Topic 14: Voidable Transactions And Directors’ Liabilities In Insolvency Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary concern regarding directors of an insolvent company?

A

Directors may be held personally liable to compensate the company and its creditors if found guilty of fraudulent or wrongful trading.

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2
Q

What is the definition of fraudulent trading?

A

Carrying on business with intent to defraud creditors or for any fraudulent purpose.

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3
Q

Who can bring a claim for fraudulent trading?

A

A liquidator or an administrator.

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4
Q

What must be proven for a claim of fraudulent trading to succeed?

A

Actual dishonesty.

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5
Q

What is the standard for assessing dishonesty in fraudulent trading cases?

A

It is assessed on a subjective basis, considering what the person knew or believed.

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6
Q

What is the two-stage test established by the court for fraudulent trading?

A
  1. Demonstrate the director’s subjective state of knowledge. 2. Show that the director’s conduct was dishonest according to ordinary decent people.
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7
Q

What are the potential remedies for a person found liable under s 213 / 246ZA?

A

Ordered to contribute to the company’s assets as the court thinks proper.

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8
Q

What distinguishes wrongful trading from fraudulent trading?

A

Wrongful trading does not require proof of dishonest intent.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of s 214 and 246ZB IA 1986?

A

To ensure directors minimize potential losses to creditors when insolvency is inevitable.

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10
Q

Who may bring a claim for wrongful trading?

A

Liquidators and administrators.

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11
Q

What must be proven for a director to be liable for wrongful trading?

A

That the director allowed the company to continue trading when they knew or ought to have known there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvency.

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12
Q

What is the ‘point of no return’ in the context of wrongful trading?

A

The time before the commencement of winding up or insolvent administration when directors knew or ought to have concluded insolvency was inevitable.

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13
Q

What is the ‘every step’ defense in wrongful trading?

A

A director may escape liability by proving they took every step to minimize potential loss after knowing insolvency was inevitable.

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14
Q

What does the ‘reasonably diligent person’ test assess?

A

Whether a director ought to have concluded that insolvency was unavoidable and whether they took steps to minimize losses.

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15
Q

What advice should directors follow to minimize wrongful trading risk?

A
  • Hold frequent board meetings
  • Take professional advice
  • Ensure up-to-date financial information is available
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16
Q

What happens if a director is found liable for wrongful trading?

A

The court can order them to contribute to the company’s assets, increasing funds for unsecured creditors.

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17
Q

Under what circumstances may a court relieve a director from liability under s 1157 CA 2006?

A

If the director acted honestly and reasonably.

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18
Q

What is the liability imposed on directors for wrongful trading?

A

Personal liability that marks an exception to the principle of limited liability.

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19
Q

What is the difference in liability scope between fraudulent trading and wrongful trading?

A

Fraudulent trading can be claimed against any person knowingly involved, while wrongful trading is limited to directors.

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20
Q

What is a contribution order under s 214 / 246ZB?

A

A court order against a director which may also lead to a disqualification order under s 10 CDDA 1986

This order addresses the financial contributions directors may need to make when a company enters insolvency.

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21
Q

What does s 1157 CA 2006 allow a court to do regarding directors?

A

Relieve a director from liability in proceedings for negligence, breach of duty, or breach of trust if they acted honestly and reasonably

Relief is not available in wrongful trading proceedings.

22
Q

What are voidable transactions?

A

Transactions that can be challenged by a liquidator or administrator under the IA 1986

These transactions include transactions at an undervalue, transactions defrauding creditors, preferences, and avoidance of floating charges.

23
Q

What is the aim of challenging voidable transactions?

A

To restore the company to the same position it would have been in had the transaction not taken place

This helps increase the funds available for creditors in the insolvent estate.

24
Q

What questions must be asked when challenging a voidable transaction?

A
  1. Did the transaction involve a ‘connected person’ or ‘associate’?
  2. Did the transaction take place within the ‘relevant time’?
  3. Was the company insolvent at the time of the transaction?
  4. Is there a presumption that shifts the burden of proof?

These questions guide the assessment of the transaction’s validity.

