Top 200 Drug Practice Flashcards by Jordan Calabrese

1. Which of the following is the correct drug class for Doxazosin?

A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

C. Alpha-blocker

D. CNS stimulant

C. alpha blocker

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Which of the following is a common side effect of digoxin?

A. Pancreatitis

B. EKG changes

C. Increased urination

D. Dry eyes

B. EKG changes

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Which of the following is a common side effect of topical hydrocortisone?

A. Weight gain

B. Dry skin

C. Fat redistribution

D. Tachycardia

B. Dry skin

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Which of the following is a common side effect of doxycycline?

A. Photosensitivity

B. Constipation

C. Throat irritation

D. gynecomastia (swelling of breast-tissue)

A. Photosensitivity

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Which of the following is an accepted indication for liraglutide?

A. Hypertension

B. Hospital acquired infection

C. Type 2 diabetes

D. Hyperlipidemia

C. Type 2 diabetes

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Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for meloxicam?

A. Complete blood count

B. serum creatinine

C. decreased pain

D. all of the above

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Which of the following is a correct drug class for hydralazine?

A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

B. Beta blocker

C. Peripheral vasodilator

D. Ns stimulant

C. Peripheral vasodilator

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Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for guaifenesin?

A. Anesthetizing the stretch receptors located in the respiratory passages reducing the cough reflex

B. Thinning bronchial secretions and increasing sputum volume

C. Competes with histamine for h 1-receptor sites on effector cells in the central nervous system

D. Relieves skeletal muscle spasm of local origin without interfering with muscle function

B. Thinning bronchial secretions and increasing sputum volume

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Which of the following is an accepted indication for nifedipine?

A. Depression

B. GERO

C. Hypertension

D. Heart failure

C. Hypertension

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Which of the following is the generic name for Bactrim?

A. Ticagrelor

B. Insulin detemir

C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

D. Senna

C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of nitroglycerin?

A. Sublingual tablet

B. Extended-release capsule

C. Transdermal patch

D. All of the above

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Which of the following is a common side effect of niacin?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Flushing

C. Increased urination

D. Tachycardia

B. Flushing

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Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for topical triamcinolone?

A. Monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products

B. It may take several weeks for the full effect to be realized

C. Avoid occlusive dressings or tight-fitting clothes over site of administration

D. Advise diabetic patients to carefully follow blood sugar levels because it may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia

C. Avoid occlusive dressings or tight-fitting clothes over site of administration

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Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for azelastine?

A. Blood glucose

B. pain

C. rhinitis symptoms

D. Vision changes

C. rhinitis symptoms

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Which of the following drugs has an interaction with calcium carbonate?

A. Alendronate

B. CiprofloXacin

C. Doxycycline

D. All the above

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Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for rivaroXaban?

A. Administer with grapefruit juice

B. Administer with the evening meal

C. Administer with high fat meals

D. Administer with prune juice

B. Administer with the evening meal

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Which of the following drugs has an interaction with verapamil?

A. Fentanyl

B. Tetracycline

C. Metoprolol

D. Diazepam

C. Metoprolol - Is a B-blocker

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Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for gemfibrozil?

A. Calcium channel blocker

B. Fibric acid derivative which activates ppara

C. H1-receptor antagonist that blocks histamine release

D. Inhibits water reabsorption in the distal tubule

B. Fibric acid derivative which activates ppara

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Which of the following is the generic name for Allegra?

A. Methylprednisolone

B. Fexofenadine

C. Atorvastatin

D. Oxycycline

B. Fexofenadine

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Which of the following is the generic name for Viagra?

A. Insulin lispro

B. Levocetirizine

C. Benzonatate

D. Sildenafil

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Which of the following is an accepted indication for colchicine?

A. Diabetes

B. Gout

C. Depression

D. Hypertension

B. Gout

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Which of the following drugs interacts with enalapril?

A. Potassium chloride

B. Metoprolol

C. Acetaminophen

D. Warfarin

A. Potassium chloride

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Which of the following is the generic name for Bactrim?

A. Ticagrelor

B. Insulin detemir

C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

D. Senna

C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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Which of the following drugs has an interaction with nitroglycerin?

A. Fentanyl

B. Sildenafil

C. Montelukast

D. Diazepam

B. Sildenafil

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5. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for atenolol? A. Temperature B. Pain C. Heart rate D. Insomnia

C. Heart rate

6. Which of the following is an accepted indication for niacin? A. Hypercholesterolemia B. GERO C. Hypertension D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

A. Hypercholesterolemia

7. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for doxycycline? A. Cd4 count B. Resolution of symptoms of infection C. Breast pain D. Mood changes

B. Resolution of symptoms of infection

8. Which of the following is a common side effect of rivaroxaban? A. Pancreatitis B. Bleeding C. Increased urination D. Tachycardia

B. Bleeding

9. Which of the following is the correct drug class for valacyclovir? A. Dopamine agonist B. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor C. Anticoagulant D. Bisphosphonate

B. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor

10. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for exenatide? A. Blood glucose B. Pain C. Heart rate D. All of the above

A. Blood glucose

11. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for enoxaparin? A. Store in fridge for stability issues B. Inject after eating a meal for better absorption C. Monitor for signs of thrombosis and bleeding complications D. Avoid use during pregnancy

C. Monitor for signs of thrombosis and bleeding complications

12. Which of the following is the correct drug class for olanzapine? A. Proton pump inhibitor B. Thienobenzodiazepine antipsychotic C. Angiotensin 11 receptor antagonist D. Antihistamine

B. Thienobenzodiazepine antipsychotic

13. Which of the following is the generic name for MiraLAX? A. Polyethylene glycol 3350 B. Lisinopril C. Diazepam D. Acetaminophen

A. Polyethylene glycol 3350

14. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for epinephrine? A. A monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products. B. It may take several weeks for the full effect to be realized C. Administer after a meal D. Inject into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh, not into the buttock, digits, hands or feet

D. Inject into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh, not into the buttock, digits, hands or feet

15. Which of the following is an accepted indication for phenazopyridine? A. Dysuria B. Insomnia C. Obesity D. Epilepsy

A. Dysuria

16. Which of the following is a common side effect of calcium carbonate? A. Weight loss B. Constipation C. Weight gain D. Insomnia

B. Constipation

17. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for liraglutide? A. Relieves skeletal muscle spasm of local origin without interfering with muscle function B. Increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases inappropriate glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety C. GABA analog that strongly binds to the a2-delta site D. Nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker

B. Increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases inappropriate glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety

18. Which of the following is the correct drug class for hydralazine? A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist B. Beta-blocker C. Peripheral vasodilator D. CNS stimulant

C. Peripheral vasodilator

19. Which of the following is the correct drug class for doXazosin? A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor C. Alpha blocker D. CNS stimulant

C. Alpha blocker

20. Which of the following is an accepted indication for loperamide? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Indigestion D. Weight loss

B. Diarrhea

1. Which of the following is an accepted indication for Divalproex? A. Hypertension B. Absence seizure C. Diabetes D. Indigestion

B. Absence seizure

2. Which of the following is an accepted indication for valacyclovir? A. Gout B. osteoporosis C. Herpes labialis D. GERO

C. Herpes labialis

3. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for phenazopyridine? A. Drug may discolor urine B. avoid activities requiring mental alertness until dug effects are realized C. Advise patient against sudden discontinuation of drug D. Take this medication on an empty stomach

A. Drug may discolor urine

4. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for methotrexate? A. Factor Xa inhibitor B. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor C. Cardioselective beta blocker D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

B. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

5. Which of the following is the correct drug class for candesartan? A. Antihistamine B. Prostaglandin analog C. Angiotensin II receptor antagonist D. Anticoagulant

C. Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

6. Which of the following is the correct drug class for loperamide? A. Laxative B. beta blocker C. anticonvulsant D. antidiarrheal

D. antidiarrheal

7. Which of the following medications interacts with enalapril? A. Metoprolol B. Candesartan C. Acetaminophen D. Cyclobenzaprine

B. Candesartan - Is a Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

8. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for clotrimazole? A. Resolution of bacterial infection B. it may take over 2 weeks for the medication to begin working C. if using chronically use a stool softener to prevent constipation D. Resolution of erythema and pruritus

