid, gel, bar soap, lotion, creams, and cleaners all between 2.5-10%

Answer 77

Acne Vulgaris

Answer 78

Acne vulgaris: Topical- apply small amount to affected area 1x/day, may increase to 2-3x/day if tolerated Cleansers- wash affected area 1-2x/day and may be used QOD if excessive dryness

Answer 79

Benzoyl peroxide is an antibacterial, comedolytic, and sebostatic agent. It has bactericidal activity against P. acnes and S. epidermidis. It also has drying activity, reduces excess sebum, and produces mild desquamation, resolving acne lesions.

Answer 80

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 81

Dry skin, irritation, burning sensation, itching, and peeling (>10%)

Answer 82

Contact dermatitis and erythema (redness) (1-10%)

Answer 83

None known

Answer 84

Capsules: 1 billion colony-forming Units when made and provides 10 million Units by best-by-date. 5 billion colony-forming Units when made and provides 50 million Units by best-by-date.

Answer 85

GIT colonization for treatment of inflammatory GIT disorders, diarrheal illnesses, and IBS. GIT colonization during antibiotic use.

Answer 86

6 years and older: GIT colonization for treatment of inflammatory GI disorders, diarrheal illnesses, and IBS- 1 capsule PO daily, may increase to 10 billion Units PO daily to achieve therapeutic effects.

Answer 87

6 years and older: GIT colonization during antibiotic use- 15-20 billion viable cells PO daily

Answer 88

B. infantis is a gram-positive, anaerobic bacterium that is considered a key beneficial bacterium in human-microbe interactions and is believed to play an important role in maintaining a healthy GI tract. It is one of the most predominant members of the human GI microflora. As a probiotic, B. infantis is thought to exert its effect by suppressing the growth of pathogenic bacteria in the gut, improving intestinal barrier function, modulating the immune system, or modulating pain perception in intestinal epithelial cells.

Answer 89

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product and severe acute pancreatitis.

Answer 90

Diarrhea, constipation, and abdominal discomfort (>10%)

Answer 91

Nausea and taste disturbances (1-10%)

Answer 92

None known

Answer 93

Dulcolax (think lax like laxative)

Answer 94

Enteric-coated tablet- 5mg Rectal enema- 10mg/30mL Suppository- 10mg`

Answer 95

12 years or older: Constipation- 5-15mg PO or 10mg per rectum in a single dose

Answer 96

6-12 years old: Constipation- 5mg PO or per rectum once. Not for those younger than 6 years.

Answer 97

It is a stimulant laxative that stimulates sensory nerve endings in the colon to produce parasympathetic reflexes resulting in peristalsis.

Answer 98

Hypersensitivity to bisacodyl and intestinal obstruction

Answer 99

Abdominal pain (>10%)

Answer 100

Nausea, rectal burning, vertigo, and vomiting (1-10%)

Answer 101

Electrolyte and fluid imbalance, metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, and hypocalcemia (<1%)

Answer 102

Antacids- compromise enteric coating releasing drug before entrance into small intestine.

Answer 103

Pepto-bismol or Kaopectate

Answer 104

1. Oral suspension (262mg/15mL or 525mg/15mL) 2. Chewable tablet (262mg)

Answer 105

Diarrhea, heartburn, and nausea: 12 years and older- 525 mg every 30min-1hr as needed. Maximum of 8 doses/24 hours

Answer 106

Bismuth subsalicylate contains 42% salicylate and 58% bismuth. Bismuth has demonstrated numerous actions in the GI tract, including antibacterial activity, protective effects on the gastric mucosa, binding of the ulcer base and mucus, and binding of bile acids. It is used for the treatment of nonspecific and acute infectious diarrhea (exerting antimicrobial and antisecretory properties) and symptoms of dyspepsia.

Answer 107

1. Hypersensitivity to any component of the product 2. Hypersensitivity to salicylates (including aspirin) 3. Presence of GI bleeding, active ulcer, and bloody or black stool 4. Children who have or are recovering from the flu or varicella

Answer 108

Constipation, discoloration of tongue, grayish/black stools (>10%)

Answer 109

Anxiety, mental depression, confusion, headache, slurred speech, muscle spasms, weakness, hearing loss, and tinnitus (1-10%)

Answer 110

Anaphylaxis, encephalopathy, and neurotoxicity (at high doses) (<1%)

Answer 111

Tetracycline antibiotics as it decreases their absorption.

Answer 112

Cimicifuga Racemosa, Bugbane, Black Snakeroot, and Rattle Weed

Answer 113

Various forms, doses, and strengths as it is a supplement not regulated by the FDA.