25
Define 'connected persons' as per s 249.
Directors, associates of directors, and associates of the company ## Footnote This definition is crucial for assessing transactions involving related parties.
26
What is a transaction at an undervalue according to s 238 IA 1986?
A gift or a transaction where the consideration is significantly less than what the company provided ## Footnote An example is selling an asset worth £100,000 for only £50,000.
27
What is the significance of the 'onset of insolvency'?
It determines when the relevant time for assessing transactions begins ## Footnote For administration, it's the date of filing or notice; for liquidation, it's the date of winding up commencement.
28
What is the court's discretion under s 238(3)?
To make orders restoring the position as if the company had not entered into the transaction ## Footnote Common orders include requiring the counterparty to pay the amount of the undervalue.
29
What are the requirements for a transaction to be set aside as a transaction at an undervalue?
1. The company made a gift or entered into a transaction for significantly less value. 2. It took place within the ‘relevant time’. 3. The company was insolvent at the time or became so as a result of the transaction. ## Footnote The burden of proof may shift when dealing with connected persons.
30
What is the defence against a transaction at an undervalue claim?
The company entered into the transaction in good faith for business purposes and believed it would benefit the company ## Footnote This defence can protect many transactions from being challenged.
31
Who can apply to set aside a transaction under s 423?
1. A liquidator or administrator. 2. A supervisor of a voluntary arrangement. 3. A victim of the transaction ## Footnote There is no 'relevant time' limitation for these claims.
32
What is the purpose of s 239 IA 1986?
To prevent a creditor from gaining an improper advantage over others when a company is insolvent ## Footnote This section addresses preferences granted to creditors.
33
What constitutes a preference under s 239 IA 1986?
1. The person is a creditor of the company. 2. The company does something that puts that person in a better position in insolvency than others ## Footnote An example is paying an unsecured creditor before others.
34
When can a preference be avoided?
1. Given within the ‘relevant time’. 2. The company was insolvent at the time or became so as a result. 3. The company was influenced by a desire to prefer ## Footnote The relevant time is 6 months for general creditors and 2 years for connected persons.
35
What is a rebuttable presumption in the context of preferences?
If a preference is given to a connected person, there's a presumption that the company was influenced by a desire to prefer them ## Footnote This shifts the burden of proof to the preferred person.
36
What is the purpose of the security granted under commercial pressure by a lender?
To avoid calling in the company’s overdraft ## Footnote This occurs when the debtor's desire to prefer the lender is negated by genuine commercial pressure.
37
What does s 239(3) allow the court to do regarding preferences?
Make an order to restore the position as if the company had not given the preference.
38
What is a common court order regarding unsecured creditors paid ahead of others?
For the preferred creditor to pay the money received from the company to the liquidator or administrator.
39
What does s 245 IA 1986 aim to prevent?
A creditor obtaining a floating charge to secure an existing debt for no new consideration.
40
In what situations does s 245 apply?
Only in liquidation or administration.
41
How does s 245 avoid floating charges?
Automatically, without the need for legal proceedings unless there's a dispute.
42
What was a high-profile example of a contentious floating charge?
The liquidation of BHS and the challenge of a floating charge held by Phillip Green’s Arcadia Group.
43
What is the 'relevant time' for creating a floating charge to be invalid?
12 months preceding the onset of insolvency.
44
How is the 'relevant time' extended for floating charges granted to connected persons?
Extended to 2 years.
45
What must be proven for a floating charge to be invalid if not granted to a connected person?
The company was insolvent at the time of the floating charge’s creation or became insolvent due to the transaction.
46
What makes a floating charge valid despite the above requirements?
If 'new money' or other fresh consideration is provided to the company in return for the grant.
47
What is an example of a void floating charge?
A floating charge granted to secure an existing unsecured creditor's repayment when the company is insolvent.
48
What is the complexity surrounding the grant of a floating charge to secure an existing overdraft?
Due to case law and the reduced effect of s 245(2).
49
What happens if a floating charge is void under s 245?
Only the security is void, not the debt itself.
50
When is a floating charge void against a liquidator or administrator?
If it is not duly registered with Companies House under s 859H CA 2006.
51
What other reasons can make a floating charge voidable?
As a transaction at an undervalue or a preference under s 238 and 239.