D. resolution of erythema and pruritus

9. Which of the following is a correct drug class for terazosin? A. Glucocorticoid B. alpha-1 adrenergic blocker C. tricyclic antidepressant D. beta adrenergic blocker

B. alpha-1 adrenergic blocker

10. Which of the following is a side effect of olanzapine? A. Hypertension B. Insomnia C. Weight gain D. Hypoglycemia

C. Weight gain

11. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for benazepril? A. Use potassium supplements or salt substitutes only under medical supervision B. Monitor for swelling of the face, eyes, lips, tongue, or throat C. A possible side effect is a dry cough D. All of the above

D. All of the above

12. Which of the following is the correct drug class for mometasone nasal spray? A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist B. Intranasal corticosteroid C. antihistamine D. anticholinergic bronchodilator

B. Intranasal corticosteroid

13. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of enoxaparin? A. Tablet B. capsule C. suppository D. prefilled syringe

D. prefilled syringe

14. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of polyethylene glycol? A. Suspension B. cream C. patch D. Powder

D. Powder

15. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for meclizine? A. Take with food to decrease GI symptoms B. May consume alcohol while taking meclizine C. Take 1 hour before traveling D. Must take on empty stomach for best effectiveness

C. Take 1 hour before traveling

16. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for promethazine? A. Inhibits beta receptors B. Competitively blocks histamine h1 receptors without blocking the secretion of histamine C. blocks prostaglandin activation and secretion D. selective 5-ht3 receptor antagonist

B. Competitively blocks histamine h1 receptors without blocking the secretion of histamine

17. Which of the following is an accepted indication for dicyclomine? A. Hypertension B. migraine C. irritable bowel syndrome D. Nausea

C. irritable bowel syndrome

18. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for dutasteride? A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor C. Adrenergic a1 selective and nonselective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker D. Factor Xa inhibitor

B. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

19. Which of the following is a side effect of methylprednisolone? A. Hypotension B. GI upset C. Hypoglycemia D. Drowsiness

B. GI upset

20. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for diazepam? A. Blood pressure B. Reduction in anxiety symptoms C. Reduction in symptoms of schizophrenia D. CBC

B. Reduction in anxiety symptoms

1. Which of the following is an accepted indication for benzonatate? A. Cough B. Heart failure C. Hypertension D. All of the above

A. Cough

2. Which of the following is the brand name for influenza virus vaccine? A. Fluzone B. Flomax C. Fluoxetine D. Aricept

A. Fluzone

3. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for cephalexin? A. Endogenous estrogen mimetic B. Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor C. Non-catecholamine sympathomimetic D. Nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker

B. Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor

4. Which of the following is a common dosing range for glimepiride? A. 25mg- 700mg B. 200mg - 400mg C. 1 mg - 8mg D. 750mg - 2250mg

C. 1 mg - 8mg

5. Which of the following is the generic name for Strattera? A. Atomoxetine B. Diltiazem C. Metoprolol D. Sitagliptin

A. Atomoxetine

6. Which of the following is the brand name for levetiracetam? A. Jardiance B. Tricor C. Keppra D. Lamictal

C. Keppra

7. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for aripiprazole? A. Integrase inhibitor B. Dopamine partial agonism and 5HT2a antagonism C. Beta-2 agonist D. Helicase inhibitor

B. Dopamine partial agonism and 5HT2a antagonism

8. Which of the following is the correct drug class for donepezil? A. Benzodiazepine B. Antipsychotic C. Cholinesterase inhibitor D. NMDA receptor antagonist

C. Cholinesterase inhibitor

9. Which of the following is a common side effect of paroxetine? A. Reversible alopecia B. Hypertension C. Extrapyramidal symptoms D. Abnormal ejaculation

D. Abnormal ejaculation

10. Which of the following is an available dosage form of dulaglutide? A. Nasal solution B. Delayed release capsule C. Subcutaneous injection D. Oral tablet

C. Subcutaneous injection

11. Which of the following is the brand name for insulin lispro? A. Hydroxyzine B. Humalog C. Humira D. Hydroxyurea

B. Humalog

12. Which of the following is the indication for amiodarone? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Seizure disorder C. Arrhythmia D. Hypertension

C. Arrhythmia

13. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for nitrofurantoin? A. Once symptoms improve, the medication can be discontinued B. Extreme fatigue is common and needs no medical attention C. May make urine brown but this is not harmful D. Shake suspension well and store in refrigerator

C. May make urine brown but this is not harmful

14. How much epinephrine is delivered per injection (adult)? A. 0.3mg B. 7mg C. 0.7mg D. 3mg

A. 0.3mg

15. Which of the following is the correct drug class of pioglitazone? A. Biguanide antihyperglycemic agent B. Fibrate antihyperlipidemic C. Thiazolidinedione antihyperglycemic agent D. Lipoprotein antihyperlipidemic

C. Thiazolidinedione antihyperglycemic agent

16. Which of the following is a common side effect of exenatide? A. Gi disturbances B. Tachycardia C. Increased appetite D. Hypotension

A. Gi disturbances

17. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for colchicine? A. Alpha agonist B. Inhibits urate crystal deposition C. Five alpha-reductase inhibitor D. Inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase

B. Inhibits urate crystal deposition

18. Which of the following is an accepted indication for risedronate? A. Postmenopausal osteoporosis B. Hyperlipidemia C. Hypertension D. All of the above

A. Postmenopausal osteoporosis

19. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for lansoprazole? A. Capsules may be opened and sprinkled on 1 tablespoon of applesauce B. Medication should be taken on a full stomach, preferably in the evening C. Medication is more effective when taken as needed rather than regularly D. Avoid use of antacids while taking this medication

A. Capsules may be opened and sprinkled on 1 tablespoon of applesauce

20. Which of the following is the correct indication for pravastatin? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypertension C. Hyperlipidemia D. Type 2 DM

C. Hyperlipidemia

1. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for dabigatran? A. Calcium channel blocker B. competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase C. competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor D. cardioselective beta blocker

C. competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor

2. Which of the following is a brand name for clotrimazole/ betamethasone? A. Etamax B. Lotrisone C. Neomycin D. Lotemax

B. Lotrisone

3. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of naphazoline? A. Ophthalmic solution B. Oral tablet C. Topical suspension D. Oral suspension

A. Ophthalmic solution

4. Which of the following is an accepted indication for atomoxetine? A. Hypertension B. heart failure C. angina D. ADHD

D. ADHD

5. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for bisoprolol? A. Inhibits water reabsorption in the distal tubule B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor C. cardioselective beta blocker D. dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

C. cardioselective beta blocker

6. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for levocetirizine? A. Blood pressure B. improvement in allergy symptoms C. Decreased blood glucose D. reduced LL levels

B. improvement in allergy symptoms

7. Which of the following is an accepted indication for oxymetazoline? A. Skin irritation B. Cough C. Eye redness relief D. Glaucoma

C. Eye redness relief

8. Which of the following is a common dosing range for colchicine? A. 0.6mg - 1.2 mg B. 10 mg-20 mg C. 250mg - 1 000mg D. 7 50mg - 1200mg

A. 0.6mg - 1.2 mg

9. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of topical ketoconazole? A. Topical cream B. Topical foam C. Topical gel D. All of the above

D. All of the above

10. Which of the following is an accepted indication for topical nystatin? A. Fungal infections B. acne vulgaris C. depression D. Schizophrenia

A. Fungal infections

11. How much epinephrine is delivered per injection (adult)? A. 0.1 mg B. 0.3mg C. 1mg D. 3mg

B. 0.3mg

12. Which of the following is a correct drug class for dexmethylphenidate? A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist B. Beta blocker C. Corticosteroid D. CNS stimulant

D. CNS stimulant

13. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with risedronate? A. omeprazole B. tetracycline C. epinephrine D. Diazepam

A. omeprazole

14. Which of the following is (are) the brand name for exenatide? A. Byetta B. Bydureon C. Victoza D. Options A and B are correct

D. Options A and B are correct

15. Which of the following is the correct medication class for benzonatate? A. Antihistamine B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor C. Cough suppressant D. Expectorant