Answer 114

Menopausal Symptoms: 6.5-160 mg PO Daily

Answer 115

Biologically active constituents in the black cohosh rhizome (root) include actein, cimicifugoside, resins, caffeic acids, isoferulic acids, and isoflavones. May reduce circulating levels of luteinizing hormones and stimulate dopamine receptors that in turn oppose prolactin.

Answer 116

Hypersensitive to product or an aspirin sensitivity

Answer 117

GIT distress (>10%)

Answer 118

Headache and dizziness (1-10%)

Answer 119

Elevated liver functions test, liver failure, and seizures (<1%)

Answer 120

CYP3A4/5, CYP2C19, and CYP2D6 Leads to decreased substrate metabolism and increased adverse effects

Answer 121

Opthalmic solution of 0.025%

Answer 122

Ocular Redness: 5 years and older- 1 drop in affected eye Q6-8Hr PRN (max 4 doses/day)

Answer 123

Brimonidine, a relatively selective alpha-adrenergic agonist, reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow, which can reduce ocular redness. It is also used to lower IOP in open-angle glaucoma or ocular hypertension.

Answer 124

Hypersensitivity to Brimonidine Concurrent use with MAOIs Less than 2 years of age

Answer 125

Allergic conjunctivitis and conjunctival discoloration (>10%)

Answer 126

Burning sensation in the eye, hypertension, xerostomia, somnolence, hypersensitivity reaction, visual disturbance (1-10%)

Answer 127

Syncope and arrhythmias (<1%)

Answer 128

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) Taking concurrently increases the risk for CNS depression

Answer 129

There is no specific brand name.

Answer 130

Nasal suspension with 32 mcg/actuation

Answer 131

Upper Respiratory Allergies: 6-11 years of age- 1 spray/nostril/day (max 128mcg/day)

Answer 132

Upper Respiratory Allergies: 12 years and older- 2 sprays/nostril/day (max 128mcg/day)

Answer 133

Budesonide is an anti-inflammatory with potent glucocorticoid and weak mineralocorticoid activity. It exhibits a broad range of active inhibition against multiple cell types and mediators involving allergic and nonallergic/irritant-mediated inflammation.

Answer 134

Hypersensitivity to Budesonide or milk proteins (Flexhaler) Primary treatment of status asthmaticus or other acute episodes of asthma.

Answer 135

Upper respiratory tract infection (>10%)

Answer 136

Cough, diarrhea, dysphonia, headache, nausea, oral candidiasis, and throat irritation (1-10%)

Answer 137

Cataracts, decreased body growth, and decreased bone mineral density (<1%)

Answer 138

1. Azole antifungals and macrolides- decreases concentration of Budesonide 2. CYP3A4/5 Inducers- Increases Budesonide metabolism therefore decreasing effectiveness 3. CYP3A4/5 Inhibitors- Decreases Budesonide metabolism therefore increasing risk of toxicity

Answer 139

Petasites is the purified extract rom the butterbur plant. Supplement not regulated by FDA so there are various dosing forms and doses available.

Answer 140

Migraine prevention and allergic rhinitis

Answer 141

Migraine Prevention: Adult- 50-75 mg PO BID for up to 4 months AND 6 or older- 25-50 mg PO BID for up to 4 months

Answer 142

Allergic Rhinitis: Adult- 8 mg PO QID

Answer 143

Petasites is the active ingredient from the butterbur plant and has smooth muscle relaxant activity on vascular walls with a particular affinity for cerebral blood vessels. In allergic rhinitis, butterbur and purified petasin decrease blood concentrations of histamine and leukotrienes. They also appear to decrease priming of mast cells in response to contact with allergens.

Answer 144

Hypersensitivity, pregnancy, lactation, and current use of anticholinergic medications

Answer 145

Nausea, flatulence, and burping (>10%)

Answer 146

Itching, rash, hot flashes, headaches, and skin discoloration (1-10%)

Answer 147

Anaphylaxis, elevated liver function tests, and cholestatic hepatitis (<1%)

Answer 148

CYP3A4/5- Increases production of toxic metabolites Anticholinergics- additive toxicity

Answer 149

NoDoz and Jet-Alert

Answer 150

Oral tablet: 100 and 200 mg Solution: 60mg/3mL

Answer 151

Mental alertness: 12 years and older- 100-200mg PO Q3-4Hr PRN

Answer 152

Caffeine increases levels of cyclic AMP by inhibiting phosphodiesterase; CNS stimulant that increases medullary respiratory center sensitivity to carbon dioxide

