Torts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main elements required to prove an intentional tort?

A

(1) An Act
(2) Intent
(3) Causation

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2
Q

When is intent established in an intentional tort situation? (2 ways)

A

(1) When the actor acts with the purpose of causing the consequence; or
(2) When the actor knows that the consequence is substantially certain to follow.

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3
Q

Can Children or Mental Incompetents be held liable for intentional torts?

A

Yes, if they act with the requisite intent.

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4
Q

What are the three scenarios that lead to transferred intent?

A

(1) A different intentional tort committed against the intended victim;
(2) The intended tort committed against an accidental victim; and
(3) A different intentional tort committed against an accidental victim.
* See Outline pg. 1 for good examples.*

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5
Q

What are the required elements for battery?

A

(1) The Defendant causes a Harmful or Offensive contact with the person of another; and
(2) Acts with the intent to cause that contact, or the apprehension of that contact.

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6
Q

In reference to establishing Battery, what is considered a “Harmful” or “Offensive” contact?

A

Harmful - A contact that causes injury, pain, or illness.

Offensive - A contact that a person of ordinary sensibilities would find offensive

  • e.g. Expectorating on someone, Groping someone, etc.*
  • Notes: The victim need not be conscious or aware of the contact. Defendant’s foreknowledge of victim’s hypersensitivity may lead to liability. The “contact” can be direct, but need not be (water bucket propped up on door, etc.).*
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7
Q

For the purposes of establishing Battery, what is considered to be “The Person of Another

A

The person’s body and anything connected to it, including a hat, the bike you’re riding, or the pet you have on a leash.

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8
Q

What damages can be recovered from a Battery?

A

Plaintiff can recover nominal damages in the absence of proof of harm.

Plaintiff may also recover damages from physical harm flowing from the battery.

Punitive Damages may be awarded if the defendant acted outrageously or with malice.

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9
Q

What is the Eggshell Plaintiff rule; how does it relate to Battery?

A

Per the “eggshell plaintiff” rule, a defendant is liable for all harm stemming from a battery, even if it is much worse than the defendant or anyone else expected it to be.

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10
Q

List one Defense to battery.

A

The Consent defense; battery does not exist if there is express or implied consent.

e.g. Getting into a boxing ring.

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11
Q

What are the elements required to cause Assault?

A

(1) The Defendant causes Reasonable Apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive bodily contact; and
(2) The Defendant intended to cause the apprehension, or to cause the contact itself.
* Note: Actual Contact is not required for assault. To establish Reasonable Apprehension, Plaintiff must be aware of the Defendant’s action; and that action must cause a reasonable person to be apprehensive.*
* Generally, mere words are insufficient, except in special circumstances where the defendant could potentially cause imminent harm (e.g. “Your money or your life” uttered in a dark alley behind someone can constitute assault.*

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12
Q

What Damages can be recovered for Assault?

A

Same as with Battery;

Nominal damages may be awarded without proof of injury;

Damages can be recovered for any physical harm flowing from the assault.

Punitive damages may be awarded in appropriate cases.

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13
Q

What are the elements of an Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress claim?

A

(1) The Defendant Intentionally or Recklessly engages in;
(2) Extreme and Outrageous conduct that
(3) causes the plaintiff severe emotional distress.
* Note: Defendant’s actions must be a cause in fact of the plaintiff’s harm.*

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14
Q

In terms of IIED, what might cause a court to more likely find conduct or language extreme and outrageous?

A

(1) The Defendant is in a position of authority or influence over the plaintiff;
(2) The plaintiff is a member of a group that has heightened sensitivity (Elderly, Children, Etc.)

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15
Q

With respect to IIED, what are the Constitutional Limitations on claims by/about Public Figures?

A

Public figures are unable to recover for IIED unless they can show that the words contain a false statement of fact, and that statement was made with actual malice.

Actual malice in this context is defined as a statement having been made that was knowingly false, or was made with reckless disregard for its potential falsity.

IIED may also be inapplicable to private plaintiffs if the conduct at issue is speech on a matter of public concern (Snyder v. Phelps)

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16
Q

How does conduct toward Third Parties interplay with IIED?

(Immediate Family Members, Bystanders)

A

If an immediate family member of a victim of extreme and outrageous conduct is present at the time of and witnesses said conduct, they may be entitled to recover under the IIED tort even if there was not bodily injury to the victim.