C. cough suppressant

16. Which of the following is the correct drug class for chlorthalidone? A. Thiazide diuretic B. anticoagulant C. CNS depressant D. aldosterone receptor antagonist

A. Thiazide diuretic

17. Which of the following is the correct drug class for atenolol? A. Antihistamine B. Beta-blocker C. Corticosteroid D. Anticoagulant

B. Beta-blocker

18. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for irbesartan? A. Potassium B. Bleeding C. Cough D. Pain

A. Potassium

19. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for olopatadine? A. Lie down or tilt head back when administering drops B. touch applicator tip to eyeball to ensure product enters the eye C. Apply olopatadine while wearing contact lenses for best absorption of product D. This medication may cause hyperpigmentation of the iris

A. Lie down or tilt head back when administering drops

20. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for phenylephrine? A. For drops; tilt head back and squeeze a drop into nostril keep head tilted back for a few min. B. For the nasal formulation, make sure you blow your nose before use. C. Administer the spray with head upright, and sniff while spraying the bottle. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

1. Which of the following is the correct drug class for ciprofloxacin? A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Tetracycline antibiotic C. Beta-lactam antibiotic D. Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

D. Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

2. Which of the following is an accepted indication for ciprofloxacin otic? A. Hypertension B. Heart failure C. Angina D. Otitis media

D. Otitis media

3. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for triamcinolone nasal? A. Monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products. B. May cause some nasal irritation and burning C. Administer with high fat meals D. Refrigerate, do not freeze

B. May cause some nasal irritation and burning

4. Which of the following is the correct drug class for celecoxib? A. Antiparkinsonian B. H1 receptor antagonist C. Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor D. Cyclooxygenase-1 inhibitor

C. Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor

5. Which of the following is the generic name for augmentin? A. Losartan/hydrochlorothiazide B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate C. Clotrimazole/betamethasone D. Piperacillin/tazobactam

B. Amoxicillin/clavulanate

6. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for clarithromycin? A. Inhibition of presynaptic reuptake of serotonin B. Inhibition of COX-2 enzyme isoform C. Inhibition of the conversion of testosterone to 5 alpha-DHT D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA-dependent protein synthesis

D. Inhibition of bacterial RNA-dependent protein synthesis

7. Which of the following is a common side effect of clindamycin (oral)? A. Eyelash elongation B. Blue stool C. Headache D. Nausea

D. Nausea

8. Which of the following is a common side effect of clindamycin (topical)? A. Blistering B. Acne C. Dry skin D. Allergic reaction

C. Dry skin

9. Which of the following is an accepted indication for nitrofurantoin? A. Parkinson's disease B. Syphilis C. Urinary tract infection D. Birth control

C. Urinary tract infection

10. Which of the following is the generic name for Keflex? A. Hydroxyzine B. Cephalexin C. Temazepam D. Ramipril

B. Cephalexin

11. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of cefdinir? A. Cream B. Oral suspension C. Inhaler D. Tablet

B. Oral suspension

12. Which of the following is a common dosing range for glimepiride? A. 1 mg - 8mg B. 25mg-100mg C. 200mg - 400mg D. 7 50mg - 2250mg

A. 1 mg - 8mg

13. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for lansoprazole? A. Medication is more effective when taken as needed rather than regularly B. Capsules may be opened and sprinkled on 1 tablespoon of applesauce C. Medication should be taken on a full stomach, preferably in the evening D. Avoid use of antacids while taking this medication

B. Capsules may be opened and sprinkled on 1 tablespoon of applesauce

14. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for esomeprazole? A. Decreased pain B. Resolution of GI discomfort C. Signs/symptoms of rhabdomyolysis D. HIV viral load

B. Resolution of GI discomfort

15. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for paroxetine? A. Inhibition of urate crystal deposition B. Inhibition of platelet aggregation C. Inhibition of five alpha reductase D. Inhibition of selective serotonin reuptake

D. Inhibition of selective serotonin reuptake

16. Which of the following is the correct drug class for tizanidine? A. Muscle relaxant B. SSRI C. CNS stimulant D. Bronchodilator

A. Muscle relaxant

17. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for insulin lispro? A. Rotate injection site B. Monitor blood glucose C. Store via ls in refrigerator D. All of the above

D. All of the above

18. Which of the following is the brand name for insulin detemir? A. Ativan B. Farxiga C. Levophed D. Levemir

D. Levemir

19. Which of the following is an accepted indication for bisacodyl? A. Constipation B. Gastroenteritis C. Angina D. Hypertension

A. Constipation

20. Which of the following is the brand name of albuterol/ipratropium bromide? A. Combivent B. Serevent C. Duovent D. Dulera

A. Combivent

1. Which of the following is a correct mechanism of action for dulaglutide? A. GLP-1 receptor agonist B. Enhance insulin secretion from pancreatic beta-cells C. Reduces hepatic glucose production and enhances glucose utilization muscle D. Inhibits the absorption of cholesterol

A. GLP-1 receptor agonist

2. Which of the following is an appropriate dose for pioglitazone A. 15-45 mg by mouth daily B. 100-200 mg by mouth daily C. 500-1000 mg by mouth daily D. 1-2 g by mouth daily

A. 15-45 mg by mouth daily

3. Which of the following is a correct indication for ezetimibe? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypertension C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Depression

A. Hyperlipidemia

4. Which of the following is the correct brand name for donepezil? A. Aricept B. Abilify C. ZypreXa D. Clobazil

A. Aricept

5. Which of the following has a drug interaction with morphine A. Alprazolam B. Acetaminophen C. Fexofenadine D. Ranitidine

A. Alprazolam

6. Which of the following is the brand name for hydroxychloroquine A. Plaquenil B. Paxil C. Seroquel D. Zyprexa

A. Plaquenil

7. Which of the following is an accepted indication for aripiprazole? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypertonia C. Hypertension D. Schizophrenia

D. Schizophrenia

8. Which of the following is the correct drug class for baclofen? A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Barbiturate C. Benzodiazepine D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

A. Skeletal muscle relaxant

9. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for influenza virus vaccine? A. Protective immunity will occur immediately following vaccination B. Inactivated influenza vaccine does not cause influenza illness C. More injections gives higher immunity D. Has a risk of autism in children

B. Inactivated influenza vaccine does not cause influenza illness

10. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of testosterone? A. Transdermal patch B. Topical gel C. Mucoadhesive for buccal application D. All of the above

D. All of the above

11. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for amiodarone? A. ECG B. Eye exam C. Pulmonary function tests D. All the above

D. All the above

12. Which of the following is a side effect of clonazepam? A. Lethargy B. Anorexia C. Insomnia D. Depression

A. Lethargy

13. Which of the following is an appropriate dose range for pravastatin? A. 20-80 mg daily B. 700-200 mg daily C. 500-1000 mg daily D. 1-2 grams daily

A. 20-80 mg daily

14. Which of the following is a common side effect of the pneumococcal vaccine? A. Injection site reaction B. Decreased appetite C. Headache D. All of the above

D. All of the above

15. Which of the following is an approved indication for methocarbamol? A. Musculoskeletal pain B. Migraines C. Depression D. Anxiety

A. Musculoskeletal pain

16. Which of the following is the correct drug class for ropinirole? A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor B. Serotonin-norepinephrine receptor inhibitor C. Dopamine agonist D. Norepinephrine agonist

C. Dopamine agonist

17. Which of the following is the correct dosage form for prednisolone? A. Oral solution B. Oral tablet C. Oral suspension D. All the above

D. All the above

18. Which of the following is an approved indication for levetiracetam A. Seizure disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Hepatitis

A. Seizure disorder

19. Which of the following is a correct indication for oseltamivir? A. Influenza B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Herpes simplex virus D. All the above

A. Influenza

20. Which of the following is a side effect of mirtazapine? A. Anorexia B. Weight gain C. Insomnia D. Hypertension

B. Weight gain

1. Which of the following is the correct drug class for albuterol? A. CNS stimulant B. Barbiturate C. Prostaglandin D. Selective beta2-adrenergic agonist

D. Selective beta2-adrenergic agonist

2. Which of the following is a common dosing range for metformin? A. 700mg - 250mg B. 500mg - 2000mg C. 10mg - 50mg D. 1g - 1.5g