Answer 153

Hypersensitivity

Answer 154

Insomnia and GI upset (>10%)

Answer 155

Irritability, restlessness, palpitations, and miosis (1-10%)

Answer 156

Ventricular arrhythmias, sinus tachycardia, chest pain, and flushing (<1%)

Answer 157

1. Tablet- 364, 648, 1250, 1500 mg 2. Chewable tablet- 260, 420, 500, 750, 1250 mg 3. Capsule- 200, 364, 1250 mg 4. Suspension- 1250 mg/5 mL

Answer 158

Antacid and Dietary supplementation

Answer 159

Antacid: 12 years and older: 2-4 tablets PO Q2H PRN (max 8g/24 hours)

Answer 160

Antacid: 6-11 years old: 364 mg PO Q2Hr PRN (max 966mg/24hr)

Answer 161

Antacid: 2-5 years old: 161 mg PO Q2H PRN (max 483mg/24 hr)

Answer 162

Look at preface card with the age-specific RDA requirements.

Answer 163

Calcium salts neutralize gastric acidity.

Answer 164

Hypersensitivity, hypercalcemia, renal calculi, hypophosphatemia, and patients with suspected digoxin toxicity.

Answer 165

Diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation (>10%)

Answer 166

Nausea, vomiting, headache, and dehydration (1-10%)

Answer 167

Electrolyte and fluid imbalance (<1%)

Answer 168

1. Quinolone Antibiotics- decreased absorption of quinolones by chelation with calcium carbonate 2. Bisphosphonates- decreased bisphosphonate absorption 3. Iron- calcium reduces iron absorption

Answer 169

Tablet as 625 mg

Answer 170

Laxative and antidiarrheal: 12 years and older: 1250mg PO up to 4x per day. Not recommended for those under 12 years of age.

Answer 171

Polycarbophil (calcium polycarbophil) is a hydrophilic resin capable of absorbing 60 times its original weight in water. It is not absorbed and is metabolically inert. In the treatment of diarrhea, polycarbophil absorbs free fecal water, forming a gel and producing formed stools. As a bulk laxative, it retains free water, increasing luminal pressure and peristalsis and decreasing transit time.

Answer 172

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product Diagnosed or suspected bowel obstruction and difficulty swallowing

Answer 173

Diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation (>10%)

Answer 174

Nausea, vomiting, and dehydration (1-10%)

Answer 175

Electrolyte and fluid imbalance (<1%)

Answer 176

1. Quinolone antibiotics- decreased absorption of quinolones by chelation with calcium 2. Bisphosphonates- decreased bisphosphonate absorption 3. Iron products- calcium reduces iron absorption

Answer 177

Not regulated by the FDA therefore a variety of dosage forms and doses exist.

Answer 178

Nausea and vomiting Pain

Answer 179

Nausea and vomiting: 2.5 mg/ kg PO BID

Answer 180

Pain: 2.5 mg/ kg PO BID

Answer 181

Promotes analgesia, anxiolytic, antipsychotic, antidepressant, and antiemetic effects by activating serotonin 5-HT1a.

Answer 182

Hypersensitivity

Answer 183

Drowsiness, lethargy, sedation, fatigue, malaise, rash, weight loss, diarrhea, and elevated liver function tests (>10%)

Answer 184

Agitation, irritability, and aggressive behavior (1-10%)

Answer 185

Erythema, pruritus, and angioedema

Answer 186

CYP2C19 substrates: Competitive inhibition of CYP2C19 metabolism by cannabidiol therefore reducing metabolism of substrates.

Answer 187

Capsaicin-P and Zostrix

Answer 188

1. Topical patch- 0.025, 0.0375, 0.05% 2. Topical pad- 0.025% 3. Topical Cream- 0.025, 0.037, 0.075, 0.1% 4. Topical Gel- 0.025% 5. Topical lotion- 0.025, 0.15%

Answer 189

Minor Pain: Older than 12 years: Apply 1 patch or thin layer to affected area 3-4x/ day for 7 days. Patch must remain in place for 8 hours.

Answer 190

Capsaicin is an agonist of the transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 (TRPV1) receptor, found in nociceptive nerve fibers. Activation of TRPV1 by capsaicin results in depolarization, initiation of action potential, and pain signal transmission to the spinal cord, and subsequent desensitization and inhibition of pain transmission initiation.

Answer 191

Hypersensitivity to capsaicin or chili peppers.