A bystander can recover for IIED if they were present for the conduct, perceives the conduct, and experiences a physical manifestation of the distress.

The same rules apply if a defendant commits a different intentional tort that causes severe emotional distress to another.

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17
Q

What must someone prove to recover damages for IIED?

A

The plaintiff must prove severe emotional distress beyond what a reasonable person should endure.

The Outrageous nature of the conduct is often sufficient evidence of the plaintiff’s distress.

Hypersensitivity - If the plaintiff experiences an unreasonable level of emotional distress, then the defendant is only liable if he had awareness of the plaintiff’s hypersensitivity.

Physical injury is not required. except for bystanders.

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18
Q

What are the elements of False Imprisonment?

A

(1) Defendant intends to confine or restrain another within fixed boundaries;
(2) the actions directly or indirectly result in confinement;
(3) Plaintiff is conscious of the confinement, or is harmed by it.
* Notes: Fixed area may be large; irrelevant. Fixed area may be mobile (e.g. a van).*

Duration of confinement is immaterial.

Defendant must either act with purpose to confine the plaintiff, _or_ with knowledge that the plaintiff’s confinement is substantially certain to result.

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19
Q

List some methods by which a person can be confined as it relates to False Imprisonment.

A
  • Physical Barriers
  • Threats
  • Physical Force
  • Invalid Invocation of Legal Authority (pretending to be a police officer)
  • Duress
  • Refusal to provide a safe means of escape

Note: Courts may also find false imprisonment when a defendant has refused to perform a duty to help a person escape.

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20
Q

What is the shopkeeper’s privilege as it relates to false imprisonment?

A

A shopkeeper may detain a suspected shoplifter for a limited time and in a reasonable manner.

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21
Q

List the six (6) defenses to intentional torts.

A
  1. Consent
  2. Self Defense
  3. Defense of Others
  4. Defense of Property
  5. Parental Discipline
  6. Privilege of Arrest
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22
Q

Describe Express Consent as a defense to intentional torts.

What about Consent by Mistake or Consent by Fraud?

A

Express Consent is words or actions that manifest the willingness of a plaintiff to submit to the defendant’s conduct.

  • Defendant’s conduct may not exceed the scope of the consent.
  • Consent by mistake is a valid defense, unless the defendant caused the mistake or knew of it and took advantage of it.
  • Consent by fraud is not a valid defense if it goes towards an essential matter.
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23
Q

Describe Implied Consent as a defense to intentional torts.

A

Implied Consent arises when the plaintiff is silent or unresponsive in such circumstances as silence or a lack of response can reasonably be construed as consent.

Some Prime Examples:

  1. Emergencies
  2. Injuries Arising from Athletic Contests (as long as conduct is within the scope of the sport; defendant can’t be reckless)
  3. Mutual Consent to Combat
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24
Q

Can a Lack of Capacity negate consent?

A

Yes, lack of capacity can negate consent, especially in instances of youth, intoxication, and incompetency.

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25
Q

Discuss the Self-Defense defense to intentional torts. (Note; Defense of Others follows the same rules)

(Level of Response, Duty to Retreat, Initial Aggressor, Injuries to Bystanders)

A

Use of Self-Defense requires that the Defendant used proportionate force to defend against an offensive contact or bodily harm (i.e. not excessive force).

Under the Duty to Retreat, traditionally most courts required an attempt to retreat before one could use deadly force.

The initial aggressor in a situation cannot assert self defense, unless the other party has responded to nondeadly force with deadly force.

A person acting in self-defense is not liable for injury to bystanders provided the injury was accidental and the actor was not negligent towards the bystander.

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26
Q

Describe the Privilege of Arrest for Felonies

(Private Citizen vs. Police Officer)

A

For Private Citizens, reasonable force may be used to make an arrest in the case of a felony if:

(1) The felony has actually been committed (No “mistake” defense if no crime committed); and
(2) The arresting party has reasonable grounds to suspect the person being arrested committed the felony. (is a defense if there is a reasonable mistake with regards to identity).

Police must reasonably believe that a felony has been committed and the person arrested for it committed the felony.
Police do not face tort liability if there is a mistake as to whether or not a felony was actually committed.