B. 500mg - 2000mg

3. Which of the following is correct dosing instructions for fluticasone nasal spray? A. 2 sprays into each nostril twice daily B. 2 sprays into each nostril once daily C. 1 spray into each nostril once daily D. 7 spray into one nostril once daily

B. 2 sprays into each nostril once daily

4. Which of the following is the brand name for budesonide/formoterol? A. Cymbalta B. Advair C. Symbicort D. Flexeril

C. Symbicort

5. Which of the following is the correct drug class for glipizide? A. Sulfonylurea B. Antidepressant C. Antihistamine D. Antiemetic

A. Sulfonylurea

6. Which of the following is the generic name for Lantus? A. Metoprolol B. Amlodipine C. Insulin glargine D. Diazepam

C. Insulin glargine

7. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for sitagliptin? A. Improvement in sexual function B. Blood glucose C. Resolution of infection D. White blood cell count

B. Blood glucose

8. Which of the following is a common side effect of pseudoephedrine? A. Sedation B. Hypokalemia (low potassium) C. Restlessness D. Hypotension (low blood pressure)

C. Restlessness

9. Which of the following is a common dosing range for hydrochlorothiazide? A. 12.5mg - 50mg B. 125mg - 7000mg C. 7 mg - 5mg D. 750mg - 7000mg

A. 12.5mg - 50mg

10. Which of the following is a correct drug class for amlodipine? A. Calcium channel blocker B. Corticosteroid C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist D. CNS stimulant

A. Calcium channel blocker

11. Which of the following is an accepted indication for dextromethorphan? A. Cough B. Diabetes C. Kidney failure D. ADHD

A. Cough

12. Which of the following is a correct drug class for isosorbide mononitrate? A. Aldosterone receptor antagonist B. Antianginal C. Antihistamine D. Opioid receptor antagonist

B. Antianginal

13. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with alendronate? A. Insulin detemir B. Aluminum hydroxide antacids C. Irbesartan D. Aripiprazole

B. Aluminum hydroxide antacids

14. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for lisinopril? A. Blood pressure B. Kidney function C. Potassium D. All of the above

D. All of the above

15. Which of the following is an accepted indication for oxybutynin? A. Genital herpes B. Depression C. Overactive bladder D. Diarrhea

C. Overactive bladder

16. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for simvastatin? A. Take this medication in the evening B. Report muscle aches and pains to your doctor C. Contact prescriber immediately if pregnancy occurs D. All of the above

D. All of the above

17. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for losartan? A. A competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor (AT1) B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor C. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor D. Inhibits the renin-angiotensin system

A. A competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor (AT1)

18. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for tamsulosin? A. Selectively block postsynaptic a1-adrenergic receptors B. Aldosterone antagonist C. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor D. Inhibits water reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule

A. Selectively block postsynaptic a1-adrenergic receptors

19. Which of the following is an accepted indication for furosemide? A. Dementia B. Hyperlipidemia C. Edema D. Overactive bladder

C. Edema

20. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for metoprolol? A. It may take several weeks for the full effect to be realized B. Administer this medication with a meal containing high amounts of fat C. Monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products. D. This medication frequently causes fatigue and dizziness when first starting therapy

D. This medication frequently causes fatigue and dizziness when first starting therapy - Is a B-blocker

1. Which of the following is an accepted indication for fluoxetine? A. Infertility B. Obesity C. Depression D. Fibromyalgia

C. Depression

2. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with levofloxacin? A. Furosemide B. Calcium carbonate C. Valsartan D. Albuterol

B. Calcium carbonate

3. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for famotidine? A. Peripheral HI-receptor antagonism B. Xanthine oxidase inhibition C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition D. Histamine h2 receptor inhibition

D. Histamine h2 receptor inhibition

4. Which of the following is a common side effect of naproxen? A. GI distress B. Cough C. Blue-colored stool D. Purple toe syndrome

A. GI distress

5. Which of the following is the correct drug class for acyclovir? A. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor B. Anthelmintic C. Retinoid D. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor

D. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor

6. Which of the following is a common side effect of quetiapine? A. Weight gain B. Hypolipidemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypotension

A. Weight gain

7. Which of the following is a common adult dosing range for acetaminophen? A. 5000mg - 6000mg B. 1mg - 10mg C. 650mg - 4000mg D. 50mg - 200mg

C. 650mg - 4000mg

8. Which of the following is a side effect of alprazolam? A. Dry skin B. Insomnia C. Somnolence D. Increased libido

C. Somnolence

9. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for venlafaxine? A. Enhances the postsynaptic effect of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA B. Reuptake inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine but lacks effects on muscarinic, alpha-adrenergic, or histamine receptors C. Decreases the production of uric acid by inhibiting the action of Xanthine oxidase D. Increases the release of dopamine

B. Reuptake inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine but lacks effects on muscarinic, alpha-adrenergic, or histamine receptors

10. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for prednisone? A. Avoid direct sun exposure while on this medication B. Take with food or milk C. Report signs/ symptoms of hypoglycemia D. Take this medication on an empty stomach

B. Take with food or milk

11. Which of the following is an accepted indication for allopurinol? A. Gout B. Constipation C. Depression D. All of the above

A. Gout

12. Which of the following is a correct drug class for amitriptyline? A. Bisphosphonate B. Opioid C. TCA (tricyclic antidepressant) D. ACE inhibitor

C. TCA (tricyclic antidepressant)

13. Which of the following is the generic for Flagyl? A. Levothyroxine B. Metoprolol C. Metronidazole D. Loperamide

C. Metronidazole

14. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for warfarin? A. Blood glucose B. INR C. Pulse D. Blood pressure

B. INR

15. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for metronidazole? A. Avoid grapefruit juice when taking this medication B. Avoid sunlight or wear sunscreen while taking this medication C. Contact prescriber immediately if pregnancy occurs D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

16. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for omeprazole? A. Potassium B. SCr C. Resolution of GI discomfort D. Blood pressure

C. Resolution of GI discomfort

17. Which of the following is a correct drug class for tramadol? A. Factor Xa inhibitor B. Opioid C. Statin D. Prostaglandin

B. Opioid

18. Which of the following is the generic name for Zoloft? A. Doxycycline B. Amoxicillin C. Clindamycin D. Sertraline

D. Sertraline

19. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for fluconazole? A. Advise diabetic patients to carefully follow blood sugar levels because it may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia B. Must take with a high protein meal C. Safe for use during pregnancy D. Many medications, including OTC medications, interact with this medication

D. Many medications, including OTC medications, interact with this medication

20. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for senna? A. Soluble fiber that absorbs water in the intestine to soften stool B. Increases penetration of fluid into the stool C. Causes osmotic retention of fluid and distends the colon D. Increases colonic motility, enhancing colonic transit

D. Increases colonic motility, enhancing colonic transit

1. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for hydralazine? A. Pain B. Blood pressure C. Edema D. Blood glucose

B. Blood pressure

2. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of latanoprost? A. Tablet B. Nasal solution C. Otic solution D. Ophthalmic solution

D. Ophthalmic solution

3. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for rivaroxaban? A. INR B. HDL C. CBC D. All of the above

C. CBC - Is an anticoagulant, Factor Xa inhibitor

4. Which of the following is an accepted indication for doxazosin? A. Heart failure B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia C. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy pain D. Back pain

B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia

5. Which of the following is the correct drug class for phenytoin? A. Hydantoin anticonvulsant B. Progestin hormone C. SSRI antidepressant D. Beta-adrenergic blocker

A. Hydantoin anticonvulsant

6. Which of the following is an accepted indication for methylphenidate? A. Smoking cessation B. ADHD C. Chronic fatigue syndrome D. Atrial fibrillation

B. ADHD

7. Which of the following is the correct drug class for verapamil? A. Calcium channel blocker B. Corticosteroid C. CNS stimulant D. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

A. Calcium channel blocker

8. Which of the following is an accepted indication for doxycycline? A. Erectile dysfunction B. Staphylococcal infection of skin C. Head lice D. Angina

B. Staphylococcal infection of skin

9. Which of the following is a common side effect of biphasic oral contraceptives? A. Weight gain B. Breast tenderness C. Headaches D. All the above

D. All the above

10. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for nitroglycerin? A. It may take several weeks for the full effect to be realized B. Administer with high-fat meals C. Allow 10-12 hours per day of drug-free interval to avoid development of tolerance D. Monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products.