Answer 192

Local erythema and pain (>10%)

Answer 193

Dry skin, pruritus, and burning in affected areas (1-10%)

Answer 194

Severe rash and hypersensitivity (<1%)

Answer 195

None known

Answer 196

Otic solution at 6.5%

Answer 197

Aid in earwax removal: 12 years and older: 5-10 drops BID up to 4 days

Answer 198

Carbamide peroxide breaks down into hydrogen peroxide and urea. Hydrogen peroxide subsequently releases oxygen, causing foaming on contact with wax and loosening and softening impacted cerumen.

Answer 199

Hypersensitivity, age less than 3 years, ear injury, ear surgery in the past 6 weeks, presence of tympanostomy tubes, and presence of discharge from ear or ear pain.

Answer 200

None known

Answer 201

Local erythema and pain (1-10%)

Answer 202

Severe rash, hypersensitivity, and super-infection (<1%)

Answer 203

None known

Answer 204

1. Oral solution: 1mg/mL 2. Tablet: 5, 10mg 3. Chewable tablet: 5, 10mg 4. liquid-filled capsule: 10mg 5. Disintegrating oral tablet: 10mg

Answer 205

Perennial or seasonal allergic rhinitis: 6 years or older: 5-10 mg PO daily

Answer 206

Perennial or seasonal allergic rhinitis: 2-5 years old: 2.5-5 mg PO daily

Answer 207

Cetirizine is a low-sedating, long-acting H1-receptor antagonist that is a metabolite of hydroxyzine. Cetirizine competitively inhibits the interaction of histamine with H1-receptors, thereby preventing the allergic response.

Answer 208

Hypersensitivity to cetirizine or hydroxyzine

Answer 209

Drowsiness and headache (>10%)

Answer 210

Sedation, dry mouth, fatigue, pharyngitis, dizziness, and nausea (1-10%)

Answer 211

None known

Answer 212

1. CNS Depressants (ie: opioids, BZs, and alcohol)- possible increase in sedative effects 2. P-glycoprotein inducers- increase cetirizine transport reducing cetirizine effectiveness 3. P-glycoprotein inhibitor- decrease cetirizine transport increasing risk of toxicity

Answer 213

Chlor-Trimeton

Answer 214

1. Tablet: 4mg 2. ER tablet: 12mg 3. Syrup: 2mg/5mL 4. Liquid: 2mg/1mL

Answer 215

Allergic rhinitis: 12 years and older: Immediate release 4 mg Q4-6H PRN and ER 12 mg Q12H PRN (max 24mg/ 24hr)

Answer 216

Allergic rhinitis: 6-12 years old: Immediate release 2 mg Q4-6Hr PRN (max 12mg/ 24 hr)

Answer 217

Chlorpheniramine specifically blocks the H1-receptor, which inhibits the action of histamine.

Answer 218

Narrow-angle glaucoma, bladder obstruction, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and use during acute asthma attacks

Answer 219

Somnolence (>10%)

Answer 220

Headache, fatigue, xerostomia, diplopia, abdominal pain, and urinary retention (1-10%)

Answer 221

Arrhythmias, hypersensitivity, and seizures (<1%)

Answer 222

1. BZs, Barbs, Opioids, and centrally acting muscle relaxants- additive CNS depression 2. Amantadine, glycopyrrolate, scopolamine, and tiotropium- additive anticholinergic adverse effects

Answer 223

Vitamin D3 and D-Vi-Sol

Answer 224

1. Tablet: 400, 800, 1000, 2000, 3000, 5000, 10,000, 50,000 Units 2. Chewable tablet: 400, 2000 Units 3. Capsule: 1000, 2000, 5000, 10,000, 25,000, 50,000 Units 4. Liquid: 400 units/mL, 5000 units/mL

Answer 225

Dietary supplementation: See preface card for age-specific RDA requirements

Answer 226

Cholecalciferol is metabolized to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol), which binds to the intracellular vitamin D receptor to activate vitamin D response elements within target genes and is required for calcium homeostasis.

Answer 227

Hypercalcemia, hypersensitivity malabsorption syndrome, and evidence of vitamin D toxicity.

Answer 228

None known

Answer 229

Gi Distress (1-10%)

Answer 230

Hypercalcemia resulting in headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and arrhythmias (<1%)

Answer 231

1. Multivitamins and vitamin D analogues- increase risk of vitamin D toxicity 2. Aluminum hydroxide and sucralfate- increased aluminum absorption and toxicity 3. Bile acid sequestrants and orlistat- reduced vitamin D absorption

Answer 232

Lotrimin AF (He got fungus as fuck)

Answer 233

1. Topical cream- 1% 2. Vaginal cream- 1, 2% 3. Ointment- 1% 4. Topical solution- 1%

Answer 234

Skin fungal infections like jock itch, ringworm, and athlete's foot Vulvovaginal candidiasis

Answer 235

Skin fungal infections: Older than 2 years of age: Apply to affected area BID for 2 weeks for jock itch and 4 weeks for ringworm and athlete's foot.