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27
Q

Describe the Privilege of Arrest as it relates to Misdemeanors

(Private Citizen vs. Police)

A

An arrest by a Private Person may only be made if there is a “breach of the peace.”

Police may only arrest if the misdemeanor was committed in the officer’s presence.

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28
Q

What is Trespass to Chattels and what level of Intent is required?

A

A Trespass to Chattels is an intentional interference with the plaintiff’s rights to possess personal property. Comes about by either:

(1) dispossessing the plaintiff of the chattel;
(2) using or intermeddling with the plaintiff’s chattel; or
(3) damaging the chattel.

Intent to interfere is not required; merely intent to do whatever the interfering act was is required.

Mistake about the legality of the action is no defense.

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29
Q

Differentiate between Trespass to Chattel(s) and Conversion.

A

Generally speaking, the only major difference is the degree to which the chattel is damaged or interfered with. In the event of a conversion, the entire value of the chattel must be recovered, whereas trespass to chattels can be less.

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30
Q

What damages may be recovered in the event of a Trespass to Chattels or Conversion.

A

In the case of Trespass to Chattels, Actual Damages, damages resulting from the Loss of Use, Nominal Damages, or the cost of repair.

For Conversion, the chattel’s full market value at the time of conversion.

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31
Q

What factors are considered when a court will decide between Trespass to Chattels and Conversion?

A
  • The duration and extent of the interference;
  • Defendant’s intent to assert a right inconsistent with the rightful possessor;
  • Defendant’s lack of good faith;
  • Expense or inconvenience to the plaintiff; and
  • Extent of the Harm
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32
Q

What is Trespass to Land? What Intent is required?

A

Trespass to land occurs when a defendant intentionally causes a physical invasion of someone’s land.

With respect to Intent, the defendant need not intend to commit a wrongful trespass; the defendant need only to intend to enter the land or to cause physical invasion.

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33
Q

How do you differentiate Trespass from Nuisance?

A

A Trespass always involves a physical invasion or physical intrusion upon the land. A Nuisance may not necessarily do so.

34
Q

Who can sue for Trespass? Is proof of actual damages required to prevail?

A

Anyone in possession of the land (i.e. any tenant) may sue for trespass; not just the owner.

Proof of actual damages is not required to prevail.

35
Q

Briefly describe the defense of Necessity as it relates to Trespass to Property.

A

The defense of necessity is available to someone who enters onto the land of another or interferes with that property in order to prevent an injury or other severe harm.

36
Q

What can the Plaintiff recover if the necessity was private? (As relates to Trespass against Property)

A

The defendant must pay for actual damages they have caused.

The defendant is not liable for nominal damages.

The landowner may not use force to exclude the person.

37
Q

What can the Plaintiff recover if the necessity was public? (As relates to Trespass against Property)

A

The Plaintiff can recover nothing.

(Public necessity arises when a private property is intruded upon or destroyed when necessary to protect a large number of people from public calamities. e.g. pool used and damaged protecting people from a fire.)

38
Q

Briefly define a Private Nuisance.

A

A Private Nuisance is an activity that substantially and unreasonably interferes with another’s enjoyment and use of land.

(e.g. Loud noises or foul odors.)

39
Q

Under Private Nuisance, what is considered to be interference?

A

Courts definitions of unreasonable interference are somewhat vague; but there are some considerations:

  • Must be annoying to an ordinary, reasonable person.
  • Someone who is hypersensitive may not have a cause of action for nuisance.
  • Someone who is not actually bothered may still have a cause of action for nuisance if it would bother an ordinary, average person.

Courts may also choose to balance the interference with the utility of the nuisance activity.

40
Q

What are two things courts have consistently refused to find as private nuisances?

A

The Blocking of Sunlight or the Obstruction of a View.

Note: Unless the former were done with no purpose other than to spite the aggrieved party.

41
Q

What are the Defenses to private nuisance?

A

Compliance with local administrative regulations is a defense.

Evidence as to whether the activity is reasonable is allowed, but is not a complete defense.

Coming to the Nuisance - Courts hesitate to find a nuisance if you moved somewhere knowing about the conduct. This is not a complete defense, but is a factor considered by the court.

42
Q

What is a public nuisance? Who can sue, who can recover?