C. Allow 10-12 hours per day of drug-free interval to avoid development of tolerance

11. Which of the following is the generic name for Bactrim? A. Insulin detemir B. Trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole C. Senna D. Ticagrelor

B. Trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole

12. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for zolpidem? A. Dopamine reuptake inhibitor B. Protease inhibitor C. Benzodiazepine receptor binding D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

C. Benzodiazepine receptor binding

13. Which of the following drugs interacts with potassium chloride? A. Azithromycin B. Acetaminophen C. Atenolol D. Spironolactone

D. Spironolactone

14. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for levothyroxine? A. Take 1 hour after a meal B. Take at bedtime C. Take with a glass of milk D. Take on an empty stomach 30 minutes before a meal

D. Take on an empty stomach 30 minutes before a meal

15. Which of the following is a side effect of estradiol? A. Euphoria B. Vaginal dryness C. Alopecia D. Weight changes

D. Weight changes

16. Which of the following is a common side effect of nifedipine? A. Flushing B. Increased urination C. Dry mouth D. Pancreatitis

A. Flushing

17. Which of the following is the brand name for Gabapentin? A. Nifedipine B. Seroquel C. Lyrica D. Neurontin

D. Neurontin

18. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of liraglutide? A. Pen injection B. Topical gel C. Tablet D. All of the above

A. Pen injection

19. Which of the following is a common side effect of niacin? A. Flushing B. Increased urination C. Tachycardia D. Pancreatitis

A. Flushing

20. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with sumatriptan? A. Citalopram B. Fexofenadine C. Bumetanide D. Warfarin

A. Citalopram - Is a SSRI

1. Which of the following is an accepted indication for valacyclovir? A. Herpes labialis B. Gerd C. Gout D. Osteoporosis

A. Herpes labialis

2. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for phenazopyridine? A. Advise patient against sudden discontinuation of drug B. Take this medication on an empty stomach C. Drug may discolor urine D. Avoid activities requiring mental alertness until dug effects are realized

C. Drug may discolor urine

3. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for methotrexate? A. Cardioselective beta blocker B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor C. Factor Xa inhibitor D. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

D. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

4. Which of the following is a correct indication for clotrimazole/betamethasone? A. Tinea pedis B. Vaginal candidiasis C. Acne vulgaris D. All of the above

A. Tinea pedis

5. Which of the following is the generic name for MiraLAX? A. Diazepam B. Acetaminophen C. Polyethylene glycol 3350 D. Lisinopril

C. Polyethylene glycol 3350

6. Which of the following is the correct drug class for dabigatran? A. Corticosteroid B. CNS stimulant C. Anticoagulant D. Beta-blocker

C. Anticoagulant

7. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for colchicine? A. Alpha agonist B. Inhibits urate crystal deposition C. Five alpha-reductase inhibitor D. Inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase

B. Inhibits urate crystal deposition

8. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for terazosin? A. Reduction in symptoms of depression B. Blood glucose C. Signs/symptoms of hypotension D. Reduction in anxiety symptoms

C. Signs/symptoms of hypotension

9. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for olanzapine? A. Blood glucose B. Lipid panel C. Weight D. All of the above

D. All of the above

10. Which of the following is a side effect of methylprednisolone? A. Hypoglycemia B. Drowsiness C. Hypotension D. GI upset

D. GI upset

11. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for dutasteride? A. Adrenergic a1 selective and nonselective b-adrenergic receptor blocker B. Factor Xa inhibitor C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor D. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

D. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

12. Which of the following is a common side effect of exenatide? A. GI disturbances B. Tachycardia C. Increased appetite D. Hypotension

A. GI disturbances

13. Which of the following is an accepted indication for mometasone nasal spray? A. Allergic rhinitis B. Asthma C. MRSA D. COPD

A. Allergic rhinitis

14. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of oxymetazoline? A. Topical suspension B. Oral suspension C. Ophthalmic solution D. Oral tablet

C. Ophthalmic solution

15. Which of the following is the correct drug class for loperamide? A. Anticonvulsant B. Antidiarrheal C. Laxative D. Beta-blocker

B. Antidiarrheal

16. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for benzonatate? A. Cough B. Depression C. Blood glucose D. Blood pressure

A. Cough

17. Which of the following is the correct drug class for chlorthalidone? A. CNS depressant B. Aldosterone receptor antagonist C. Thiazide diuretic D. Anticoagulant

C. Thiazide diuretic

18. Which of the following is a possible dosage form of topical nystatin? A. Powder B. Ointment C. Cream D. All of the above

D. All of the above

19. Which of the following is an accepted indication for atomoxetine? A. Angina B. ADHD C. Hypertension D. Heart failure

B. ADHD

20. Which of the following is the generic name for Lovenox? A. Tretinoin B. Enoxaparin C. Dabigatran D. Heparin

B. Enoxaparin

1. Which of the following is an accepted indication for nitrofurantoin? A. Urinary tract infection B. Syphilis C. Parkinson's disease D. Birth control

A. Urinary tract infection

2. Which of the following is a monitoring parameter for ezetimibe? A. Blood pressure B. Blood glucose C. Cholesterol D. Complete blood count

C. Cholesterol

3. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for celecoxib? A. Nonselective inhibitor of cox-1 and cox-2 enzymes B. Inhibition of cox-2 enzyme isoform C. Binding of polybiguanide to bacterial cell wall D. Blockage of interneuronal activity in the spinal cord

B. Inhibition of cox-2 enzyme isoform

4. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for influenza virus vaccine? A. More injections gives higher immunity B. Inactivated influenza vaccine does not cause influenza illness C. Protective immunity will occur immediately following vaccination D. has a risk of autism in children

B. Inactivated influenza vaccine does not cause influenza illness

5. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for tizanidine? A. Blood glucose B. Muscle spasms C. Heart rate D. All of the above

B. Muscle spasms

6. Which of the following is the indication for amiodarone? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypertension C. Arrhythmia D. Seizure disorder

C. Arrhythmia

7. Which of the following is the correct drug class for exenatide? A. Corticosteroid B. Sodium-glucose transport protein 2 inhibitor C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist D. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist

D. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist

8. Which of the following is a correct indication for pioglitazone? A. Hypertension B. Insomnia C. Type 2 diabetes D. Heart failure

C. Type 2 diabetes

9. Which of the following is a correct indication for hydroxychloroquine A. Malaria B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Lupus D. All of the above

D. All of the above

10. Which of the following is the correct drug class for paroxetine? A. Antirheumatic B. SSRI antidepressant C. Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor D. Benzodiazepine

B. SSRI antidepressant

11. Which of the following is the correct drug class for albuterol/ipratropium? A. Long-acting anticholinergic and inhaled corticosteroid B. Short-acting beta-agonist and short-acting anticholinergic C. Short-acting beta-agonist and long-acting beta-agonist D. long-acting beta-agonist and inhaled corticosteroid

B. Short-acting beta-agonist and short-acting anticholinergic

12. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for clindamycin (oral)? A. Decrease in frequency of seizures B. Weight gain C. Resolution of signs and symptoms of infection D. Reduction in anxiety

C. Resolution of signs and symptoms of infection

13. Which of the following is the generic name for Augmentin? A. Clotrimazole/ betamethasone B. amoxicillin/clavulanate C. Losartan/ hydrochlorothiazide D. piperacillin/tazobactam

B. amoxicillin/clavulanate

14. Which of the following is a correct indication for donepezil? A. Major depressive disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Alzheimer's disorder

D. Alzheimer's disorder

15. Which of the following is the brand name for insulin lispro? A. Humalog B. Hydroxyzine C. Humira D. Hydroxyurea

Humalog

16. Which of the following is the brand name for clonazepam? A. Anastrozole B. Concerta C. Klonopin D. Zyprexa

C. Klonopin

17. Which of the following is a correct drug class for aripiprazole? A. Calcium channel blocker B. Antihistamine C. Atypical antipsychotic D. SSRI