Answer 236

Vulvovaginal candidiasis: Older than 12 years: Insert 1 application full of cream vaginally daily for 7 days for 1% cream and for 3 days for 2% cream

Answer 237

Clotrimazole inhibits biosynthesis of ergosterol or other sterols, damaging the fungal cell wall membrane and altering its permeability.

Answer 238

Hypersensitivity

Answer 239

None known

Answer 240

Dry skin and burning in affected area (1-10%)

Answer 241

Rash, hypersensitivity, and vaginal discharge (<1%)

Answer 242

None known

Answer 243

Topical creams, lotions, ointments, and bath products

Answer 244

Dry skin, pruritus, and eczema: Older than 2 years: apply products topically to affected areas PRN. May apply many times daily PRN. As a bath product, add to a warm bath and soak.

Answer 245

Colloidal oatmeal, extracted from natural oats, has a high concentration of starches and beta-glucan, and has protective and water-holding functions, providing moisturizing activity. It also contains various phenols that confer antioxidant and anti-inflammatory activity, providing temporary relief from pruritus.

Answer 246

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 247

Local skin irritation, inflammation, and dryness (>10%)

Answer 248

Rash (1-10%)

Answer 249

None known

Answer 250

None known

Answer 251

Nasal inhaler with 5.2 mg/ activation

Answer 252

Perennial or seasonal allergic rhinitis prevention or treatment: 2 years and older: 1 spray/nostril 3-4x/day (Q4-6H) up to 1 week prior to contact with allergen. max of 6x/day

Answer 253

Cromolyn reduces symptoms associated with rhinitis by producing mast-cell protective effects against antigen-antibody reactions (IgE-type) and blocking liberation of mediators of anaphylaxis, such as histamine.

Answer 254

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 255

Sneezing, bruning, stinging, or irritation inside the nose (>10%)

Answer 256

Headache, unpleasant taste in mouth, hoarseness, cough, and post nasal drip (1-10%)

Answer 257

None known

Answer 258

Dr. Scholl's Freeze away

Answer 259

Topical aerosol with application. Aerosol coolant could be either dimethyl ether or propane)

Answer 260

Wart Removal: Older than 4 years of age: follow manufacturer instructions. Generally apply cooled applicator to wart for 10-20 seconds once. If wart is not removed, repeat 2 weeks later up to 4 times.

Answer 261

Cryotherapy selectively necroses wart tissue by reducing the temperature of cells infected with viruses that cause warts.

Answer 262

Hypersensitivity to any component of product Do not use in those under 4 years old

Answer 263

Burning or stinging sensation at site of admin (>10%)

Answer 264

Skin irritation and bleeding (1-10%)

Answer 265

Thermal burns with inappropriate use (<1%)

Answer 266

Delsym, Robitussin, and Triaminic

Answer 267

1. Oral capsule- 15mg 2. Oral tablet- 15mg 3. Oral lozenge- 5mg 4. Oral Gel, Liquid, Syrup- 5mg/5mL, 7.5mg/5mL, 10mg/5mL, 12.5mg/mL 5. ER liquid- 30mg/5mL 6. Oral strip- 7.5mg

Answer 268

Cough: 12 and older: -Immediate release 10-20mg PO Q4H PRN or 20-30mg PO Q6-8H PRH -ER 60mg PO BID (max 120mg/day)

Answer 269

Cough: 6-12 years: -Immediate release 10mg PO Q4H PRN -ER 30mg PO BID (max 60mg/day)

Answer 270

Cough: 4-6 years: -immediate release 5mg PO Q4H PRN (max 30mg/day)

Answer 271

Dextromethorphan is the D-isomer of levorphanol (a codeine analogue). It has no analgesic or addictive properties but suppresses cough by depressing the cough center in the medulla oblongata.

