Top Exam Pearls Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Which scan is best for temporal bone fracture

A

CT temporal bone without contrast

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2
Q

Best imaging for imaging the internal auditory canal (IAC) for acoustic neuroma?

A

MRI of the IAC with contrast

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3
Q

Best imaging for thyroid nodules

A

ultrasound

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4
Q

What is the most common pathogen of malignant otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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5
Q

Ludwig’s angina

A
  • odontogenic infection of the subental and submandibular spaces
  • causes progressive swelling of the floor of the mouth and upper airway obstruction
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6
Q

Infections of which 3 spaces can extend into the “danger space” allowing spread to the medistinum

A
  1. Parapharyngeal
  2. Prevertebral
  3. Retropharyngeal
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7
Q

Classic presentation of peritonsillar abscess (4)

A
  1. Deviation of the uvula
  2. Soft palate edema
  3. Trismus
  4. Muffled (“hot potato”) voice
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8
Q

First-line treatment for persistent idiopathic facial pain?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

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9
Q

4 types of papillae on the tongue

A
  1. Fungiform
  2. Filiform (only one that doesn’t contain taste buds)
  3. Folate
  4. Circumvalate
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10
Q

Which branchial cleft is the most common branchial cleft to develop an anomaly?

A

2nd branchial cleft

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11
Q

Does hypopharyngeal cancer carry a worse prognosis than laryngeal cancer?

A

Yes. hypopharyngeal has more frequent mucosal spread

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12
Q

Most common benign salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

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13
Q

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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14
Q

Most common thyroid malignancy

A

Papillary carcinoma

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15
Q

Most common neoplasm of the thyroid?

A

Follicular adenoma

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16
Q

Name factors that increase risk of regional lymphatic involvement

A
  1. Tumor site
  2. Stage
  3. Presence of perineural and angiolymphatic invasion
  4. Thickness
  5. Differentiation
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17
Q

MC paraganglioma of the head and neck

A

carotid body tumor

  • pulsatile mass
  • Lyre’s sign (splaying of the external and internal carotid arteries)
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18
Q

What do you think a young male patient with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and a bluish mass filling the nasal cavity might have?

A

JNA - juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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19
Q

JNA radiolgraphic findings

A
  • Bony destruction of the pterygoid process
  • Widening of the spehopalatine and vidian foamina
  • Expansion of the PPF on axial view (Holman-Miller sign)
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20
Q

Which cancer of the paranasal sinuses is associated with wood and leather dust exposure?

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

Which cancer of the paranasal sinuses is associated with exposure to chromium, nickel, mustard gas, aflatoxin?

A

SCC

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22
Q

Which cranial nerves are present in cavernous sinus(4)?

A
  • CN III
  • CN IV
  • CN V1, V2
  • CN VI
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23
Q

Which cranial nerve in the cavernous sinus is most medial and most commonly injured?

A

CN VI (Abducens)

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24
Q

Chandler Classification is in regards to what?

A

Orbital infection

I- preseptal cellulitis
II-orbital cellutiis
III- subperiosteal abscess
IV-orbital abscess
V-cavernous sinus thrombosis
25
MC complication from a septal hematoma?
- septal perforation | - saddle nose deformity
26
What site is most commonly seen to have iatrogenic CSF leak during endoscopic sinus surgery?
lateral lamella of the cribriform
27
Top 4 causes of CHL?
1. Cerumen impaction 2. Otitis media with effusion 3. TM perforation 4. Otosclerosis
28
Top 3 causes of SNHL?
1. Presbycusis 2. Noise exposure 3. Hereditary
29
Most common ototoxic drugs (4)?
1. Aminoglycosides (ex. gentamycin) 2. Loop diurectics (ex. furosemide) 3. Platinum containing chemo drugs (ex. cisplatin) 4. Salicylates (ex. aspirin, NSAIDS)
30
In a pediatric patient with SNHL, what is the most common radiographic finding?
Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
31
What is a pure-tone average?
Average air conduction hearing threshold at the frequencies associated with speech - 500 Hz - 1000 Hz - 2000 Hz
32
How does peripheral nystagmus change when the patient gazes in the direction of the fast phase?
-peripheral nystagmus becomes faster and more apparent when patient looks in the direction of the fast phase Ex. Right beating nystagmus worsens with rightward gaze ("Alexander's Law")
33
3 types of cholesteatoma
1. Congenital 2. Primary acquired 3. Secondary acquired
34
Superior semicircular canal dehiscence symptoms (4)
1. Conductive hearing loss 2. Autophony 3. Vertigo (Tullio's phenomenon) 4. Ear fullness
35
CSF leak is common in temporal bone fractures. When does it usually stop?
Within 7 days
36
What do you think about in a infant patient presenting with respiratory distress and cyanosis at birth, worse with feeding and relieved by crying?
Bilateral choanal atresia
37
In a pediatric patient, what is the most common cause of stridorous breathing?
Laryngomalacia
38
Most common cause of subglottic stenosis
iatrogenic scarring related to endotrachial intubation
39
What is the most common tumor of infancy, of which the majority are found on the head and neck?
infantile hemangiomas
40
What distinguishes hemangiomas from vascular malformations?
GLUT-1 positivity
41
What is the first-line treatment of infantile hemangioma?
propranolol
42
Differential for pediatric midline nasal mass (3)
1. glioma 2. dermoid 3. encephalocele
43
What is the MC cleft lip/palate configuration and what side does it occur on?
Left, cleft lip and palate
44
MC indication for tonsillectomy
- sleep disordered breathing | - recurrent tonsillitis
45
Layers of the eyelid, superficial to deep (7)
1. skin 2. orbicularis oculi 3. orbital septum 4. preaponeurotic fat 5. levator aponeurosis 6. Muller's muscle 7. Conjunctiva
46
Name of the skin peel formula containing 88% phenol, croton oil, septisol, and distilled water
Baker-Gordon formula
47
What is the main complication of phenol chemical peels?
cardiac toxicity
48
MC complication of a facelift surgery?
hematoma (occurs 10% of the time, MC in men)
49
What is the most commonly injured nerve in a facelift sugery?
Great auricular nerve (sensory, C2-C3)
50
How does botulinum toxin work?
prevents the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic nerves at the neuromuscular junction
51
In a patient with facial trauma, what is an early clinical finding suggesting injury to the optic nerve?
Loss of red color vision
52
MC site of mandible fracture?
angle of the mandible
53
Only abductor of the true vocal folds?
PCA - posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
54
Is fluid bright on T1 or T2 weighted MRI?
T2
55
What is the only laryngeal muscle not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
cricothyroid
56
What is the cricothyroid innervated by?
superior laryngeal nerve
57
Your patient has vocal fold nodules from overuse. What treatment do you offer?
voice therapy
58
What is the name for the procedure to remove the central portion of the hyoid bone to prevent recurrence of thyroglossal duct cyst?
Sistrunk procedure