C. Atypical antipsychotic

18. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for lansoprazole? A. Activation of the 132-adrenergic receptors B. Binding at the d2 receptor and serotonin receptors C. Inhibition of the DPP-4 enzyme D. Inhibition of H++/K+-ATPase pump

D. Inhibition of H++/K+-ATPase pump

19. Which of the following is the brand name for oseltamivir? A. Viramune B. Tamiflu C. Ozempic D. Viagra

B. Tamiflu

20. Which of the following is the brand name of dulaglutide? A. Byetta B. Ozempic C. Trulicity D. Januvia

C. Trulicity

1. Which of the following is a correct drug class for allopurinol? A. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Beta-adrenergic agonist

A. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of metformin? A. Diarrhea B. Weight gain C. Hyperglycemia D. All of the above

A. Diarrhea

3. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for losartan? A. Inhibits the renin-angiotensin system B. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor D. Competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor (AT1)

D. Competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor (AT1)

4. Which of the following is a common side effect of metoprolol? A. Tachycardia B. Pancreatitis C. Increased urination D. Dizziness

D. Dizziness

5. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for alendronate? A. Beta blocker B. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor C. Osteoclast inhibitor D. Alpha antagonist

C. Osteoclast inhibitor

6. Which of the following is a correct drug class for venlafaxine? A. Antihistamine B. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Antiemetic D. Opioid

B. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

7. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for spironolactone? A. Blood pressure B. Potassium C. Kidney function D. All of the above

D. All of the above

8. Which of the following is the brand name for fluticasone/salmeterol? A. Adderall B. Breo Ellipta C. Advair D. Amphotericin

C. Advair

9. Which of the following is the correct drug class for diltiazem? A. CNS stimulant B. Leukotriene receptor antagonist C. Corticosteroid D. Calcium channel blocker

D. Calcium channel blocker

10. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with simvastatin? A. Diazepam B. Amlodipine C. Montelukast D. Tetracycline

D. tetracycline

11. Which of the following is an accepted indication for trazodone? A. Depression B. Neuropathy C. Atrial flutter D. Gastroenteritis

A. Depression

12. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for citalopram? A. Symptomatic improvement may not be seen for several weeks B. Do not drink alcohol or use NSAIDs or aspirin while taking this drug C. Avoid abrupt discontinuation may precipitate withdrawal symptoms D. All of the above

D. All of the above

13. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for insulin glargine? A. Alternate injection sites B. Monitor blood glucose closely while using insulin C. Opened vials may be stored at room temperature D. All the above

D. All the above

14. Which of the following is a common side effect of quetiapine? A. Weight gain B. Hypolipidemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypotension

A. Weight gain

15. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of tiotropium? A. Aerosol solution B. Topical ointment C. Tablet D. All of the above

A. Aerosol solution

16. Which of the following is a correct drug class for glipizide? A. Antiemetic B. Antihistamine C. Antidepressant D. Sulfonylurea

D. Sulfonylurea

17. Which of the following is the correct drug class for furosemide? A. Loop diuretic B. Polymerase inhibitor C. Cox 2 inhibitor D. Alpha antagonists

A. Loop diuretic

18. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for montelukast? A. Enhances the postsynaptic effect of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA B. Binds with leukotriene receptors to inhibit physiologic actions of leukotriene C. Mast cell stabilizer D. Oral corticosteroid

B. Binds with leukotriene receptors to inhibit physiologic actions of leukotriene

19. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for omeprazole? A. Avoid antacids while taking this medication B. Take after meals C. take 1 hour before meals D. Store in fridge

C. take 1 hour before meals

20. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for lisinopril? A. Kidney function B. Blood pressure C. Potassium D. All of the above

D. All of the above

1. Which drug class is contraindicated when used with sildenafil? A. ACE Inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Nitrates D. Thiazide diuretics

C. Nitrates

2. Which of the following is an indication of divalproex? A. Manic bipolar disorder B. Migraine prophylaxis C. Narcolepsy D. Seizures

A. Manic bipolar disorder B. Migraine prophylaxis D. Seizures

3. Which of the following is the correct class of meloxicam? A. Antiepileptic B. Benzodiazepine C. NSAIDs D. SSRI

C. NSAIDs

4. What is the maximum dose of loperamide that an adult should take in one day? A. 10mg B. 16mg C. 20mg D. 24mg

B. 16mg

5. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Doxycycline? A. May take with calcium containing foods B. May discontinue after symptoms subside C. Must take on an empty stomach without food or water D. Wear sunscreen

D. Wear sunscreen

6. Which of the following has a drug interaction with meclizine? A. Alcohol B. Benzodiazepines C. PPls D. SSRls

A. Alcohol B. Benzodiazepines

7. Which of the following is an appropriate dosage form on miralax? A. 17g powder packets B. 25mg oral tablets C. 375mg oral tablets D. 4mg chewable tablet

A. 17g powder packets

8. Which of the following is not an indication of diazepam? A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Anxiety C. Hypertension D. Seizure

C. Hypertension

9. Which class of medications does Valacyclovir belong to? A. Beta-lactam antibiotic B. Viral DNA Polymerase Inhibitor C. Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonist D. Anticoagulant

B. Viral DNA Polymerase Inhibitor

10. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for Enoxaparin? A. Decreased BP B. Resolution of thrombosis C. Relief of pain D. Improvement in schizophrenia

B. Resolution of thrombosis

11. Which of the following is not a dosage form of diclofenac? A. Delayed-Release tablet B. Topical gel C. Powder for oral solution D. Oral suspension

D. Oral suspension

12. Which is an appropriate counseling point of methylprednisolone? A. Take medication on an empty stomach B. Take medication in the morning to prevent insomnia C. May cause hypoglycemia with long term use D. May cause osteoporosis with short term use

B. Take medication in the morning to prevent insomnia

13. Which of the following is an accepted indication for digoxin? A. Allergic rhinitis B. Hypertension C. Atrial fibrillation D. Depression

C. Atrial fibrillation

14. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of doxazosin? A. Selectively blocks postsynaptic a-adrenergic receptors B. Selectively blocks beta-7 receptors C. Nonselective alpha-blocker D. Nonselective beta blocker

A. Selectively blocks postsynaptic a-adrenergic receptors

15. Which of the following is a common side effect of verapamil? A. Pulmonaryedema B. Tachycardia C. Agranulocytosis D. Gingival hyperplasia

D. Gingival hyperplasia

16. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with rivaroxaban? A. Azelastine B. Aspirin C. Prednisone D. Niacin

B. Aspirin

17. Which of the following is a commercially available dosage form of topical triamcinolone? A. Cream B. Ointment C. Patch D. All of the Above

A. Cream B. Ointment

18. What is an appropriate efficacy monitoring parameter for gemfibrozil? A. Reduction in pain B. Reduction in triglycerides C. Reduction in asthma symptoms D. Reduction in blood pressure

B. Reduction in triglycerides

19. Which of the following is a correct drug class for nitroglycerin? A. Calcium channel blocker B. Nonselective beta blocker C. Antianginal D. Alpha/beta agonist

C. Antianginal

20. What is the brand name of phenazopyridine? A. Azo B. Enbrel C. Effient D. Paxil

A. Azo

21. What is the approved indication for nystatin topical? A. Impetigo B. Candidiasis of skin C. Acnevulgaris D. Dandruff

B. Candidiasis of skin

22. Which is NOT a counseling point of naphazoline ophthalmic? A. Do not wear contact lenses for 24 hours when using this product B. Wash hands before and after use C. Avoid touching the bottle tip with hands or eyes D. Seek medical attention if symptoms have not improved after 3 days

A. Do not wear contact lenses for 24 hours when using this product

23. What drug class is chlorthalidone? A. Loop diuretic B. ARB C. Thiazide diuretic D. Potassium sparing diuretic

C. Thiazide diuretic

24. What is a common side effect of irbesartan? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Constipation D. Hypertension

A. Hyperkalemia

25. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of atenolol? A. Beta-1 selective decreases AV nodal conduction in tachycardias & dysrhythmias B. Long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, potent arterial and coronary vasodilator C. Selective Alpha1- and nonselective Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking actions D. Beta2-adrenergic agonist, ultimately relaxing bronchial smooth muscle