Answer 272

Hypersensitivity to any component of the production and concurrent use for MAOIs or use within 2 weeks of discontinuing MAOIs

Answer 273

None known

Answer 274

Confusion, excitement, irritability, dizziness, and nervousness (1-10%)

Answer 275

Rash and serotonin syndrome (<1%)

Answer 276

1. MAOIs, SSRIs, SNRIs, sibutramine, and antipsychotics- Increased risk for serotonin syndrome 2. CYP2D6 Inducers- increased metabolism of dextromethorphan therefore decreased efficacy 3. CYP2D6 Inhibitors- decreased metabolism of dextromethorphan therefore increased toxicity

Answer 277

Voltaren or Aleve Arthritis Pain Gel

Answer 278

Osteoarthritis and Pain

Answer 279

Osteoarthritis: Apply to affected area up to QID PRN and use dosing card to measure 2.25inches for upper body areas and 4.5inches for lower body areas

Answer 280

Pain: Apply to affected are QID PRN and use dosing card to measure 2-4inches depending on affected area

Answer 281

Nonselective inhibitor of cyclo-oxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2).

Answer 282

Cardiovascular risk, GI risk, and Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

Answer 283

Hypersensitivity to diclofenac Concurrent ketorolac use Asthma Allergic-type reaction following other NSAID use Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

Answer 284

Application site pain, itching, rash, and xeroderma (>10%)

Answer 285

Diarrhea and headache (1-10%)

Answer 286

Vasodilation, skin cancer, and hypertonia (<1%)

Answer 287

1. Aspirin 2. Low-molecular weight Heparins 3. SSRIs 4. NSAIDs 5. Pentoxifylline 6. ACEIs 7. ARBs 8. Beta-blockers 9. Diuretics (loop and thiazide) 10. Cholestyramine 11. Most CYP inducers 12. Most CYP inhibitors 13. Pemetrexed 14. Sulfonylureas 15. Warfarin 16. Cyclosporine 17. Tacrolimus

Answer 288

Oral tablet as 50mg and chewable tablet as 50mg

Answer 289

Prevention and treatment of motion sickness

Answer 290

Prevention and treatment of motion sickness 12 years and older: 50-100mg PO 30-60 minutes before departure and may repeat Q4-6H PRN (max 400mg/day)

Answer 291

Prevention and treatment of motion sickness: 6-12 years: 25-50mg PO 30-60 minutes before departure and may repeat Q6-8H (max 150mg/day)

Answer 292

Prevention and treatment of motion sickness: 2-6 years: 12.5-25mg 30-60 minutes before departure and may repeat Q6-8H PRN (max 75mg/day)

Answer 293

Dimenhydrinate is a salt of 2 drugs, diphenhydramine (53-55.5%) and 8-chlorotheophylline (44-47%). The efficacy of dimenhydrinate in motion sickness is related to effects on labyrinthine function, and it has been shown to inhibit the vestibular system. It competes with histamine for H1-receptor sites on effector cells in the GI tract and blocks chemoreceptor trigger zone.

Answer 294

Hypersensitivity to dimenhydrinate or diphenhydramine

Answer 295

Dizziness, drowsiness, nervousness, and restlessness (>10%)

Answer 296

Headache, dry mouth, fatigue, nausea, excitation, and insomnia (1-10%)

Answer 297

Hypersensitivity, rash, dysuria, and tachycardia (<1%)

Answer 298

1. CNS depressants (opioids, BZs, alcohol)- increase in sedation 2. Anticholinergics- enhanced anticholinergic effects

Answer 299

Benadryl and ZzzQuil

Answer 300

1. Oral tablet and capsule- 25, 50mg 2. Chewable tablet- 12.5, 25mg 3. Oral liquid- 12.5mg/5mL, 50mg/3mL

Answer 301

Allergic reactions, cough, sleep, and motion sickness

Answer 302

Allergic reactions: 12 years and older: 25-50mg PO Q4-6H (max 300mg/day)

Answer 303

Allergic reaction: 6-12 years: 25 mg PO Q4-6H (max 150mg/day)

Answer 304

Cough: 12 years and older: 25 mg PO Q4H (max 150mg/day)

Answer 305

Cough: 6-12 years: 12.5 mg Q4H PRN (max 75mg/day)

Answer 306

Sleep: 12 and older: 50 mg PO HS PRN, given 20-30 minutes before bedtime

Answer 307

Motion sickness: 12 and older: 50 mg PO Q6-8H, give first dose 30 minutes before travel

Answer 308

Diphenhydramine competes with histamine for H1-receptor sites on effector cells in the GI tract, CNS, and blocks chemoreceptor trigger zone.