A

A public nuisance is an interference with a right common to the public as a whole.

(e.g. Blocking a public highway or waterway; pollution, claims in tobacco litigation, claims in opioid litigation)

Generally, a public official can bring an action on behalf of the public to abate a nuisance (e.g. a state AG can sue to enjoin polluting activity that harms public health). A private individual generally cannot recover unless he has been harmed in a special or unique way, different from the general public.

43
Q

What are the four elements of a Negligence claim?

A
  1. Duty
  2. Breach
  3. Causation
  4. Damages
44
Q

Describe the Standard of Care for Common Carriers and Innkeepers

A

Traditionally, common carriers owed the duty of utmost care consistent with the practical operation of the business.

Court’s Today tend to apply ordinary negligence.

45
Q

Describe the Standard of Care for Automobile Drivers.

A

For Guests and Friends in a car- Drivers were traditionally liable only for gross negligence or wanton or willful misconduct.

Today, most jurisdictions apply a general duty of reasonable care standard to the driver of a car.

46
Q

Describe the Standard of Care for Bailors and Bailees

A

Bailor - owns property. Bailee - takes temporary possession of property.

Bailor must warn a gratuitous bailee of known dangerous conditions.
If the Bailor receives the sole benefit, then the bailee has a lesser duty.
If the bailee receives a benefit also, than he has a higher duty of care. Even slight negligence can result in liability.

47
Q

Describe the Standard of Care for Bailors and Bailees

A

Bailor - owns property. Bailee - takes temporary possession of property.

Bailor must warn a gratuitous bailee of known dangerous conditions.
If the Bailor receives the sole benefit, then the bailee has a lesser duty.
If the bailee receives a benefit also, than he has a higher duty of care. Even slight negligence can result in liability.

48
Q

What are the four levels of people coming onto land in the old / common law system?

A
  • Unknown Trespasser
  • Trespasser
  • Licensee
  • Invitee
49
Q

What duty of care is owed to an unknown Trespasser?

A

No duty whatsoever.

50
Q

What duty of care is owed to a discovered or unanticipated trespasser?

A

You are obligated to warn the person about known hidden dangers.

51
Q

What duty of care is owed to a Licensee?

A

The land possessor must make the property reasonably safe, or else warn licensees of hidden dangers. Reasonable care must be exercised in conducting activities on the land. Note; A licensee is a social guest.

52
Q

What duty of care is owed to an Invitee?

A

Note: Invitees come onto the land for a commercial or business purpose (“economic”).

The land possessor owes a duty of reasonable care, which includes the responsibility of inspecting the property, discovering unreasonably dangerous conditions, and taking reasonable steps to protect the invitee from them.

53
Q

What are a landlord’s duties to a tenant, with respect to negligence?

A

The landlord must maintain safe common areas. The landlord must also warn of hidden dangers, and repair hazardous conditions.

54
Q

When is evidence of industry custom admissible? When is it dispositive?

A

Under most circumstances evidence of industry custom is admissible. Industry custom, however, is only dispositive when the case involves a professional (Doctors, Lawyers, Accountants, Electricians, Mechanics, Etc.) In the latter circumstances, compliance is a shield, deviation is a sword.

55
Q

What is the locality rule concerning physicians, both traditionally and the modern trend?

A

Traditionally, a similar physician was one in the same or a similar locality. The modern trend is to consider what the average doctor nationally would do.

56
Q

Briefly discuss informed consent in the medical context.

A
  • Generally, patients must give informed consent.
  • Doctors must explain the risks of medical procedures.
  • Doctors are not required to inform the patient where:
    • The risks are commonly known;
    • The patient is unconscious;
    • The patient waives/refuses the information;
    • The patient is incompetent; or
    • The patient would be harmed by disclosure (e.g. it would cause a heart attack).
57
Q

What are the elements of Negligence Per Se (Statutory Negligence)

A
  • A criminal law or regulatory statute imposes a particular duty for the protection or benefit of others;
  • The Defendant Violates the statute;
  • The Plaintiff must be in the class of people intended to be protected by the statute (can be the public at large);
  • The accident must be of the type that the statute was intended to protect against; and
  • The harm was caused by a violation of the statute.

As a note: compliance with a statute does not automatically exonerate the defendant of negligence.