A. Beta-1 selective decreases AV nodal conduction in tachycardias & dysrhythmias

26. Which of the following dosage forms is Clotrimazole/betamethasone available as? A. Ointment B. Foam C. Cream D. Shampoo

C. Cream

27. What is the correct drug class for liraglutide? A. Sulfonylurea B. GLP-1 Agonist C. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) D. DPP-4 inhibitors

B. GLP-1 Agonist

28. What is the MOA of Rivaroxaban? A. Platelet aggregation inhibitor B. Vitamin K Antagonist C. Direct Thrombin Inhibitor D. Factor Xa Inhibitor

D. Factor Xa Inhibitor

29. What is the MOA of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole? A. Inhibits cell wall biosynthesis B. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomal subunit C. Inhibits dihydrofolic acid synthesis

C. Inhibits dihydrofolic acid synthesis

30. What is the drug class for olanzapine? A. Antipsychotic B. Antithrombotic C. Muscle Relaxant D. Antianginal

A. Antipsychotic

1. Which of the following is an indication for tizanidine? A. Anxiety B. Allergy C. Inflammation D. Muscle spasms

D. Muscle spasms

2. What is the mechanism of action for dabigatran? A. Direct Factor Xa inhibitor B. Direct thombin (factor IIa) inhibitor C. Indirect thombin (factor IIa) inhibitor D. Indirect Factor Xa inhibitor

B. Direct thombin (factor IIa) inhibitor

3. Which of the following drugs might be described for depression? A. Benzonatate B. Mirtazapine C. Risedronate D. Atomoxetine

B. Mirtazapine

4. What is the correct drug class for glimepiride? A. Anticholinergic B. Sulfonylurea C. Fibrate D. Triptan

B. Sulfonylurea

5. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point of lansoprazole? A. You can chew and crush the tablet. B. Take on an empty stomach 1 hour before eating. C. It is more effective when taken as needed instead of daily. D. Take with food to prevent stomach upset.

B. Take on an empty stomach 1 hour before eating.

6. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate indication for aripiprazole? A. Bipolar disorder B. Adjunct treatment for depression C. Anxiety D. Schizophrenia

C. Anxiety

7. Which of the following has a drug interaction with ciprofloxacin? (3) A. Iron B. Calcium C. Warfarin D. Acetaminophen

A. Iron B. Calcium C. Warfarin

8. What is the brand name of the inhaler containing albuterol/ipratropium? A. ProAir B. Symbicort C. Combivent Respimat D. Advair

C. Combivent Respimat

9. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for celecoxib? A. Resolution of infection. B. Reduction in seizure frequency. C. Decreased pain and improved range of motion. D. Relief from constipation and abdominal cramps.

C. Decreased pain and improved range of motion.

10. Which of the following is an indication for donepezil? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Bacterial Infection C. Viral Infection D. Alzheimer disease, dementia

D. Alzheimer disease, dementia

11. Amiodarone requires monitoring of....(3) A. Vision B. Pulmonary Function Tests C. CBC D. Thyroid Function Tests

A. Vision B. Pulmonary Function Tests D. Thyroid Function Tests

12. A patient on paroxetine likely has which of the following disease states? A. Migraines B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Seizure disorder

B. Depression

13. What is brand name for dulaglutide? A. Byetta B. Victoza C. Trulicity D. Ozempic

C. Trulicity

14. Which statement is FALSE about testosterone? A. It's brand name is AndroGel B. It is a controlled substance C. It is available as a tablet or capsule D. It may increase risk for developing BPH

C. It is available as a tablet or capsule

15. Which of the following drugs has an interation with pravastatin? A. Cyclosporine B. Niacin C. Fibrates D. All of the above

D. All of the above

16. What is an appropriate counseling point for oseltamavir? A. Symptoms should improve within 2-3 days if they worsen, seek care. B. Complete full course of therapy. C. Both A and B. D. None of the above

C. Both A and B.

17. Which of the following is the brand name of dexmethylphenidate? A. Focalin B. Adderall C. Vyvanse D. Concerta

A. Focalin

18. Which of the following is the correct drug class for cefdinir? A. Beta Lactam B. Cephalosporin C. Macrolides D. Tetracycline

B. Cephalosporin

19. What is the brand name of cephalexin? A. Keflex B. Omnicef C. Ceftin D. Biaxin

A. Keflex

20. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of pioglitazone? A. PPAR-𝛾 agonist used to improve insulin sensitivity. B. Highly selective and potent inhibor of seratonin. C. Non selective COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitor. D. A proton pump inhibitor for GER D.

A. PPAR-𝛾 agonist used to improve insulin sensitivity.

21. Which of the following is the correct indication for ezetemibe? A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Anticoagulant C. Antidepressant D. Hyperthyroidism

A. Hypercholesterolemia

22. What is the brand name of levetiracetam? A. Nasonex B. Tenormin C. Eliquis D. Keppra

D. Keppra

23. Which of the following is the correct drug class for methocarbamol? A. Antifungal B. Anticoagulant C. Muscle relaxant D. Bronchodilator

C. Muscle relaxant

24. What are some possible adverse effects of morphine? A. Constipation B. Pruritis C. Sedation D. All of the above

D. All of the above

25. What are some common side effects of the pneumococcal vaccines? A. Redness at the injection site B. Swelling around the injection site C. Muscle soreness at the injection site D. All of the above

D. All of the above

26. What is the brand name of insulin detemir? A. Lexapro B. Humalog C. Levemir D. Xanax

C. Levemir

27. Which of the following dosage forms is clindamycin available as? A. Oral capsule B. Topical solution C. Topical gel D. All of the above

D. All of the above

28. Which should be monitored with chlorthalidone therapy?(2) A. Blood pressure B. Electrolytes C. Edema D. CBC

A. Blood pressure B. Electrolytes

29. Which of the following is classified as a Loop diuretic? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Chlorthalidone D. Spironolactone

B. Furosemide

30. What is the drug class of Januvia? A. Sulfonylurea B. DPP4 inhibitor C. SGLT2 Inhibitor D. GLP1 agonist

B. DPP4 inhibitor

31. What is the indication for finasteride? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Heart failure C. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia D. Depression

C. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

32. What is the brand name of Carvedilol? A. Catapres B. Cardura C. Coumadin D. Coreg

D. Coreg

33. Which of the following is a side effect of simvastatin? A. Fatigue B. Myopathy C. Elevated SCr D. Hyperkalemia

B. Myopathy

34. Oxybutynin is available as which of the following dosage forms? A. Gel B. Patch C. Tablet D. All the above

D. All the above

35. Which of the following is true regarding therapy with Tamsulosin? (2) A. It is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor B. It is indicated for treatment of BPH C. It may cause orthostatic hypotension D. It should be taken on an empty stomach

B. It is indicated for treatment of BPH C. It may cause orthostatic hypotension

36. Which counseling points should be discussed with a patient purchasing OTC ferrous sulfate? (2) A. May cause constipation B. May cause black stools C. You should see results from taking this medication within a couple days D. Food will increase absorption

A. May cause constipation B. May cause black stools

37. Which of the following medication/classification pairings is CORRECT? A. Carvedilol/Angiotensin II receptor antagonist B. Furosemide/Calcium channel blocker C. Rosuvastatin/HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor D. Lisinopril/Beta-blocker

C. Rosuvastatin/HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

38. Which of the following generic/brand pairings is INCORRECT? A. Zolpidem/Desyrel B. Apixiban/Eliquis C. Enoxaparin/Lovenox D. Clopidogrel/Plavix

A. Zolpidem/Desyrel

39. Which medication may be prescribed for nausea? A. Sumatriptan B. Trazodone C. Ondansetron D. Folic Acid

C. Ondansetron

40. Isosorbide mononitrate is indicated for which of the following: A. Hypertension B. Atrial fibrillation C. Angina D. Heart failure

C. Angina

41. Which statements are TRUE about warfarin? (2) A. It is a Direct Thrombin Inhibitor B. Avoid alcohol and cranberry products while taking this medication C. Bleeding is the most common side effect D. Foods containing VitaminK should be eliminated from diet