Answer 309

Hypersensitivity to dimenhydrinate or diphenhydramine

Answer 310

Dizziness, dowsiness, nervousness, and restlessness (>10%)

Answer 311

Headache, dry mouth, fatigue, nausea, excitation, insomnia, and constipation (1-10%)

Answer 312

Chest tightness, hypotension, palpitations, tachycardia, hypersensitivity, rash, and urinary retention (<1%)

Answer 313

1. CNS depressants (BZs, opioids, and alcohol)_ increase sedation effects 2. Anticholinergics- additive anticholinergic effect 3. CYP2D6 Substrates- decreased metabolism of substrates leading to increased toxicity

Answer 314

1. Cream- 1,2% 2. Topical Gel-2% 3. Solution- 2% 4. Stick-2%

Answer 315

Pruritus: 2 years and older: Apply thin layer TID-QID PRN

Answer 316

Diphenhydramine competes with histamine for H1-receptor sites.

Answer 317

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 318

Photosensitivity (>10%)

Answer 319

Rash, drowsiness, and urticaria (1-10%)

Answer 320

None known

Answer 321

None known

Answer 322

Topical cream of 10%

Answer 323

Herpes simplex virus (cold sore, fever blister): 12 years and older: apply thin layer to affected area 5x/day for up to 10 days starting at the first sign of lesion and continuing until healed.

Answer 324

Docosanol inhibits viruses that enter cells by fusion with the plasma membrane of the cell. It inhibits entry of the virus into the cell and fusion between the plasma membrane and the viral envelope. As the virion is not able to migrate into the nucleus of the cell, viral replication is blocked. Docosanol has no direct viricidal activity.

Answer 325

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product.

Answer 326

None known

Answer 327

Burning or stinging at site of admin, pruritus, and drying of skin (1-10%)

Answer 328

Hypersensitivity (<1%)

Answer 329

None known

Answer 330

1. Oral capsule- 100, 250mg (sodium salt), 240mg (calcium salt) 2. Liquid- 50mg/5mL, 100mg/5mL (sodium salt) 3. Syrup- 60mg/15mL (sodium salt) 4. Oral tablet- 100mg (sodium salt) 5. Rectal enema- 100mg/5mL, 283mg/5mL (sodium salt)

Answer 331

Constipation

Answer 332

Constipation: 12 and older: 50-360mg (sodium) PO daily in 1 or 2 divided doses or 240mg PO daily (calcium)

Answer 333

Constipation: 6-12 years: 40-120mg PO daily in 1-4 divided doses (sodium)

Answer 334

Constipation: 2-6 years: 50-150mg PO daily in 1-4 divided doses

Answer 335

Docusate is an anionic surfactant that acts as a stool softener; it is believed to stimulate intestinal secretion and increase the penetration of fluid into the stool by emulsifying feces, water, and fat.

Answer 336

Hypersensitivity to docusate and/or intestinal obstruction

Answer 337

Abdominal cramps and bitter taste (>10%)

Answer 338

Nausea and throat irritation (1-10%)

Answer 339

None known

Answer 340

None known

Answer 341

Unisom Sleep Tabs

Answer 342

Oral tablet as 25mg

Answer 343

Sleep: 12 years and older: 25mg PO HS PRN

Answer 344

Doxylamine competes with histamine for H1-receptor sites. One of its adverse effects, sedation, is the basis for its use as a hypnotic.

Answer 345

Hypersensitivity to any component of the product

Answer 346

Dizziness, drowsiness, nervousness, and restlessness (>10%)

Answer 347

Headache, dry mouth, fatigue, nausea, excitation, insomnia, constipation, and blurry vision (1-10%)

Answer 348

Chest tightness, hypotension, palpitation, tachycardia, hypersensitivity, rash, and urinary retention (<1%)

Answer 349

1. CNS depressants (opioids, BZs, and alcohol)- increase in sedation 2. Anticholinergics- additive anticholinergic effects

Answer 350

Coneflower

Answer 351

Capsule of 100mg extracted from E. angustifolia roots with capsule content 2.4% soluble beta-1,2-D-fructofuranosides. Not regulated by the FDA so there are variety of dosage forms and doses.

Answer 352

Treatment and prevention of upper respiratory tract infection: Adults only: 500-1500mg PO TID for 5-7 days. Not for children

Answer 353

While the active ingredient has not been identified, Echinacea extracts may stimulate multiple cytokines and increase macrophage proliferation and phagocytosis.

