Topic 4 - Remoteness, defences and remedies Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

What is remoteness in the context of negligence?

A

Remoteness refers to the limits placed on the extent of loss recoverable once causation has been established

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2
Q

What is the test of reasonable foreseeability?

A

A claimant can only recover if the type of damage suffered was reasonably foreseeable at the time the defendant breached their duty of care

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3
Q

What was the outcome of Bradford v Robinson Rentals regarding frostbite?

A

Frostbite was deemed reasonably foreseeable as a result of the employer’s negligence

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4
Q

What does the court’s approach to the type of damage that must be foreseeable indicate?

A

A prevailing attitude to take a broad approach, particularly in personal injury cases

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5
Q

What was established in Hughes v Lord Advocate regarding foreseeability?

A

There is no need for the defendant to foresee the exact way in which damage occurred

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6
Q

What principle is illustrated by Vacwell Engineering v BDH Chemicals regarding the extent of damage?

A

The defendant is liable for the full extent of damages even if the extent is greater than expected

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7
Q

What is the ‘thin skull’ rule?

A

The defendant must take their victim as they find them, regardless of pre-existing conditions

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8
Q

What was the outcome of Smith v Leech Brain regarding pre-existing conditions?

A

The defendant was liable for all physical damage, including exacerbation from a pre-existing condition

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9
Q

What does Lagden v O’Connor illustrate about economic loss?

A

The defendant is liable for the full extent of loss, even if the claimant’s financial situation aggravated the damages

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10
Q

What are the four requirements for the defence of consent?

A
  • Had capacity to give valid consent to the risks
  • Had full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risks
  • Agreed to the risk of injury
  • Agreed voluntarily
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11
Q

In Morris v Murray, how was the claimant’s knowledge of risk assessed?

A

The court held that the claimant was not too drunk to understand the nature and extent of the risks

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12
Q

What is the difference between knowing a risk and consenting to it, as illustrated in Dann v Hamilton?

A

Knowing the risk does not equate to implied consent to waive liability for negligence

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13
Q

What type of conduct indicates implied agreement to risk?

A

Engaging in an obviously dangerous activity

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14
Q

What is implied agreement in the context of engaging in dangerous activities?

A

Implied agreement can be established when engaging in activities that are intrinsically and obviously dangerous, such as intermeddling with an unexploded bomb or walking on the edge of an unfenced cliff.

Example: In Morris, the claimant accepted a lift from a drunken pilot, which led to the establishment of implied agreement due to the glaring risks involved.

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15
Q

What are the requirements for the defence of consent?

A

The claimant must have agreed to run the risk of injury voluntarily and must act free of any constraint.

Example: In Smith v Charles Baker & Sons, voluntary consent was stressed as a requirement in addition to knowledge of risk.

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16
Q

In what context does the defence of consent appear difficult to establish?

A

It is difficult to establish where the claimant is an employee, as they may have little real option but to accept the risks of their job.

Example: Employees may know the risks but not be voluntarily running those risks.

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17
Q

What is the significance of the Road Traffic Act 1988 in the context of consent?

A

Section 149 prevents motorists from using consent as a defence against claims from passengers injured in accidents.

Example: A drunk driver cannot rely on consent to defeat a claim from a passenger who was injured.

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18
Q

What does Section 2 of the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 state?

A

It prohibits defendants from excluding or restricting liability for death or personal injuries resulting from negligence in business contexts.

Section 2(3) clarifies that awareness of a contract term does not imply voluntary acceptance of risk.

19
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

Contributory negligence is a defence arguing that the claimant’s own fault contributed to their loss, reducing the damages recoverable.

This defence is established under the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945.

20
Q

What are the two elements the defendant must prove for contributory negligence?

A
  • The claimant failed to take reasonable steps for their own safety
  • This failure contributed to the claimant’s damage
21
Q

How does a finding of contributory negligence affect damages?

A

It reduces the defendant’s liability in relation to the harm caused, reflecting the claimant’s share in the responsibility for the damage.

The claimant’s damages are reduced by a percentage deemed just and equitable by the court.

22
Q

What must be considered when assessing a claimant’s failure to take reasonable steps for safety?

A

The claimant must take the same degree of care that a reasonable and prudent person would take, which is an objective standard.