B. Avoid alcohol and cranberry products while taking this medication C. Bleeding is the most common side effect

42. Which of the following is the MOA of allopurinol? A. Induces phospholipase A2-inhibitory proteins B. Antagonizes H1 receptors C. Inhibits Xanthine Oxidase D. inhibits osteoclast activity

C. Inhibits Xanthine Oxidase

43. Which of the following is the correct indication for sumatriptan? A. Migraine B. ADHD C. Atrial fibrillation D. Nausea

A. Migraine

44. Which would metronidazole most likely be prescribed to treat? (3) A. Bacterial Vaginosis B. Abdominal Abscess C. Trichomoniasis D. HSV infection

A. Bacterial Vaginosis B. Abdominal Abscess C. Trichomoniasis

45. Which of the following is NOT an indication for acyclovir? A. Genital herpes simplex B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia C. Cold sores D. Herpes zoster (shingles)

B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia

46. Which is a side effect of methylphenidate? (2) A. Weight gain B. Weight loss C. Insomnia D. Fatigue

B. Weight loss C. Insomnia

47. What is the brand name of cyclobenzaprine? A. Benzapril B. Robaxin C. Baclofen D. Flexeril

D. Flexeril

48. Which of the following is NOT an indication for pantoprazole? A. Erosive esophagitis, GERD B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. H. pylori GI tract infection D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

49. What is the brand name of Terbinafine Topical? A. Lamisal AC B. Lamisil AT C. Lamictal D. Lamasal AT

B. Lamisil AT

50. Which of the following is NOT a drug interaction with Potassium Chloride? A. Anticholinergics B. Potassium-sparing diuretics C. ACEIs, ARBs D. Ondansetron

D. Ondansetron

1. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for metformin? A. Separate from other medications B. Take at bedtime C. Take with food D. Store in fridge

C. Take with food

2. Which of the following is the brand name for apixaban? A. Lipitor B. Eliquis C. Synthroid D. Norvasc

B. Eliquis

3. Which of the following is the generic name for Nexium? A. Ondansetron B. Esomeprazole C. Phentermine D. Verapamil

B. Esomeprazole

4. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for candesartan? A. Platelet aggregation inhibitor B. Competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor C. Opioid antagonist D. Platelet aggregation inhibitor

B. Competitive antagonist of the angiotensin II receptor

5. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for topical hydrocortisone? A. Skin should be clean and intact at the site of application B. Avoid contact with eyes and do not ingest by mouth C. Wash hands after application D. All of the above

D. All of the above

6. Which of the following is the brand name for liraglutide? A. Glucotrol B. Victoza C. Glucophage D. Ozempic

B. Victoza

7. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for testosterone? A. Blood pressure B. Pain C. Vision changes D. Rectal bleeding

A. Blood pressure

8. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for sildenafil? A. Must monitor blood pressure when taking this drug B. Take it with food C. Take one tablet every 8 hours D. Take 30 min - 4 hours prior to anticipated sexual activity

D. Take 30 min - 4 hours prior to anticipated sexual activity

9. Which of the following is an appropriate monitoring parameter for digoxin? A. Blood glucose B. Pain C. ECG D. All of the above

C. ECG

10. Which of the following is the correct drug class for enoxaparin? A. Beta-blocker B. Anticoagulant C. Diuretic D. Antidepressant

B. Anticoagulant

11. Which of the following is the correct drug class for Montelukast? A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist B. Antiemetic C. Benzodiazepine D. Laxative

A. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

12. Which of the following is a common side effect of isosorbide mononitrate? A. Headache B. Hypoglycemia C. Acute kidney injury D. Urinary incontinence

A. Headache

13. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for spironolactone? A. Minimize intake of foods high in potassium B. It may take several weeks for the full effect to be realized C. Administer with high-fat meals D. Take with morning meal if once-daily dosing

A. Minimize intake of foods high in potassium

14. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for tamsulosin? A. Monitor for bleeding if using concomitant NSAIDs or aspirin-containing products. B. Avoid laying down after taking this medication C. Administer 30 minutes after the same meal daily D. Advise diabetic patients to carefully follow blood sugar levels because it may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia

C. Administer 30 minutes after the same meal daily

15. Which of the following is the generic name for Plavix? A. Codeine B. Clotrimazole C. Clopidogrel D. Clindamycin

C. Clopidogrel

16. Which of the following is the correct drug class for gabapentin? A. SSRI B. Amphetamine C. Antipsychotic D. Anticonvulsant

D. Anticonvulsant

17. Which of the following is the correct drug class for citalopram? A. Beta-blocker B. Biguanide C. SSRI antidepressant D. Benzodiazepine

C. SSRI antidepressant

18. Which of the following is a common side effect of carvedilol? A. Weight gain B. Erectile dysfunction C. Hypotension D. All of the above

D. All of the above

19. Which of the following drugs has an interaction with ibuprofen? A. Carvedilol B. Aspirin C. Furosemide D. Glipizide

B. Aspirin - or Glipizide?

20. Which of the following is the correct drug class for glipizide? A. Antihistamine B. Sulfonylurea C. Antidepressant D. Antiemetic

B. Sulfonylurea

1. Which agent is a DPP4 inhibitor? A. Lamotrigine B. Sitagliptin C. Gabapentin D. Liraglutide

B. Sitagliptin

2. Which of the following medications is NOT an antidepressant? A. Liraglutide B. Fluoxetine C. Bupropion D. Citalopram

A. Liraglutide

3. Which counseling points are correct for levothyroxine? (2) A. Take in the evening with a meal B. Take in the morning on an empty stomach C. Do not lie down after taking this medication D. It may take a few weeks before your symptoms begin to improve

B. Take in the morning on an empty stomach D. It may take a few weeks before your symptoms begin to improve

4. What is the max daily dosage of ibuprofen? A. 800 mg B. 1200 mg C. 4000 mg D. 3200 mg

D. 3200 mg

5. Which agent is NOT correctly matched with its generic? A. Fluticasone-Salmeterol/Advair B. Tiotropium/Xopenex C. Montelukast/Singulair D. Budesonide-Formoterol/Symbicort

B. Tiotropium/Xopenex

6. Which of the following agents are opioids? (3) A. Acetaminophen/Hydrocodone B. Tramadol C. Oxycodone D. Oxybutynin

A. Acetaminophen/Hydrocodone B. Tramadol C. Oxycodone

7. Which agent(s) is/are serotonin norepinephone reuptake inhibitors (SNRI)? (2) A. Escitalopram B. Duloxetine C. Venlafaxine D. Quetiapine

B. Duloxetine C. Venlafaxine

8. Which insulin brand/generic is matched correctly? A. Insulin Aspart/Humalog B. Insulin Glargine/Lantus C. Insulin Detemir/Novolog D. Human Insulin/Apidra

B. Insulin Glargine/Lantus

9. Which is a correct daily dose range for metformin? A. 25 mg - 100 mg B. 500 mg - 2000 mg C. 5 g - 10 g D. 100 mg - 500 mg

B. 500 mg - 2000 mg

10. What is the max daily dose of acetaminophen? A. 1 gram B. 2 grams C. 3 grams D. 4 grams

D. 4 grams

11. Which medications are correctly matched with their indication? (2) A. Topiramate/Seizures B. Amitriptyline/Migraines C. Hydroxyzine/Schizophrenia D. Latanoprost/Glaucoma

A. Topiramate/Seizures D. Latanoprost/Glaucoma

12. Which are potential side effects of Oral Contraceptives? (3) A. Weight changes B. Bleeding/spotting C. GI upset D. Insomnia

A. Weight changes B. Bleeding/spotting C. GI upset

13. What is the generic for Vyvanse? A. Methylphenidate B. Amphetamine C. Lisdexamfetamine D. Dextroamphetamine

C. Lisdexamfetamine

14. Which counseling points are correct for prednisone? (2) A. Take this medication at bedtime B. This medication may cause increased appetite C. This medication may cause changes in your blood pressure and blood glucose

B. This medication may cause increased appetite C. This medication may cause changes in your blood pressure and blood glucose

Top 200 Drug Practice Flashcards

(374 cards)