Answer 354

Hypersensitivity to coneflowers, ragweed, chrysanthemums, marigolds, daisies Autoimmune disorders

Answer 355

Gi distress and dizziness (>10%)

Answer 356

Rash (1-10%)

Answer 357

Severe hypersensitivity including angioedema, bronchospasms, and anaphylaxis. Hepatotoxicity, leukopenia, and disease flares of autoimmune diseases

Answer 358

1. CYP2C9, CYP3A4/5, and CYP1A2 substrates- inhibition of metabolism of substrates leading to increased toxicity 2. Immunosuppressants- Immunostimulation by Echinacea

Answer 359

Oral capsule and delayed release capsule of 20mg

Answer 360

Treatment of frequent heartburn with symptoms for 2 days or longer per week: Adults: 20 mg 1x day for a maximum of 14 days

Answer 361

Esomeprazole is a PPI that when protonated in the secretory canaliculi of the parietal cells, covalently binds to H+/K+-ATPase (proton pump), which is the final pathway for acid secretion. Esomeprazole produces a profound and prolonged antisecretory effect, and inhibits basal, nocturnal, pentagastrin-stimulated, and food-stimulated gastric acid secretion.

Answer 362

Hypersensitivity to omeprazole or esomeprazole

Answer 363

Headache (>10%)

Answer 364

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, and flatulence (1-10%)

Answer 365

Toxic epidermal necrolysis, pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, bone fracture, rhabdomyolysis, and acute interstitial nephritis

Answer 366

1. Clopidogrel 2. CYP2C19 Inhibitors 3. CYP2C19 inducers 4. CYP2C19 substrates 5. pH-dependent drugs 6. Warfarin

Answer 367

Various names not a specific one

Answer 368

Oral oil as 20 mg that is obtained from the seed of the evening primrose flower and contains 10% gamma-linolenic acid. Not regulated by the FDA so wide variety of doses and dosage forms.

Answer 369

Eczema and hot flashes

Answer 370

Eczema: Adults: 8-160mg PO daily of standardized evening primrose oil containing 320mg of linoleic acid, 40mg of gamma-linolenic acid, and 10 units of vitamin E

Answer 371

Eczema: Children: 8-40mg PO daily

Answer 372

Hot flashes: Adults: 4mg PO daily

Answer 373

Evening primrose oil’s active ingredient is thought to be GLA, an omega-6 essential fatty acid. Essential fatty acids must be obtained from the diet and cannot be synthesized. A deficit of GLA may be present in patients with atopic eczema.

Answer 374

Bleeding disorders and bipolar disorder

Answer 375

Hypersensitivity

Answer 376

Gi distress (>10%)

Answer 377

Dizziness, headaches, and anxiety (1-10%)

Answer 378

Platelet aggregation and increased risk of bleeding, thrombotic events, seizures, depression, exacerbation of mania, and lipid pneumonia (<1%)

Answer 379

Indigestion and heartburn: 12 years and older: 10-20mg PO BID for up to 14 days (max 40mg/day)

Answer 380

1. Warfarin and antiplatelet agents- increased risk of bleeding 2. NSAIDs- increased risk for bleeding 3. General anesthetics- increased risk of seizures

Answer 381

Pepcid and Zantac 360

Answer 382

1. Tablet- 10, 20mg 2. Chewable tablet- 10mg (w/antacid)

Answer 383

Hypersensitivity to famotidine or other H2- antagonists

Answer 384

Famotidine is a competitive inhibitor of histamine H2-receptors. The primary clinically important pharmacologic activity of famotidine is inhibition of gastric secretion. Both the acid concentration and volume of gastric secretion are suppressed by famotidine, while changes in pepsin secretion are proportional to volume output.

Answer 385

Constipation, diarrhea, nausea, and skin rash (>10%)

Answer 386

None known

Answer 387

Stevens-Johnson syndrome, increased liver enzymes, and seizure (<1%)

Answer 388

1. Cefpodoxime and cefuroxime- decreased antibiotic absorption due to increased gastric pH caused by H2- antagonist 2. pH-dependent drugs- lower gastric pH reduces absorption

Answer 389

Feosol and Fer-in-Sol

Answer 390

1. Oral tablet- 325mg (65mg elemental Fe) 2. ER oral tablet- 142mg (45mg of elemental Fe) and 324mg (65mg elemental Fe) 3. Oral solution- 75mg/mL (15mg elemental Fe) and 220mg/mL (44mg elemental iron)

Answer 391

Prevention and treatment of iron deficiency and anemia

Answer 392

Anemia and iron deficiency treatment: 12 years and older: 60-100 mg elemental Fe PO BID-QID

Answer 393

Anemia and iron deficiency treatment: Younger than 12 years: 4-6 mg elemental iron/kg/day PO in 3 divided doses.

Answer 394

Anemia and iron deficiency treatment: Premature neonates: 2-4 mg elemental iron/kg/day PO divided every 12-24 hours under the care of a healthcare provider (max 15mg/day)

Top 100 OTC Drugs Flashcards

Brand, generic, dosage forms, self-care indications and dosing, box warnings, contraindications, adverse effects, and drug interactions (479 cards)