Example: In Owens v Brimmell, a passenger was found contributorily negligent for knowing the driver was excessively drunk.

23
Q

What does the illegality defence entail?

A

Illegality, or ex turpi causa non oritur actio, means no action may be based on an illegal cause, serving as a complete defence if established.

It prevents claims arising from illegal activities, maintaining the integrity of the legal system.

24
Q

What is the impact of the Consumer Rights Act 2015 on liability exclusions?

A

Section 65(1) prohibits traders from using terms that limit or exclude liability for death or personal injury through negligence when dealing with consumers.

Section 65(2) clarifies that voluntary acceptance of risk cannot be assumed just because a consumer agreed to or knew about the term.

25
What is the key legal test for illegality established in Patel v Mirza?
The underlying policy question is whether allowing recovery for something illegal would damage the integrity of the legal system. ## Footnote The court identified necessary conditions to assess this.
26
List the trio of necessary conditions identified in Patel v Mirza.
* The underlying purpose of the prohibition transgressed * Other relevant public policy considerations * Whether denying the claim is a proportionate response to the illegality ## Footnote These conditions help determine if the defence of illegality should apply.
27
What was the outcome of the case Henderson v Dorset Healthcare University NHS Foundation Trusts regarding the illegality defence?
The defence of illegality applied because the claimant's losses resulted from her criminal act. ## Footnote This case reaffirmed the principles set in Patel v Mirza.
28
What is the definition of compensatory damages?
Damages awarded to compensate the claimant for the harm they have suffered. ## Footnote Compensatory damages are the most common form of damages in tort claims.
29
What are the two categories of compensatory damages?
* General damages * Special damages ## Footnote These categories help distinguish between quantifiable and non-quantifiable losses.
30
Fill in the blank: Special damages cover _______ financial losses at the time of trial.
specifically provable ## Footnote This refers to losses that can be quantified with certainty.
31
What does the pain, suffering, and loss of amenity award (PSLA) compensate for?
* Pain and suffering * Loss of amenity ## Footnote This award aims to address both physical pain and lifestyle changes due to injury.
32
What approach is used to calculate future losses in tort claims?
Multiplier/multiplicand approach. ## Footnote This method involves estimating annual losses and multiplying by the number of years they will continue.
33
What deductions may be made from damages awarded to a claimant?
* State benefits received * Contractual sick pay * Redundancy payments ## Footnote Deductions prevent double compensation for the same loss.
34
What does the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 allow for in the event of a claimant's death?
The estate can bring a claim for losses suffered by the deceased up to the date of death. ## Footnote No claim can be made for losses arising after death.
35
What does the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 allow dependants of a deceased person to claim?
For losses suffered as a result of the death. ## Footnote This includes financial losses due to the deceased's income being lost.
36
What does the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 allow dependants to claim?
Any losses suffered as a result of the death ## Footnote This includes claims for lost financial support from the deceased.
37
Who is defined as a dependant under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
Close blood relations, those related by marriage, or cohabitants for over two years (s 1(3)) ## Footnote Dependants are those who relied on the deceased for financial support.
38
How are claims by dependants assessed under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
In much the same way as a personal injury claim ## Footnote Losses are calculated from the date of death to the date of assessment.
39
What type of financial compensation can dependants receive under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
Lump sum or on a multiplier/multiplicand basis as appropriate ## Footnote This is determined based on the losses continuing after the date of death.
40
True or False: Multipliers for claims under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 are generally higher than in personal injury cases.
False ## Footnote Multipliers will be lower due to uncertainties regarding the future of multiple dependants.
41
What is a 'loss of financial dependency claim'?
A claim for the loss of financial support provided by the deceased ## Footnote This is relevant for the family of the deceased, for example, a spouse and child.
42
Who can claim bereavement damages under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
Spouse, civil partner, cohabiting partner, or parents of an unmarried minor ## Footnote The cohabiting partner must have lived with the deceased for at least two years before death.
43
What is the nature of the bereavement damages claim under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?
A specified fixed sum ## Footnote This amount is predetermined as per section 1A of the Act.
44
What can dependants recover if they have paid for funeral expenses?
Funeral expenses ## Footnote This is recoverable as part of the claims process under the Act.