58
Q

What are some excuses for Negligence Per Se?

A
  • The defendant may show that compliance would have been even more dangerous;
  • Compliance was impossible; or an emergency justified violation of the statute;
  • Incapacity; exercised reasonable care in trying to comply; vagueness.

(e.g. statute requires walking against traffic. Inability due to that side of the road being narrow, in disrepair, or otherwise less safe may be an excuse)

59
Q

List and describe the tests used to show Cause in Fact

A

The “But For” test - Plaintiff must show that the injury would not have occurred “but for” the defendant’s conduct.

The “Substantial Factor” test - Used where there are difficulties with using the But For Test (IE multiple defendants, etc.). The test is whether the defendant’s tortious conduct was a “substantial factor” in causing the harm.

60
Q

What are the necessary elements of Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress (NIED)?

A

The plaintiff was within the “Zone of Danger”

and

The threat of Physical Impact Caused Emotional Distress

61
Q

When are employers held vicariously liable for the torts of Independent Contractors?

A

Generally they are not, however employees can be held vicariously liable for the acts of independent contractors when the employer retains a right of control over the way the employee does the work.

62
Q

What independent contractor activities are non-delegable?

A
  • Inherently Dangerous Activities;
  • Duties to the public or specific plaintiffs for certain types of work; such as construction work by a roadway.
  • Shopkeepers have a duty to keep the premises safe for the public.
63
Q

Briefly describe the Apparent Agency Doctrine.

A

Relates to Vicarious Liability; under the doctrine, a person may be considered vicariously liable for the actions of an independent contractor if the injured person accepted the contractor’s services based on a reasonable belief the contractor was an employee, based on the manifestations from the putative employer.

(IE the employer somehow made a representation that the IC was an employee, then later claimed the IC was and IC).

IC’s negligence must also be a factual cause of harm.

64
Q

Describe automobile owner liability (Negligent entrustment, Family-purpose doctrine, Owner Liability Statutes)

A
  1. Negligent Entrustment - An owner can be directly liable for negligently entrusting a vehicle (or other dangerous object) to someone who is not in the position to care for it.
  2. Family-purpose doctrine - The owner of an automobile may be vicariously liable for the tortious acts of any family member driving the car with permission.
  3. Owner Liability Statutes - The owner of an automobile may be vicariously liable for the tortious acts of anyone driving the car with permission.
65
Q

What is dram shop liability?

A
  • Holds bar owners, bartenders, and social hosts liable for injuries caused when people drink too much and injure third parties.
  • Note: A bartender may be held directly liable in server someone who is too inebriated.*
66
Q

Compare and contrast Pure and Modified Comparative Negligence.

A

In a Pure Comparative Negligence jurisdiction, the plaintiff’s recovery is reduced by the plaintiff’s percentage of fault.

e.g. Jordan and Daisy negligently collide, and Jordan sues Daisy. If the jury finds that the plaintiff (Jordan) is 10% at fault and Daisy is 90 % at fault. Jordan will recover only 90% of the judgment that she was not at fault for. Alternatively, If the jury finds that the Jordan (the plaintiff) is 90% at fault, then she can recover only 10% of her damages.

In a Modified Comparable Negligence jurisdiction, if the plaintiff is more at fault than the defendant, then the plaintiff’s recovery is barred entirely. (Note: In some (rare) jurisdictions, plaintiff cannot recover if the parties are equally at fault.)

In circumstances with multiple defendants, the plaintiff’s percent of fault is balanced against all defendants combined.

67
Q

What are the three types of product defects?

A
  • Manufacturing defects - e.g. a motorcycle has plastic bolts where there are supposed to be metal bolts; the motorcycle was defectively manufactured.
  • Design defects; The motorcycle was built as designed, but it is unstable when carrying a passenger or heavy rider; the motorcycle’s design is defective.
  • Failure to Warn; The manufacturer should have warned riders that the motorcycle cannot accommodate passengers.
68
Q

What are the elements of a defective product claim?

A
  • The product was defective in design, manufacture, or failure to warn.
  • The defect existed when the product left the defendant’s control; and
  • The defect caused the plaintiff’s injury when the product was used in a foreseeable way.
69
Q

What are the Two Tests to determine if a product has a design defect?

A

Consumer Expectation Test - The product is defective in design if it is less safe than the average consumer would expect.

Risk-Utility Test - The product is defective in design if the risks or its use outweigh the benefits; must include a showing that there is a reasonable alternative design.

Note: The more technical a product is, the more likely it is that experts will be required, and that the Risk-Utility Test will be applied.

70
Q

What is the learned intermediary rule?

A

The Learned Intermediary Rule usually arises in prescription drug contexts, and essentially absolve a manufacturer of failure to warn the end-user when they fully inform a learned intermediary (I.E. a doctor or pharmacist). Note: does not apply to drugs sold directly to consumers.

71
Q

Who can be sued in a products liability case?

A

Anyone who sells the product when it is defective is potentially strictly liable.

  • The defendant must be in a chain of distribution, and in the business of selling the items.
    • Casual sellers are not strictly liable, but may be negligent.
    • The seller may seek indemnification from another party.
72
Q

What damages are available under strict products liability?

A

Generally, plaintiffs may recover for property damage or personal injury. Purely Economic Loss is generally unavailable, but may be brought as a breach of warranty claim.

73
Q

What are the implied product warranties?

A
  • Merchantability - The product is suitable for ordinary purposes for which it is sold.
  • Fitness for a Particular Purpose - When the seller knows the particular purpose for which the product is being bought/sold, and the buyer relies upon the seller’s judgement.
74
Q

What are the defenses for breach of warranty?

A

The standard tort defenses:

  • Assumption of the Risk
  • Comparative Fault
  • Contributory Negligence
  • Product Misuse
75
Q

What must a plaintiff prove to show Defamation?

A
  • A defamatory statement by the defendant (Must be FALSE);
  • Of and concerning the Plaintiff;
  • The statement was published to a third party who understood its defamatory nature; and
  • Damage to the plaintiff’s reputation results.

Note: Anyone repeating a defamatory statement may also be held liable for defamation.

76
Q

What are the three classes of defamation plaintiffs?

A
  • Public Officials - A person who has a substantial responsibility or control over a government office, including political candidates.
  • Public Figures
    • General Purpose Public Figure - A person of persuasive power and influence in society.
    • Limited Purpose Public Figure - A person who thrusts himself into a particular question or incident.
  • Private Individuals
77
Q

Contrast the constitutional limitations on defamation suits on Public Personas vs Private Individuals.

A

Public Officials / Figures: The plaintiff must prove that the declarant either knew the statement was false, or acted with reckless disregard for the truth.

Private Individuals:

For matters of Public Concern, the plaintiff must prove that the statement is false, and that the person who made the statement was negligent with respect to the falsehood (ie should have known it was false).

For matters not concerning the public, it is unclear if negligence must be proven.

78
Q

List the Absolute Privileges to defamation liability.

A

Statements Made:

  • In Judicial Proceedings
  • In Legislative Proceedings
  • Between Spouses
  • Required statements by radio and TV (e.g. statements by a political candidate that a station must carry and may not censor).
79
Q

List some Conditional Privileges that shield from defamation liability.

A

These are generally Good Faith statements that are made pursuant to some duty or responsibility; includes statements made:

  • In the interest of the defendant;
  • In the interest of the recipient of the statement;
  • Affecting some important public interest.

e.g. Your company is hiring someone. You tell HR that you think the applicant has embezzled money from another company. You may be protected if the statement was in good faith.

80
Q

List the Privacy Torts (the four specific “Invasion of Privacy” causes of action)

A

Invasion of Privacy is a blanket term encompassing the four causes listed below. Generally, these apply to individuals only, not corporations. The rights usually die with the individual. I-FLAP

  • Intrusion upon Seclusion
    • Defendant intrudes upon the plaintiff’s private affairs in a manner objectionable to a reasonable person. e.g. Phone tapping, hacking medical records, peeping Toms.
  • False Light
    • Defendant (1) makes public facts about the plaintiff; (2) that place the plaintiff in a false light; (3) which would be highly offensive to a reasonable person. e.g. Writing a story about one person and including a mugshot of someone else.
  • Appropriation of the Right to Publicity
    • Defendant (1) appropriates another’s name or likeness, (2) for the defendant’s advantage, (3) without consent, and (4) causes injury.
  • Public Disclosure of Private Facts